Regs and guidelines part 2 Flashcards
(207 cards)
1
Q
Who published the 2020 Ag Guide?
A
1) American Diary Science Association
2) American Society of Animal Science
3) Poultry Science Association.
2
Q
IACUC members for AWA, Guide, Ag Guide, and PHS policy
A
AWA: 3 (vet, scientist, unaffiliated)
Guide: 4 (vet, scientist, nonscientist, unaffiliated)
Ag Guide: 5 (vet, scientist, ag scientist, nonscientist, unaffiliated)
PHS: 5 (vet, scientist, nonscientist, unaffiliated)
3
Q
Per Ag Guide, for occupational health tetanus vaccine should be given every ___ years
A
10
4
Q
Per Ag Guide, for the disposition of GE animals and clones it is recommended that institutions and researchers participate in the _____, whereby animal clones are registered in the database or registry.
A
Livestock Industry Clone Registry
5
Q
Per Ag Guide, must keep records of drugs and potentially harmful substance for ___.
A
3 months
6
Q
What does FARAD stand for?
A
Food Animal Residue Avoidance Databank
7
Q
Extralabel drug use permitted only when adheres to the ____ 1994 Public Law
A
Animal Medicinal Drug Use Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act (AMDUCA)
8
Q
According to AMDUCA what is needed for extralabel drug use?
A
- Veterinary-client-patient relationship
- No on-label drug available
- Extra label drug use in feed is illegal
- Drug must be manufactured in an FDA-inspected facility
- Maintain records for 2 years
- Follow withdrawal times
- Need to be able to identify the animal
9
Q
In accordance with the US Code of Federal Regulations [9 CFR], water is to be accessible to livestock at all times in holding pens, and feed is to be accessible after livestock have been held longer than ___ h.
A
24
10
Q
According to Ag Guide, for very young animals air speed (drafts) should be < ____
A
0.25 m/s (50 ft/min)
11
Q
ALL ag animals are social with the exception of ____.
A
the adult boar
12
Q
What color may make poultry more docile?
A
BLUE
13
Q
Beef cattle are ____ raised, while dairy cattle are ___ raised. How does this affect flight zones?
A
Extrinsic = larger flight zones
Intrinsic (more confined, need to provide food/water)
14
Q
Panepinto sling to restrain smaller pigs up to ____ lbs
A
350
15
Q
____ refers to a holding area, typically at a slaughterhouse, where animals are kept before slaughter
A
Lairage
16
Q
For dehorning of beef cattle, remove within ____ month. If beyond that age, use local anesthesia.
A
1 month
17
Q
Because cows prefer to stand uphill, the stall base for dairy cattle should be sloped forward ____%
A
4%
18
Q
The low critical temp of the piglet is ____ at birth
A
95F
19
Q
To castrate boars, perform before ____. If beyond that age use local anesthesia.
A
14 days
20
Q
When trimming needle teeth (canines) in young pigs, perform before ___ days old and do not remove more than ___ of tooth.
A
3
1/2
21
Q
Recommended illumination for sheep and goats
A
220 lux
22
Q
Ideally castrate small ruminants before ___. If castration done >____ of age, considered major surgery and requires use of analgesia/anesthesia
A
7 days
3 months
23
Q
For sheep, tail-docking should be done before ____ of age. If older than ___ considered a major surgery requiring anesthesia and analgesia.
A
2 weeks
3 months
24
Q
There are 3 commonly accepted methods for castrating rams and bucks:
A
(1) application of rubber rings
(2) crushing the spermatic cord with an emasculator (the Burdizzo method)
(3) surgical removal of the testicles.
25
Ideally dehorn small ruminants before ____ of age.
1 month
26
What is the preferred air temperature for housing neonatal 3-15 kg swine (pre-nursery) according to Ag Guide?
79-90F
27
What flooring is NOT recommended for swine?
Seamless epoxy (slippery, cracks, not readily disinfected)
28
Pesticides should only be used in animal areas following approval by or consultation with the _____?
