unit test / practice quizzes Flashcards
1
Q
A given signal molecule…
Question options:
a)
Will elicit the same response regardless of the target cell type
b)
May elicit different responses in different target cells or after binding with different receptor types
c)
Will elicit the same response regardless of the receptor type
A
b)
May elicit different responses in different target cells or after binding with different receptor types
2
Q
What is a key difference between a local (paracrine) regulator and a hormone?
Question options:
a)
Local regulators diffuse to neighbouring cells; hormones usually travel throughout the body to distant target cells
b)
Local regulators initiate short-term responses; hormones trigger longer-lasting responses
c)
The signal transduction pathways of local regulators do not involve second messengers; pathways triggered by hormones do involve second messengers
d)
Local regulators often open ligand-gated channels and affect ion concentrations in cells; hormones bind with intracellular receptors and affect gene expression
e)
Local regulators are small, hydrophobic molecules; hormones are either large polypeptides or steroids
A
a)
Local regulators diffuse to neighbouring cells; hormones usually travel throughout the body to distant target cells
3
Q
What event is common to ALL signal transduction pathways?
Question options:
a)
Protons are transferred between molecules
b)
Calcium ions bind to/activate proteins
c)
Phosphates are transferred between molecules
d)
Cyclic nucleotides are formed
e)
Proteins change in conformation/activity
A
e)
Proteins change in conformation/activity
4
Q
A hormone traveling in the bloodstream…
Question options:
a)
Is drawn to cells bearing its receptors by chemical forces
b)
Travels only to cells with receptors for that hormone
c)
Travels to all cells but elicits responses only in cells with receptors for that hormone
A
c)
Travels to all cells but elicits responses only in cells with receptors for that hormone
5
Q
A signal molecule needs a second messenger if…
Question options:
a)
It travels to its target via the bloodstream
b)
It readily crosses the plasma membrane and binds to a receptor in the cytosol
c)
It cannot cross the plasma membrane
d)
Both (b) and (c) are true
A
c)
It cannot cross the plasma membrane
6
Q
Second messengers can be…
Question options:
a)
Modified nucleotides
b)
Produced from membrane phospholipids
c)
Ions
d)
All of the above
A
d)
All of the above
7
Q
A second messenger participates in a signal transduction pathway by…
Question options:
a)
Dampening the message once the signal molecule has left the receptor
b)
Relaying a signal from the outside to the inside of the plasma membrane
c)
Relaying a message by phosphorylating downstream proteins
d)
Relaying a message from the cytosolic side of the membrane throughout the cytosol
e)
Transporting a signal molecule through the hydrophobic plasma membrane
A
d)
Relaying a message from the cytosolic side of the membrane throughout the cytosol
8
Q
Glucagon, a protein hormone, acts via a G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR) that acts via increasing intracellular levels of cyclic AMP.
In the situation above, which components would be considered the first and second messengers, respectively?
Question options:
a)
Glucagon, cyclic AMP
b)
G-protein coupled receptor, adenylyl cyclase
c)
Glucagon, adenylyl cyclase
d)
G-protein, Gα subunit
e)
G-protein, cyclic AMP
A
a)
Glucagon, cyclic AMP
9
Q
Once it enters intestinal epithelial cells, cholera toxin will…
Question options:
a)
Act on a trimeric G protein to prevent dissociation of the α subunit from the βγ subunit
b)
Inhibit secretion of water into the intestinal lumen
c)
Inhibit adenylyl cyclase activity
d)
Block GTPase activity of the Gα subunit
e)
b and d
A
d)
Block GTPase activity of the Gα subunit
10
Q
Both norepinephrine (NE) and phenylephrine, a drug used as a decongestant, bind to alpha1 adrenergic receptors and elicit the same response. In this context, NE is _____ of phenylephrine.
Question options:
a)
An inhibitor
b)
An agonist and blocker
c)
An antagonist and competitor
d)
An antagonist
e)
An agonist
A
e)
An agonist
11
Q
During embryonic development, the neural tissue rolls up into a tube, forming a hollow neural tube that will form the _______.
Question options:
a)
brain
b)
peripheral nervous system
c)
central nervous system
d)
spinal cord
e)
autonomic nervous system
A
c)
central nervous system
12
Q
A blockage of the median aperture of the fourth ventricle would be expected to cause …
Question options:
a)
increased intracranial pressure
b)
enlargement of ventricles
c)
hydrocephalus
d)
Any/all of the above
A
d)
Any/all of the above
13
Q
The blood-brain barrier …
Question options:
a)
consists of cerebral capillaries that are more tightly sealed than other capillaries in the body
b)
is a major barrier to lipophilic substances that do not have carrier proteins / channels to take them across endothelial cells
c)
involves a relationship between glial cells called astrocytes and endothelial cells of cerebral capillaries
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
A
d)
a and c
14
Q
The ventral roots of spinal nerves contain …
Question options:
a)
cell bodies of autonomic effector neurons
b)
cell bodies of somatic motor neurons
c)
ascending sensory tracts
d)
cell bodies of somatosensory neurons
e)
descending motor neurons
A
e)
descending motor neurons
15
Q
Sympathetic preganglionic fibres originate in …
Question options:
a)
thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord, white matter
b)
thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord, lateral horn gray matter
c)
the brainstem
d)
cranial and sacral segments of the spinal cord, lateral horn gray matter
e)
Both b and d
A
b)
thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord, lateral horn gray matter
16
Q
Which of the following is NOT a part of the brainstem?