Investigator
29
According to the Guide for the Care and Use of Agricultural Animals in Research and Teaching, which of these pollutant gases is of least concern in animal facilities?
a. Ammonia
b. Hydrogen sulfide
c. Carbon monoxide
d. Methane
e. NO2
NO2 (The rest have exposure limits)
30
Limits for ammonia, hydrogen sulfide, carbon monoxide, methane per Ag Guide
Ammonia – 25 ppm (like BB for rodents, but OSHA limit = 50)
Hydrogen sulfide – 50 ppm
Carbon monoxide – 150 ppm
Methane – 50,000 ppm
31
Facilities must use biosafety containment level-3-Agriculture (BSL-3-Ag) under what situation?
When animals are loosely housed and room must become the primary barrier
32
Space requirements for market-size cattle, swine, and sheep at lairage (holding space before slaughter)
20, 6, and 5 sq ft respectively
33
According to Ag Guide, what temperature for neonatal poults (turkeys)?
95-100F
34
According to the Guide for the Care and Use of Agricultural Animals in Research and Teaching, who has responsibility for oversight of medical records?
AV and IACUC
35
What discouraged practice removes wool-bearing skin of sheep around hind end to prevent fly strike?
Mulesing
36
What procedure in sheep is commonly performed prior to parturition to minimize fetal contamination during the birthing process?
Crutching
37
Dubbing refers to which standard agricultural practices?
Partial removal of the comb of chickens - but it's important for thermoregulation so need to make sure they stay cool
38
Weanling pigs are commonly vaccinated for ___ and ___.
erysipelas
leptospirosis
39
Temp for brooding in young chicks, poults, and ducklings
90-95F
40
Agricultural scientists can be certified
through examination by the ____.
American Registry of Professional Animal Scientists (ARPAS)
41
What is considered the de facto standard for classifying thermal environments?
THI (temperature-humidity index)
42
Maceration in poultry up to ____ old
72 hours
43
IACUC membership per Ag Guide
5 members
1) Scientist with experience in agricultural research
2) Animal, dairy, or poultry scientist
3) veterinarian with training and experience in agricultural animal medicine
4) non-scientist
5) unaffiliated
44
Recommended enrichment for poultry
Perches, nest boxes, nesting substrate, foraging, dust baths
45
How to determine acclimation period for metabolism stalls?
No recommended preconditioning period; IACUC decides
46
According to the “Guide for the Care and Use of Agricultural Animals in Agricultural Research and Teaching,” cold housing systems usually provide animals with a microenvironmental temperature that is no more than how many degrees above the outdoor temperature?
5C
47
What CFR and Subpart is ***FDA*** GLP?
CFR 21 Subpart 58
48
Per GLP guidelines, what describes in vivo or in vitro experiments in which test articles are studied prospectively in test systems under laboratory conditions to determine their ***SAFETY***?
Nonclinical laboratory study
**Does not include human studies or field studies or basic exploratory studies to determine utility of test article**
49
Per GLP guidelines, what describes a person who actually conducts a nonclinical laboratory study, i.e., actually uses the test article in a test system?
Testing facility
50
Per GLP guidelines, what term describes the individual responsible for the overall conduct of a nonclinical laboratory study?
Study director. They sign the study initiation and completion date
51
Per GLP guidelines, who maintains a copy of a master schedule sheet of all nonclinical laboratory studies conducted at the testing facility?
Quality Assurance Unit
52
The statement of GLP study results should be prepared by ____ and then final report signed by ____.
Quality Assurance Unit
Study director
53
How long to keep records for GLP studies?
- 2 years after ***application*** is approved by FDA
- 5 years after ***results*** are submitted to FDA
- If not submitted: 2 years after study is completed, terminated, or discontinued
54
Who oversees oversees disqualification of a GLP testing facility that is out of compliance?
The Commissioner of the FDA. Even if disqualified, still need to submit study results to the FDA.
55
If a sponsor terminates or suspends a GLP testing facility from further participation in a nonclinical laboratory study that is being conducted as part of any application for a research or marketing permit that has been submitted to any Center of the FDA (whether approved or not), it shall notify that Center in writing within ___ working days of the action.