Question options:
a)
Pons
b)
Spinal cord
c)
Midbrain
d)
Medulla
A
b)
Spinal cord
17
Q
The corticospinal tracts carry …
Question options:
a)
descending motor information in the white matter of the spinal cord
b)
ascending sensory information in the white matter of the spinal cord
c)
ascending motor information in the white matter of the spinal cord
d)
descending sensory information in the white matter of the spinal cord
A
a)
descending motor information in the white matter of the spinal cord
18
Q
Wilder Penfield is known for …
Question options:
a)
a neurosurgical procedure for the treatment of severe epilepsy.
b)
his contributions to the varsity basketball program at Princeton.
c)
creating maps of the sensory and motor cortices of the brain.
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
A
d)
a and c
19
Q
The cerebrum refers to …
Question options:
a)
the highly folded outermost layer of gray matter surrounding the brain
b)
a brain region best known for coordination of motor function.
c)
a large forebrain region that features a thin, highly folded layer of gray matter on the outside and several subcortical structures within
d)
a deep brain structure involved in integrating sensory information and memory
e)
the region in the brain that receives somatosensory information
A
c)
a large forebrain region that features a thin, highly folded layer of gray matter on the outside and several subcortical structures within
20
Q
You have decided to put your best foot forward, the right one. Put the following structures in the order that describes the direction that neural information travels for this voluntary movement.
1. Lateral corticospinal tract
2. Ventral horn gray matter
3. Medulla
4. Primary motor cortex
5. Midbrain
6. Ventral root
Question options:
a)
4, 2, 1, 5, 3, 6
b)
4, 3, 5, 1, 6, 2
c)
4, 5, 3, 1, 2, 6
d)
4, 5, 3, 2, 1, 6
e)
2, 1, 4, 3, 5, 6
A
c)
4, 5, 3, 1, 2, 6
21
Q
The first order or upper motor neuron carrying information that will direct voluntary movement of the right foot will travel in the spinal cord in the ________, crossing at the level of the ______.
Question options:
a)
lateral corticospinal tract, medulla
b)
anterior (ventromedial) corticospinal tract, spinal segment
c)
lateral corticospinal tract, spinal segment
d)
dorsal columns, medulla
e)
anterior (ventromedial) corticospinal tract, medulla
A
a)
lateral corticospinal tract, medulla
22
Q
You have stepped on a tack with your bare left foot. What type of receptors would detect the information related to pain you experience?
Question options:
a)
Meissner’s corpuscles
b)
Merkel receptors
c)
Free nerve endings
d)
Ruffini corpuscles
e)
Pacinian corpuscles
A
c)
Free nerve endings
23
Q
You are snow-blowing your land lady’s driveway in exchange for a rent reduction. The ________ are the cutaneous sensory receptors that are most strongly stimulated by the vibration.
Question options:
a)
Pacinian corpuscles
b)
Meissner’s corpuscles
c)
free nerve endings
d)
Merkel receptors
e)
muscle spindles
A
a)
Pacinian corpuscles
24
Q
The cutaneous sensory receptors that would be used for reading *Braille would have _____ receptive fields, and ascend to the brain via the ________.
*https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Braille
Question options:
a)
small, corticospinal tract
b)
large, dorsal columns
c)
large, spinothalamic tract
d)
small, dorsal columns
e)
small, spinothalamic tract
A
d)
small, dorsal columns
25
Information detected by fine touch receptors in the right hand travel via the ___________ to the ______________.
Question options:
a)
dorsal columns, primary motor cortex
b)
corticospinal tract, somatosensory cortex
c)
dorsal columns, somatosensory cortex
d)
spinothalamic tract, temporal lobe
e)
dorsal columns, frontal lobe
c)
dorsal columns, somatosensory cortex
26
You are at home cooking some pasta with tomato sauce when all of a sudden you spill some scalding sauce on your LEFT foot! Choose the option that best describes the pathway taken by the sensory information that will be interpreted as pain.