15
56
What is a sponsor for GLP?
(1) A person who initiates and supports a nonclinical laboratory study;
(2) A person who submits a nonclinical study to the FDA in support of an application for a research or marketing permit; or
(3) A testing facility, if it both initiates and actually conducts the study.
57
What CFR pertains to FDA?
21
58
What CFR and Subpart is ***EPA*** GLP?
***40 CFR - Part 160*** – Good Laboratory Practice -- Federal Insecticide, Fungicide and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA)
***40 CFR - Part 792*** – Good Laboratory Practice -- Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA)
59
What are two drug applications through FDA GLP?
(1) Investigational new drug application (IND) - yet to begin human clinical trials
(2) A new drug application (NDA) - completed human clinical trials and seeking to go on the market
60
What is a main difference between Federal Insecticide, Fungicide and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) and the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) (EPA GLP)
While FIFRA calls for extensive test data as part of a complex registration process, TSCA requires only a 90-day advance notice to produce a new chemical.
61
What is study initiation date vs day 0?
Study initiation date: Study director signs off
Day 0: Test article is given
62
When FDA visits GLP facility, are Quality Assurance Unit findings and problems identified required to be shared?
No; they're excluded from requirements
63
According to FDA GLP do animals of different species need to be housed in different rooms?
Only when necessary
64
When is extralabel use of phenylbutazone prohibited in food animals?
Only prohibited in dairy cattle >20 months old
OK extralabel in small ruminants
65
When is extralabel use of sulfonamides prohibited in food animals?
In lactating dairy cattle (Except approved use of sulfadimethoxine, sulfabromomethazine, and sulfaethoxypyridazine)
OK extralabel in small ruminants
66
What drugs are prohibited for extralabel use in food animals per AMDUCA?
Chloramphenicol, clenbuterol, diethylstilbestrol (DES), nitroimidazoles, furazolidone, nitrofurazone, sulfonamides in lactating dairy cattle (except approved ones - sulfadimethoxine, sulfabromomethazine, and sulfaethoxypyridazine), fluoroquinolones, glycopeptide abx (eg vancomycin), Phenylbutazone in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older, cephalosporins (Except cephapirin) in cattle, swine, chickens, or turkeys
67
Can the FDA grant marketing approval for a new drug product if if only one species is used for preclinical testing?
Yes; if that one species is sufficiently well-characterized animal model to predict the response in humans
68
Which Federal law gives the Fish and Wildlife Service authority to regulate and enforce the importation, exportation, transportation and sale of fish, wildlife or plants that may be injurious to humans or US wildlife?
Lacey Act
69
Are animal cage cards that contain only animal ID, study number, study dates and cage number considered to be raw data for a nonclinical laboratory study submitted to the Food and Drug Administration?
No
70
Which CFR specifically addresses the importation of live nonhuman primates?
42 CFR Subpart 71
71
Which CFR specifically addresses HHS, CDC select agents and toxins?
42 CFR Subpart 73
72
What CFR is the Controlled Substances Act from the DEA?
CFR 21 (same as FDA GLP)
73
DEA Form 222 = ___
DEA Form 224 = ___
DEA Form 225 = ___
Class 1 or 2 order form
Institution, Practitioner
Researcher
74
Schedule 1 controlled Substances must be in a Class ____ security container
5
75
How long to maintain records for DEA (Controlled Substances Act)?
2 years
76
How often to conduct inventory for DEA?
Every 2 years
77
Significant loss must be reported to the DEA within ___ business days.
1
78
High potential for Abuse, No currently accepted medical use = DEA Schedule ___
1
79
High potential abuse, may lead to ***severe*** psychological or physical dependence = DEA Schedule ___
2
80
Potential for abuse but less than lower schedules, may lead to moderate or low physical dependence or ***HIGH psychological dependence***
= DEA Schedule ___
3
81
Low potential for abuse, Limited physical or psychological dependence relative to drugs and other substances = DEA Schedule ___
4
82
Lowest potential for abuse = DEA Schedule ___
5
83
DEA Schedule 1 examples
Heroin, lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), marijuana (cannabis), peyote, methaqualone and 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine ("extasy")
84
DEA Schedule 2 examples
NARCOTICS: Morphine, opium, hydromorphone (Dilaudid), methadone (Dolophine), Meperidine (Demerol), oxycodone (OxyContin), fentanyl (Sublimaze or Duragesic)
STIMULANTS: Amphetamine (Dexedrine, Adderall), methamphetamine (Desoxyn) and methylphenidate (Ritalin)
Other: Cocaine, amobarbital, glutethimide, and ***pentobarbital (Nembutal)***, Hydrocodone, codeine
Alfentanil, sufentanil, carfentanil
85
DEA Schedule 3 examples
Combination products: 15 mg of hydrocodone per dosage unit (Vicodin), 90 mg or less of codeine per dosage unit (Tylenol w/ codeine)
***Buprenorphine*** (Buprenex, Temgesic, Suboxone, Subutex)
NON-Narcotics: Benzphetamine (Didrex), phendimetrazine, ***tiletamine and zolazepam (Telazol)***, ***ketamine***, thiopental (pentothal), Pentobarbital and phenytoin (Beuthanasia/Euthasol), anabolic steroids (Oxadrin), nalorphine (mixed agonist/antagonist like torb but stronger)
86
DEA Schedule 4 examples
Narcotic: propoxyphene (Darvon and Darvocet-N 100) = weak opioid agonist
Alprazolam (xanax), clonazepam (Klonopin), clorazepate (Tranxene), ***diazepam (Valium)***, lorazepam (Ativan), ***midazolam (Versed)***, temazepam (Restoril) and tiazolam (Halcion), ***alfaxalone, ***butorphanol (Torbugesic)***, chloral hydrate (Noctec), ***tramadol***, and ***phenobarbital***
87
DEA Schedule 5 examples
Used commonly for antitussive, antidiarrheal, and analgesic purposes:
Cough preparations containing <200 mg of codeine per 100 mL (Robitussin AC and Phenegran w/ Codeine), Diphenoxylate (Lomotil)
88
What TWO conventions that govern international manufacture, use and distribution of controlled substances were from the Vienna Convention? Who governs these two treaties?
1961 Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs
1971 Convention on Psychotropic Substances
These two treaties are governed by WHO
89
What department contains DEA?
Department of Justice
90
The CSA is administered by ___ and enforced by the ___.
The Secretary of Health and Human Services
DEA
91
When does veterinarian report to the controlled substance reporting system (CSRS)?
When sending schedule drug home with patient
92
Schedule I and II controlled substances may be transferred to another user who is authorized to use such drugs via the DEA form ___
222
93
What DEA Schedule is tramadol?
IV
94
What DEA Schedule is phenobarbital?
IV
95
What DEA Schedule is lysergic acid diethylamide?
LSD - I
96
What DEA schedule is Vicodin (hydrocodone and acetaminophen)?
III
97
What DEA schedule is methaqualone?
I (a recreational drug)
98
What DEA schedule is oxycodone (OxyContin)?
II
99
What DEA schedule is benzphetamine (Didrex)?
III (weight loss drug)
100
What DEA schedule is pentobarbital (Nembutal)?
II
101
What DEA schedule is amphetamines (Dexedrine, Adderall)?
II
102
What DEA schedule is propoxyphene (Darvon, Darvocet-N 100)?
IV (weak mu agonist)
103
What DEA schedule is methcathinone (MCAT)?
I
104
What DEA schedule is clonazepam (Klonopin)?
IV
105
What DEA schedule is hydromorphone (Dilaudid)?
II
106
What DEA schedule is amobarbital?
II
107
What DEA schedule is cocaine?
II
108
What DEA schedule is methylphenidate (Ritalin)?
II
109
What DEA schedule is oxandrolone (Oxadrin)?
III (anabolic steroid)
110
What DEA schedule is meperidine (Demerol)?