Dorsal root ->
1. Dorsal columns
2. Dorsal horn gray matter
3. Synapse in medulla
4. Left somatosensory cortex
5. Right somatosensory cortex
6. Left spinothalamic tract
7. Right spinothalamic tract
8. Synapse in thalamus
Question options:
a)
2, 7, 8, 5
b)
2, 6, 3, 8, 5
c)
2, 6, 3, 8, 4
d)
2, 1, 3, 8, 5
e)
2, 7, 3, 8, 5
a)
2, 7, 8, 5
27
Afferent fibres that transmit information about fine touch in your finger tips are likely to be…
Question options:
a)
faster than fibres conducting information about pain and temperature
b)
slower than fibres conducting information about pain and temperature
c)
slower than fibres conducting information about muscle length and tension
d)
faster than fibres conducting information about muscle length and tension
e)
both a and c are true
e)
both a and c are true
28
Muscle length is monitored by…
Question options:
a)
extrafusal muscle fibres
b)
Golgi tendon organs
c)
tendons
d)
muscle spindles
d)
muscle spindles
29
Which neuron would be strongly stimulated by an isometric contraction?
Question options:
a)
Gamma motor neuron
b)
1b afferent
c)
1a afferent
d)
Alpha motor neuron
b)
1b afferent
30
Activation of gamma motor neurons...
Question options:
a)
Tightens the intrafusal muscle fibres
b)
Inhibits muscle contraction in certain reflexes
c)
Typically occurs when the associated alpha motor neurons are activated
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
d)
a and c
31
Rank the following senses with respect to how quickly their information travels to the CNS (fastest to slowest).
Fast pain, Fine touch, Muscle length
Question options:
a)
Fine touch > muscle length > fast pain
b)
Muscle length > fine touch > fast pain
c)
Fast pain > fine touch > muscle length
d)
Fine touch > fast pain > muscle length
e)
Muscle length > fast pain > fine touch
b)
Muscle length > fine touch > fast pain
32
The olfactory bulb is…
Question options:
a)
The first structure encountered by olfactory information entering the brain
b)
The sensory epithelium that lines the back of the nasal cavity
c)
The structure in which second order neurons that have received neural input form olfactory receptor neurons continue on to the olfactory cortex via the olfactory tract
d)
The region of the cerebral cortex in which olfactory information is processed
e)
Both a and c
e)
Both a and c
33
Which of the following is/are TRUE about olfaction?
Question options:
a)
Olfaction is mediated by modified epithelial cells that synapse with primary afferent neurons
b)
Olfactory receptor neurons express one unique type of odorant receptor protein
c)
Olfactory information travels from the olfactory epithelium in the nasal cavity to a thalamic relay en route to the olfactory bulb
d)
Each odour binds to and activates one unique type of odorant receptor protein
e)
Both b and d are true
b)
Olfactory receptor neurons express one unique type of odorant receptor protein
34
Sweet tastes are detected when …
Question options:
a)
Sugars enter taste receptor cells, depolarizing the cells and leading to release of release of ATP that acts on the primary afferent neuron
b)
Sugars bind to ion channel proteins expressed on the plasma membranes of taste receptor cells leading to Ca influx and release of ATP that acts on the primary afferent neuron
c)
Sugars bind to and bend mechano-sensitive membrane proteins on taste receptor hair cells, causing opening of mechanically-gated channels, Ca influx and release of ATP that acts on the primary afferent neuron
d)
Sugars bind to G protein-coupled receptors expressed on the membranes of taste receptor cells and initiate a signal transduction cascade leading to Ca influx and release of ATP that acts on the primary afferent neuron
d)
Sugars bind to G protein-coupled receptors expressed on the membranes of taste receptor cells and initiate a signal transduction cascade leading to Ca influx and release of ATP that acts on the primary afferent neuron
35
The event most closely associated with the initiation of the pressure wave within the perilymph of the vestibular duct is…
Question options:
a)
Movement of the bony ossicles
b)
Movement of the basilar membrane
c)
Vibration of the tympanic membrane
d)
Vibration of the oval window
e)
Vibration of the round window
d)
Vibration of the oval window
36
Which statement(s) is/are true about the stimulation of hair cells in the organ of Corti?
Question options:
a)
Vibration of the oval window causes a fluid pressure wave within the vestibular duct
b)
The fluid pressure wave pushes on the tectorial membrane, bending the hair cell cilia that are embedded in it
c)
Bending of stereocilia as a result of the fluid wave causes opening or closing of ion channels, a change in neurotransmitter release and a change in action potential frequency in the primary afferent neuron
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
e)
a, b and c
37
Factors believed to contribute to the perceived pitch of a sound include…
Question options:
a)
The location of the activated hair cells on the basilar membrane
b)
The amplitude of action potentials travelling in primary afferent neurons in the auditory nerve
c)
The frequency of action potentials travelling in primary afferent neurons in the auditory nerve
d)
The direction of bend of hair cell stereocilia
e)
a and c
e)
a and c
38
You are a passenger in a car driving down Columbia at a constant speed. Upon spotting a family of geese crossing the road, the driver hits the brakes. Hair cells in the ______ would be strongly stimulated by this event.