II (similar to morphine)
111
What DEA schedule is phenytoin (Beuthanasia/Euthasol)?
III
112
What DEA schedule is methamphetamine (Desoxyn)?
II
113
What DEA schedule is lorazepam (Ativan)?
IV
114
What is excluded from Endangered Species Act/CITES?
1. Specimens in transit or being shipped
2. Specimens acquired before CITES applied to them
3. Personal or household effects
4. Bred in captivity – FWS regulates
5. Plants that were artificially propagated
6. Destined for scientific research
7. Part of travelling collection or exhibition
115
What CITES appendix is Ambystoma americana and poisoned dart frogs?
Axolotl
Both CITES II
116
Which NHPs are all CITES II?
Papio spp, Aotus spp, Chlorocebus spp
117
All NHPs are within CITES...
I or II
118
What United States government agency is responsible for enforcement of the Convention on the International Trade of Endangered Species of Wild Flora and Fauna?
US Fish and Wildlife Service within Dep of Interior
119
What does the acronym CITES mean?
Convention on International Trade of Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
120
What BSL level for Mycobacterium tuberculosis to 1) handle bacteria 2) infected NHPs 3) aerosol-infected mice 4) parenterally-infected mice
1) 3
2) 3
3) 3
4) 2
121
If person is infected with Brucella, report to ___ and if animal is infected with Brucella, report to ___.
CDC
USDA
122
What ABSL for LCMV in adult mice with mouse brain-passaged strains? How about hamsters?
ABSL-2
ABSL-3
123
Endangered Species Act of ____. Enforced by ___.
1973
Dep of Interior US Fish & Wildlife Service
124
What is CVI form?
Certificate of Veterinary Inspection aka health certificate
125
What is 7020 form?
USDA form
Record of acquisition, disposition, or transport of non-dogs or cats
126
Bright light can cause aggression in ___.
chickens
127
When are ruminants used for teaching covered under USDA?
When teaching veterinary students/vet tech students, this is biomedical so YES
When teaching general public or scientists, NO
128
Is Q fever HHS and/or USDA select agent?
HHS
129
Per the NIH Guidelines for recombinent DNA what is biosafety level for animals and plants?
Animals: BL-N
Plants: BL-P
130
According to ag guide, tail docking and castration on sheep older than ___ should be treated as a major surgical procedure using appropriate analgesia
or anesthesia.
3 months old
131
What regulates radioactive materials and what regulates non-radioactive radiation (e.g. x-rays)?
Nuclear Regulatory Commission
FDA
132
Examples of primary and secondary barriers/containment methods
Primary: BSC, enclosed container
Secondary: Facility, room, ventilation strategies
133
Conversion between square feet and square meters
1 square meter = 10.8 sq ft
134
What is required for ABSL-3
1. Two self-closing doors i.e. enter via airlock or anteroom
2. Protect vacuum with HEPA filter
3. Sealed windows (not break-free; that's BSL4)
4. Use BSC which can recirculate air bc HEPA
5. Ventilation strategies - facility does not recirculate air
6. Decontaminate all waste (including rodent cage b4 removing bedding), clothing b4 laundering
7. Report near misses
8. Control access (vs BSL-2 = limit)
9. Autoclave
10. Hands-free sink
135
What are ABSL for NIH Guidelines?
BL1-N through BL4-N (n for animal, p for plant)
136
2 laws that provide standards for humane transportation
AWA
Lacey Act - provides that wildlife be transported in accordance with IATA Live Animal Regs
137
According to the CDC, turtles with a carapace length of less than ___ and turtle eggs may not be imported for any commercial purpose. An individual can import up to ___ turtles or eggs for noncommercial purposes.
4 inches (10.2 cm)
6
138
CDC import registration/permit for NHPs must be renewed every ___ years
Two
Same timeframe as inventory for DEA/controlled substances!
139
If CDC issues a notice to the importer, the importer may request a written record review by the Director by filing a response within ___ calendar days of receiving notice from CDC.
20
140
Importation records must include the number of primates in the shipment that die within ____ days after receipt and cause of deaths.