Question options:
a)
cochlear duct
b)
semicircular canals
c)
retina
d)
utricle
e)
both b and d
d)
utricle
39
The mammalian retina is said to be ‘inverted’ because…
Question options:
a)
Photoreceptor cells are depolarized in the dark, and respond to light by releasing less neurotransmitter
b)
The image that forms on the retina is upside down or inverted
c)
Neural information flows through retinal neurons backwards, from axons to dendrites
d)
The photoreceptor cells are at the back of the retina, furthest from light entering the eye, with their light-sensing ends facing away from entering light
d)
The photoreceptor cells are at the back of the retina, furthest from light entering the eye, with their light-sensing ends facing away from entering light
40
In the mammalian retina, action potentials are generated in…
Question options:
a)
rods and cones
b)
bipolar cells
c)
ganglion cells
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
c)
ganglion cells
41
Which of the following is/are true about the fovea?
Question options:
a)
Sensitivity in low light conditions is achieved by having many photoreceptor cells at the fovea converge on a given ganglion cell
b)
It is densely populated with rods
c)
Receptive fields are very small
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
c)
Receptive fields are very small
42
When a rod cell is being stimulated by light…
Question options:
a)
The chromophore retinal is in the all trans form
b)
Cyclic GMP levels are high
c)
Cyclic nucleotide-gated cation channels close
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
d)
a and c
43
Would a person who is blind due to trauma to the occipital lobe have a normal pupillary light reflex?
Question options:
a)
No, no blind person could possibly have a reflex response to light
b)
Yes, but only if they are exposed to particularly bright light
c)
No, the pupil of the eye that is directly exposed to the light would constrict, but there would be no consensual response of the other eye
d)
Yes, their pupils would likely be ‘equal and reactive to light’
d)
Yes, their pupils would likely be ‘equal and reactive to light’
44
The vasculature of the mammalian kidney is unusual in that…
Question options:
a)
Each nephron has glomerular and peritubular capillary beds connected by an efferent arteriole
b)
Each nephron has glomerular and peritubular capillary beds connected by a portal vein
c)
It has ducts that nephrons empty into, which drain into the renal pelvis
d)
There are bends in the distal tubules of each nephron looping back toward Bowman’s capsule
e)
It has two capillary beds between the afferent and efferent arteriole of each nephron
a)
Each nephron has glomerular and peritubular capillary beds connected by an efferent arteriole
45
What happens to renal blood flow when the afferent arteriole constricts?
Question options:
a)
It increases
b)
It decreases
c)
It stays the same
b)
It decreases
46
In response to an increase in systemic arterial pressure, you would predict…
Question options:
a)
dilation of afferent arterioles
b)
constriction of afferent arterioles
c)
increased GFR
d)
little or no change in GFR
e)
Both b and d
e)
Both b and d
47
What part of the nephron tubule is part of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?
Question options:
a)
The collecting duct where it joins the ureter
b)
The renal pelvis
c)
The descending limb of the loop of Henle where it connects to the ascending limb
d)
The proximal tubule where it contacts the descending limb of the loop of Henle
e)
The ascending limb of the loop of Henle where it connects with the distal tubule
e)
The ascending limb of the loop of Henle where it connects with the distal tubule
48
Which of the following monitors tubular salt concentrations and can release paracrine factors that affect afferent arteriole diameter?
Question options:
a)
Macula densa cells
b)
Proximal tubular epithelial cells
c)
Glomerular capillaries
d)
Granular cells
e)
Podocytes around glomerular capillaries
a)
Macula densa cells
49
As fluid moves within the tubules through the regions of the nephron, the fluid _______ is most similar in composition to plasma.
Question options:
a)
entering the proximal tubule
b)
leaving the proximal tubule
c)
leaving the distal tubule
d)
leaving the ascending limb of the loop of Henle
e)
leaving the collecting duct
a)
entering the proximal tubule
50
The ion that is commonly linked to indirect active transport during reabsorption in nephrons is _______.
Question options:
a)
Na+
b)
Ca2+
c)
Cl-
d)
K+
e)
HCO3-
a)
Na+
51
Na+ moves across the apical membrane of epithelial cells of the proximal tubule via…
Question options:
a)
ENac channels
b)
symporters that couple amino acid and Na+ transport
c)
sodium-glucose cotransporters (SGLTs)
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
e)
a, b and c
52
Glucose reabsorption across the epithelium of the proximal tubule is accomplished by…
Question options:
a)
transport across the apical membrane against its concentration gradient, coupled with Na+
b)
transport across the apical membrane down its concentration gradient, coupled with Na+
c)
facilitated diffusion across the basolateral membrane down its concentration gradient
d)
a and c
e)
b and c
d)
a and c
53
Excretion of significant amounts of protein in the urine …
Question options:
a)
is most likely due to an issue with glomerular filtration
b)
is a normal mechanism for clearing the body of excess nitrogenous compounds
c)
is pathological
d)
a and c
d)
a and c
54
A multi-subunit protein hormone with a molecular weight of 24 kDa could be …
Question options:
a)
freely filtered at the glomerulus.
b)
reabsorbed from the renal tubules and recycled back into the circulation to act on target cells again.
c)
reabsorbed in the proximal tubule, degraded to amino acids by renal epithelial cells and taken into the circulation.