90
141
What species cannot be imported into US and why?
African Civet (Civettictis civetta) - SARS
Gambian pouched rat (Cricetomys gambianus), dormice (Graphiurus spp.) - Monkeypox
Bats - rabies
Turtles <4" - Salmonella
Dogs <6 months certain countries - Rabies
142
Regulations for USDA importation of animals is under CFR ___.
9
143
What is USDA quarantine period for import of ruminants, poultry, and swine?
30 days (vs 31 day CDC importation of NHPs)
144
Importers must notify CDC in writing or by e-mail of a shipment of NHPs at least ___ calendar days before the planned arrival.
7 (vs animal examined by vet within 10 days of transport)
145
How tall does "LIVE ANIMALS" need to be per AWA and IATA?
AWA: 1 inch tall; on the top and one or more sides, with arrows indicating the correct upright
position
IATA: 2.5 cm (which is just under 1 inch)
146
Per IATA transportation guidelines of gnotobiotic or SPF animals, what color is the label
RED (normally it's green) saying special laboratory animals
147
What is the special NIH grant that primate research centers can apply for?
P51 (National Primate Research Center base grant)
148
What 4 tests are alternatives to Draize test in rabbits?
1. Isolated rabbit eye (IRE) test
2. Isolated chicken eye (ICE) test
3. Bovine corneal opacity and permeability (BCOP) test
4. The hen's egg test - chorioallantoic membrane (HET-CAM) test
149
Replacement for rabbit pyrogen testing/endotoxin testing
Limulus Amebocyte Lysate (LAL) test using Limulus polyphemus (Atlantic horseshoe crab)
Draw blood, which contains amebocytes (the crab's blood cells) --> lyse the cells to obtain lysate --> add substance in question --> if coagulates endotoxin was present
150
PI must report problems to OSP and IBC within ___ days.
30
151
Recombinant DNA Advisory Committee (RAC) is (institution-based/public) and needs at least ___ voting members.
Public
15
152
Institutional Biosafety Committee needs at least ___.
5
153
What approval is needed for deliberate transfer of a drug resistance trait to organism not known to acquire trait naturally?
1. NIH Director
2. IBC
3. RAC
154
What approval is needed for research involving cloning of toxin molecule with LD50 of less than 100 ng/kg body weight?
1. NIH OSP
2. IBC
155
What approval is needed for human gene transfer?
1. IRB
2. IBC
3. RAC
156
What approval is needed for nucleic acid work at RG 2-4, >10 L of culture, ABSL-3 flu viruses, infectious viruses or with helper virus, and gene drives?
IBC (before initiation)
157
What approval is needed for nucleic acid work at BL-1, transgenic rodents, not more than 2/3 of genome of any eukaryotic virus?
IBC (simultaneous with initiation)
158
What is exempt from NIH Guidelines?
1. Purchasing/transferring transgenic rodents under BL-1
2. Breeding transgenic rodents if both parents under BL-1, neither parent or offspring >1/2 of the genome of an exogenous eukaryotic virus from a single family of viruses, neither parent has transgene under the control of a gammaretroviral long terminal repeat (LTR)
3. Synthetic molecules cannot replicate, cannot integrate into genome, do not produce a toxin, consist of recombinant molecule from single source or entirely from prokaryotic host, or do not present a significant health risk
4. Natural exchangers - exchange DNA by known process
159
When does institution need biosafety officer?
1. >10 L of culture
2. BL-3 or BL-4 nucleic acid work
3. Gene drive organisms
160
All genetically engineered neonates should be identified within ___ hours of birth if size permits
72 hours
161
What is required for ABSL-2?
1. Limited access
2. Biohazard sign
3. Extra sharps precautions
4. Primary barriers as needed (BSC, microisolator caging for rodents)
5. ***Biosafety manual***
6. ***Negative airflow***
162
What is required for ABSL-4?