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
d)
a and c
55
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a glycoprotein (~36 kDa). Reabsorption of glycoprotein hormones is somewhat inefficient. In a patient with high plasma concentrations of hCG, which of the following is/are true?
Question options:
a)
The kidney is not a major route of elimination of this hormone.
b)
The hormone would be present in this person’s urine.
c)
The hormone would not be filtered at the glomerulus.
d)
Amino acids derived from this hormone would be present in this person’s circulation.
e)
b and d
e)
b and d
56
The plasma concentration at which glucose first appears in the urine is called the __________.
Question options:
a)
sweet spot
b)
saturation point
c)
renal threshold
d)
transport maximum
e)
tubuloglomerular capacity
c)
renal threshold
57
The renal clearance of a substance X is the …
Question options:
a)
concentration of X in a sample of urine.
b)
amount of X cleared from the plasma per unit time.
c)
volume of plasma cleared of X per unit time.
d)
excretion rate of X.
c)
volume of plasma cleared of X per unit time.
58
If the clearance rate of X is less than the amount filtered, then …
Question options:
a)
more X is being secreted than reabsorbed.
b)
X is being secreted by the nephron.
c)
X will be rapidly cleared from the blood.
d)
X is being reabsorbed by the nephron.
d)
X is being reabsorbed by the nephron.
59
If the clearance rate of X is more than the amount filtered, then …
Question options:
a)
X is being secreted.
b)
X is being reabsorbed.
c)
X will be rapidly cleared from the blood.
d)
both a and c are true
d)
both a and c are true
60
The renal threshold for glucose is 300 mg/100 ml plasma. Your cousin, a type I diabetic, is having trouble regulating her sugar levels. Her plasma glucose is 400 mg/dL. Which of the following would be true:
Question options:
a)
Glucose in her blood would be freely filtered at the glomerulus.
b)
All the glucose filtered into the renal tubules would be reabsorbed.
c)
She would be excreting glucose in her urine.
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
d)
a and c
61
In a study on renal function in diabetics, creatinine clearance was 120 ml/min and plasma glucose was 320 mg/dL. The transport maximum for glucose is 340 mg/min.
What was this person’s glucose excretion rate?
Question options:
a)
220 mg/min
b)
240 mg/min
c)
44 mg/min
d)
44 ml/min
e)
9 mg/min
c)
44 mg/min
62
The final osmolarity of the urine is established …
Question options:
a)
in the renal pelvis
b)
during storage in the bladder
c)
as it passes through the collecting duct
d)
as it passes through the loop of Henle
e)
as it passes through the proximal tubule
c)
as it passes through the collecting duct
63
Vasopressin acts on the collecting duct of the nephron to …
Question options:
a)
increase activity of the Na+/K+ ATPase on the basolateral membrane
b)
increase expression of ENaC channels on the basolateral surface
c)
increase salt reabsorption via secondary active transport
d)
increase water permeability by increasing the number of AQP2 (aquaporin) proteins expressed on the luminal surface
e)
Both b and d
d)
increase water permeability by increasing the number of AQP2 (aquaporin) proteins expressed on the luminal surface
64
Your house-mate Matt has a condition called diabetes insipidus. His disease is caused by a loss-of-function mutation in the vasopressin receptor. Which of the following would be true of Matt:
Question options:
a)
He tends to produce a very concentrated urine.
b)
His condition could be treated with his niece’s anti-bedwettting medication, desmopressin.
c)
He tends to produce copious quantities of very dilute urine.
d)
a and b
e)
b and c
c)
He tends to produce copious quantities of very dilute urine.
65
In the presence of maximal concentrations of vasopressin ...
Question options:
a)
most of the water filtered at the glomerulus is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule.
b)
urine output is high.
c)
most of the water filtered at the glomerulus is reabsorbed in the distal tubule and collecting duct.
d)
the collecting duct is completely impermeable to water.
e)
urine osmolarity is less than 100 mOsM.
a)
most of the water filtered at the glomerulus is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule.
(vasopressin only effects collecting duct but 70% of reabsorption will still happen in the proximal tubule so A is correct)
66
The ascending limb of the loop of Henle is permeable to water …
Question options:
a)
in the presence of aldosterone.
b)
in the presence of vasopressin.
c)
always
d)
never
d)
never
67
Which of the following is required for formation of the salt gradient in the renal medulla?
Question options:
a)
The ascending limb must transport ions from the interstitium to the tubule.
b)
The descending limb must transport ions from the interstitium to the tubule.
c)
The ascending limb must transport ions from the tubule to the interstitium.
d)
The descending limb must transport ions from the tubule to the interstitium.
c)
The ascending limb must transport ions from the tubule to the interstitium.
68
Inhibition of the NKCC transporter on the apical membrane of epithelial cells lining the ascending loop of Henle would result in …
Question options:
a)
inhibition of Na+ and Cl- reabsorption.
b)
disruption of the salt gradient in the renal medulla.
c)
increased urine production.
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
e)
a, b and c
69
In response to increased plasma osmolarity, central osmoreceptors would …
Question options:
a)
expand and increase firing rate.
b)
shrink and increase firing rate.
c)
expand and decrease firing rate.
d)
shrink and decrease firing rate.
b)
shrink and increase firing rate.
70
Which of the following would be a stimulus for aldosterone secretion?
Question options:
a)
Hyperkalemia
b)
Decreased blood pressure
c)
Increased blood pressure
d)
a and b
e)
a and c
d)
a and b
71
Which of the following would be a physiological response to a decrease in blood volume?
Question options:
a)
Increased pulse rate
b)
Vasoconstriction
c)
Increased thirst
d)
Conservation of water by the kidneys
e)
All of the above
e)
All of the above
72
Primary responses to ingestion of a large amount of salt include …
Question options:
a)
increased vasopressin
b)
increased aldosterone
c)
thirst
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
d)
a and c
73
Which of the following is TRUE regarding angiotensin II?
Question options:
a)
It stimulates thirst
b)
It increases vasopressin secretion
c)
It activates the cardiovascular control center in the medulla
d)
It is a potent vasoconstrictor
e)
All of the above
e)
All of the above
74
Jasmine has just run her first marathon, in sweltering heat. In the interests of having a fast time, she declined all offers of water at the aid stations. In this self-inflicted state of severe dehydration, which of the following would be elevated?
Question options:
a)
Plasma concentrations of vasopressin
b)
Plasma concentrations of aldosterone
c)
Pulse rate
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
d)
a and c
75
Under normal conditions, the major source of acid in our bodies is derived from …
Question options:
a)
the conversion of carbon dioxide from aerobic metabolism to bicarbonate and H+
b)
hydrochloric acid, from the combination of H+ and Cl- in plasma
c)
backwash of acid coming from the stomach
d)
the deamination of amino acids
e)
lactic acid from anaerobic metabolism
a)
the conversion of carbon dioxide from aerobic metabolism to bicarbonate and H+
76
In general, renal compensation for acidosis involves …
Question options:
a)
secreting protons across the apical membrane into the tubular fluid.
b)
secreting protons across the basolateral membrane into the interstitium.
c)
reabsorbing bicarbonate.
d)
a and c
e)
b and c
d)
a and c
77
In the proximal tubule, bicarbonate …
Question options:
a)
diffuses across the basolateral membrane as CO2 and is moved across the apical membrane by a transporter.
b)
is secreted into the filtrate.
c)
is pumped from the epithelial cell into the interstitium by ATPases.
d)
diffuses across the apical membrane as CO2 and is moved across the basolateral membrane by a transporter.
d)
diffuses across the apical membrane as CO2 and is moved across the basolateral membrane by a transporter.
78
Renal compensations for alkalosis would include transport of …
Question options:
a)
H+ into the interstitium by proximal tubule epithelial cells.
b)
HCO3- into the tubular fluid by Type B intercalated cells in the distal nephron.
c)
H+ into the interstitium by Type B intercalated cells in the distal nephron.
d)
a and b
e)
b and c
e)
b and c
79
Renal compensations for perturbations in acid-base balance can disrupt potassium homeostasis because …
Question options:
a)
a transporter in Type A intercalated cells in the distal nephron involved in compensation for acidosis reabsorbs a K+ for every H+ it secretes
b)
the hormone aldosterone is released in response to both hyperkalemia and high pH
c)
a transporter in Type B intercalated cells in the distal nephron involved in compensation for alkalosis secretes a K+ for every H+ it moves into the interstitium
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
d)
a and c
80
Hyperventilation due to a panic attack could result in …
Question options:
a)
increased reabsorption of H+.
b)
respiratory acidosis.
c)
metabolic alkalosis.
d)
respiratory alkalosis.
e)
metabolic acidosis.
d)
respiratory alkalosis.
81
Severe diarrhea could result in …
Question options:
a)
respiratory acidosis.
b)
metabolic alkalosis.
c)
decreased renin secretion.
d)
metabolic acidosis.
e)
decreased vasopressin secretion.
d)
metabolic acidosis.
82
Acinar cells of the pancreas secrete proteins into a duct that empties into the lumen of the small intestine. These proteins would be considered ...