1. Cabinet (Class III BSC) or suit (positive pressure suit w/ chemical shower) laboratory
2. Change clothing on entry, shower on exit
3. All materials decontaminated
4. Building separated/isolated zone
5. ***Dedicated supply and exhaust***, vacuum, and decontamination systems
6. Sealed and ***break-resistant*** windows
7. Double door autoclave, dunk tank, fumigation chamber, or ventilated airlock
8. Log book for enter/exit
9. Daily inspection and documentation of life support systems
10. Uninterrupted power system (UPS) and emergency power
11. Innermost door on entry air pressure resistant (APR)
163
What is protected by Class I BSC?
Personnel and environment (no product protection)
164
What is face velocity for different classes of BSCs?
Class I: 75
Class II: A1 75, A2 100
Class II: B1 100, B2 100
Class III: N/a
165
What is % recirculation of different Class II BSCs?
A1: 30% exhausted, 70% recirculated
A2: 30% exhausted, 70% recirculated
B1: 70% exhausted, 30% recirculated
B2: 100% exhausted, 0% recirculated
166
What protection is provided by horizontal and vertical laminar flow hoods? What is the difference between the two?
Product only
Horizontal - air comes out directly through sash at user
Vertical - front/rear exhaust fan - some air comes out at the user but less so
167
What is difference between nip points, crush points, and pinch points?
Nip points = type of pinch point involving moving parts that can pull body point in
Crush points = two objects moving together
Pinch points = body part can be caught between moving parts
168
What is the term that describes infection directly from environment?
Sapronosis
169
Contagious vs communicable disease
Communicable more general and can also be by indirect means
Contagious a type of communicable with direct infection between organisms via airborne or direct
170
Transovarial vs transstadial
Transovarial = vertical transmission within vector
Transstadial = infection in vector maintained through multiple stages of life cycle
171
What are 5 colleges of IACLAM?
5 full members
1. European
2. American
3. Japanese
4. Indian
5. Korean
1 associate member
1. Philippines
172
What is recommended acclimation period for test animals per FDA?
5 days
173
What is the recommended maximum age to begin dosing test animals per FDA?
Rodents no older than 6-8 weeks
Dogs no older than 4-6 months
174
What is minimum experimental group size for subchronic toxicity studies per FDA?
Rodents: At least 20 per group per sex
Dogs: At least 4 per group per sex
175
Per the FDA, for rodents, at least ___ animals per sex per group should be available for interim necropsy.
10
176
Per the FDA, can acute toxicity studies employ social housing?
No; singly housed
177
What are requirements for CPIA certification from PRIM&R?
2 years of experience within the last 7 years
178
What is the primary guidance for cephalopods in research? Who uses it?
Guidelines for the Care and Welfare of Cephalopods in Research– A consensus based on an initiative by CephRes, FELASA and the Boyd Group
AAALAC as a secondary reference
179
What are requirements for ACLAM training program?
24 months long
200 hours didactic
2000 hours supervised experience
180
Follow PHS policy when funded by what department of the US government?
Department of Health and Human Services (contains the NIH)
181
What act identified ways to ensure regulations and policies are not inconsistent, overlapping, or unnecessarily duplicative thereby reducing the regulatory burden on investigators?
21st Century Cures Act
182
What is the NIH Revitalization Act of 1993?
Mandated the inclusion of women and minorities in NIH-funded clinical research
183
According to the Guide for the Care and Use of Laboratory Animals, the review and investigation of animal welfare concerns is the responsibility of....
The IACUC and the IO
184
Required IACUC members per PHS policy
Veterinarian, Scientist, Non-scientist, Community member, plus at least one other member (5 members minimum)
185
USDA license vs registration
License: Class A (purpose-bred), B (those who buy and sell), C (exhibitor)
Registration: Research facility (Institutions or individuals using AWA-covered species for research, testing, experimentation, or teaching above the secondary (high school) level), carriers, intermediate handlers
186
According to the ILAR Guide, ___ lux (___-ft candles) is okay for albino rodents if other protective measures are used
400 (37)
187
What board has evolved from ILAR?
BAHSCR (Board on Animal Health Sciences, Conservation, and Research)
188
Attenuated strains of what select agents are exempt from registration?