Question options:
a)
hormones
b)
neurohormones
c)
neurotransmitters
d)
exocrine secretions
e)
paracrine factors
d)
exocrine secretions
83
Oxytocin, a peptide, is released by neuron terminals in the posterior pituitary gland. It enters the bloodstream and acts on uterine smooth muscle. In this context, this substance could be referred to as a ...
Question options:
a)
hormone
b)
neurotransmitter
c)
neurohormone
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
d)
a and c
84
Assuming constant release from the testes, effects of endogenous testosterone would be increased by …
Question options:
a)
increased expression of androgen receptors by target cells
b)
administration of an androgen antagonist
c)
decreased excretion of androgens into urine and feces
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
d)
a and c
85
Endocrine cells producing large amounts of a peptide hormone would be characterized by …
Question options:
a)
extensive rough endoplasmic reticulum
b)
vesicles containing their hormone product near the plasma membrane
c)
extensive smooth endoplasmic reticulum
d)
a and b
e)
b and c
d)
a and b
86
The genomic mechanism of action for steroids would include ...
Question options:
a)
opening of ion channels
b)
driving transcription of particular genes leading to synthesis of proteins
c)
activation of intracellular kinase cascades
d)
a and c
e)
any of the above, depending on the hormone.
b)
driving transcription of particular genes leading to synthesis of proteins
87
In the endocrine reflex in which plasma K+ concentrations are regulated by aldosterone, what structure or cell type serves as the integrating centre?
Question options:
a)
The aldosterone-secreting cell
b)
A region in the hypothalamus
c)
A region in the brainstem
d)
The region in the cerebral cortex responsible for ion homeostasis
e)
The adrenal medulla
a)
The aldosterone-secreting cell
88
Which of the following secretes neurohormones?
Question options:
a)
Posterior pituitary
b)
Adrenal medulla
c)
Hypothalamus
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
a)
Posterior pituitary
89
The cells in the anterior pituitary gland that secrete TSH would be expected to express receptors for …
Question options:
a)
Thyroxin (aka thyroid hormone, T4)
b)
TSH
c)
TRH
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
d)
a and c
90
Plasma concentrations of gonadotropins (LH, FSH) in a ‘neutered’ male cat (testes removed) would be expected to be ____ (relative to before the procedure).
Question options:
a)
higher
b)
lower
c)
unchanged
a)
higher
91
Taking a cortisol agonist would be expected to _____ plasma levels of ACTH and _____ the size of the adrenal gland.
Question options:
a)
decrease. increase
b)
not change, decrease
c)
decrease, decrease
d)
increase, decrease
e)
increase, increase
c)
decrease, decrease
92
Put the following in order, as viewed from the lumen of the small intestine:
____ epithelium
____ serosa
____ submucosa
____ muscularis externa (circular and longitudinal muscle layers)
____ lamina propria
__1__ epithelium
__5__ serosa
__3__ submucosa
__4__ muscularis externa (circular and longitudinal muscle layers)
__2__ lamina propria
93
When comparing the microanatomy of the renal tubules versus the gut tubes, which tissue component in the intestine is most comparable to the ‘interstitium’ of the kidney?
Question options:
a)
a.muscularis externa (circular and longitudinal muscle layers)
b)
submucosa
c)
serosa
d)
lamina propria
e)
epithelium
d)
lamina propria
94
The ‘alkaline tide’ that can be detected in plasma after ingestion of a meal is a result of ...
Question options:
a)
export of bicarbonate (in exchange for chloride) on the basolateral membrane of acid-secreting parietal cells of the stomach.
b)
decreased filtration of bicarbonate in the kidney.
c)
increased reabsorption of bicarbonate in the proximal tubule of the kidney.
d)
secretion of bicarbonate into the small intestine.
e)
leakage of bicarbonate across the intestinal epithelium into the circulation via the paracellular pathway.
a)
export of bicarbonate (in exchange for chloride) on the basolateral membrane of acid-secreting parietal cells of the stomach.
95
Which statement best describes mechanisms underlying the secretion of saline (sodium chloride plus water) that dilutes the mucus in intestine and salivary glands?
Question options:
a)
diffusion of Cl- into the lumen through CFTR channels, with Na+ and water following passively via the paracellular pathway.
b)
active transport of Cl- into the interstitium, with Na+ and water following passively via the paracellular pathway.
c)
active transport of Cl- into the lumen through CFTR channels, with Na+ and water following passively via the paracellular pathway.
d)
active transport of Cl- into the lumen, with Na+ and water following passively via the paracellular pathway.
e)
active transport of Na+ across the apical membrane via Na+/K+-ATPase, with Cl- and water following passively via the paracellular pathway.
a)
diffusion of Cl- into the lumen through CFTR channels, with Na+ and water following passively via the paracellular pathway.