Botulinum neurotoxin producing species of Clostridium
Coxiella burnetii
Eastern equine encephalitis virus
Ebolavirus
Francisella tularensis
Junín virus
Lassa fever virus
Monkeypox virus
Severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus (SARS-CoV)
Yersinia pestis
189
What two groups constitute the Federal Select Agent Program (FSAP)?
1. Division of Select Agents and Toxins in the CDC Office of Public Health Preparedness and Response
2. Agriculture Select Agent Program in the USDA’s APHIS
190
What is the main benefit of chlorine dioxide over other chlorinated disinfectants?
Does not lead to the formation of trihalomethanes and chloramines
191
What are benefits of hydrogen peroxide?
1. End-product (water) is non-toxic
2. Low relative humidity can be used
192
Does an experiment conducted at an institution that receives NIH funds for recombinant nucleic acid work need to comply with NIH Guidelines, even if that particular experiment doesn't have NIH funding?
YES
193
Which BSC is similar to B1 (inflow 100 lfm, 30% recirculation) but does not have to be hard-ducted?
Class C1
194
After 2010, All Class II cabinets must have potentially contaminated plenums ____.
Under negative pressure or surrounded by negatively pressurized plenums
195
Which Class BSC has TWO HEPA filters at the exhaust?
Class III
196
What BSL are the equine encephalitis viruses and are they select agents?
EEEV - CDC select agent
WEEV - not select agent
VEEV - overlap select agent
All ABSL-3, except VEEV vaccine strains (TC-83 and V3526)
197
What is required signage for BSL-2 and higher?
Must include BSL level, supe’s name and contact #, entry/exit procedures
198
Disinfection methods for prions
Combination of heat (autoclave) and chemical (sodium hypochlorite, NaOH)
Incinerate animal carcasses at ≥1000°C (1832°F) or treat with NaOH or KOH at 95-150°C
199
According to the 𝘎𝘶𝘪𝘥𝘦 𝘧𝘰𝘳 𝘵𝘩𝘦 𝘊𝘢𝘳𝘦 𝘢𝘯𝘥 𝘜𝘴𝘦 𝘰𝘧 𝘈𝘨𝘳𝘪𝘤𝘶𝘭𝘵𝘶𝘳𝘢𝘭 𝘈𝘯𝘪𝘮𝘢𝘭𝘴 𝘪𝘯 𝘙𝘦𝘴𝘦𝘢𝘳𝘤𝘩 𝘢𝘯𝘥𝘛𝘦𝘢𝘤𝘩𝘪𝘯𝘨, what is the initial recommended temperature for chicks?
90 to 95 F (32 to 35 C)
200
What does Guide require for disaster plan?
A MUST
- describe how facility will preserve critical or irreplaceable animals
- ID essential personnel who are trained in advance
- Law enforcement and emergency personnel should be provided with a copy of the plan
201
When must veterinary consultation occur with respect to pain according to AWA and Guide?
AWA: When pain more than slight or momentary
Guide: When pain is beyond what is approved
202
What CITES appendix are chinchillas?
CITES I
203
Stereotypic behaviors for:
Sheep
Poultry
Pigs
Cattle
Horses
○ Weaving, pacing, and route-tracing and mouth-based behaviors such as wool-eating by sheep
○ Feather pecking and cannibalism by poultry
○ Bar biting by pigs
○ Tongue rolling by cattle
○ Wind-sucking by horses
204
BSCs are certified by ____.
NSF
205
What type of BSCs can be used with volatile toxic chemicals and radionuclides?
Class I - when exhausted outdoors
Class II - small amounts
206
According to the Guide what information should cage cards include?
1. Source of animal
2. Strain or stock
3. Names and contact information for PI
4. Pertinent dates (arrival, birth)
5. Protocol number if applicable
6. Genotype if applicable with available, consistent & unambiguous abbreviations
207
What was the name of the AWA when it first passed?
Laboratory Animal Welfare Act (1966, then changed to AWA in 1970)