96
Assume a drug taken by injection is going to be metabolized in the liver and excreted in the feces. Its path to the liver, and out of the liver would be …
Question options:
a)
hepatic portal vein -> sinusoids -> central vein of liver lobule -> bile canaliculi -> bile ductules
b)
hepatic portal vein -> central vein of liver lobule -> bile canaliculi -> bile ductules -> common hepatic duct
c)
hepatic artery -> sinusoids -> bile canaliculi -> bile ductules -> common hepatic duct
d)
hepatic portal vein -> sinusoids -> bile canaliculi -> bile ductules -> common hepatic duct
e)
hepatic vein -> hepatic portal vein -> sinusoids -> bile ductules -> common hepatic duct
c)
hepatic artery -> sinusoids -> bile canaliculi -> bile ductules -> common hepatic duct
97
To be absorbed in the small intestine, starch must be broken down to _______ and moved across the apical membrane of intestinal epithelium by _______.
Question options:
a)
monosaccharide units, diffusion
b)
di- and trisaccharide units, active transport
c)
di- and trisaccharide units, coupled transport
d)
di- and trisaccharide units, diffusion
e)
monosaccharide units, coupled transport
e)
monosaccharide units, coupled transport
98
Which order best describes the major steps in protein digestion?
Question options:
a)
endopeptidase, exopeptidase, acid denaturation
b)
exopeptidase, endopeptidase, acid denaturation
c)
acid denaturation, endopeptidase, exopeptidase
d)
acid denaturation, exopeptidase, endopeptidase
c)
acid denaturation, endopeptidase, exopeptidase
99
Protein digestion involves …
Question options:
a)
secretions of chief cells in the stomach.
b)
enzyme activity associated with the brush border in the small intestine.
c)
exocrine secretions of the pancreas.
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
e)
a, b and c
100
Bile salts are …
Question options:
a)
amphipathic derivatives of cholesterol.
b)
components of chylomicrons.
c)
stored in, and released by the gall bladder.
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
d)
a and c
101
Select the sequence that best describes the journey of a triglyceride as it is digested and absorbed.
Question options:
a)
fat droplet -> micelle -> enterocyte -> chylomicron -> interstitium -> capillary
b)
fat droplet -> micelle -> apical membrane transporter -> enterocyte -> chylomicron -> basolateral membrane transporter -> interstitium -> lacteal
c)
fat droplet -> micelle -> apical membrane transporter -> enterocyte -> chylomicron -> basolateral membrane transporter -> interstitium -> capillary
d)
fat droplet -> micelle -> enterocyte -> chylomicron -> interstitium -> lacteal
e)
fat droplet -> chylomicron -> enterocyte -> micelle -> interstitium -> lacteal
d)
fat droplet -> micelle -> enterocyte -> chylomicron -> interstitium -> lacteal
102
With respect to regulation of GI function, ‘long reflexes’ refer to …
Question options:
a)
parasympathetic efferent information from the brainstem to the GI tract that stimulates gastrointestinal activity.
b)
neural signals that initiate migrating motor complexes that travel down the GI tract.
c)
the cephalic reflexes of digestion, such that the sight and smell of food stimulate GI activity.
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
d)
a and c
103
The first hormone identified and named …
Question options:
a)
is produced by cells lining the duodenum in response to acid coming from the stomach.
b)
earned Ivan Pavlov a Nobel prize.
c)
stimulates bicarbonate release by the pancreas.
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
d)
a and c
104
Gastric acid secretion is stimulated by …
Question options:
a)
histamine from ECL cells.
b)
sympathetic stimulation.
c)
gastrin from G cells.
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
d)
a and c
105
Which products of the intestine inhibit gastric acid secretion?
Question options:
a)
CCK
b)
secretin
c)
GLP-1
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
e)
a, b and c
106
Which of the following gut hormones stimulates gall bladder contraction and pancreatic enzyme secretion?
Question options:
a)
motilin
b)
CCK
c)
gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)
d)
gastrin
e)
secretin
b)
CCK
107
Insulin is released in response to …
Question options:
a)
GIP
b)
presence of fat in small intestine
c)
GLP-1
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
d)
a and c
108
Regulation of stomach function via the gastric phase is different from the cephalic phase, in that …
Question options:
a)
the cephalic phase (but not the gastric phase) involves negative feedback regulation of acid production via somatostatin from D cells.
b)
the cephalic phase results in direct neural stimulation of secretion by G cells, ECL cells and parietal cells, whereas gastric phase mechanisms are based on neural stimulation of only G cells.
c)
the cephalic phase (but not the gastric phase) requires the presence of food in the stomach.
d)
the cephalic phase (but not the gastric phase) involves neural signalling.
e)
the cephalic phase (but not the gastric phase) involves stimulation of ECL and parietal cells by gastrin.
b)
the cephalic phase results in direct neural stimulation of secretion by G cells, ECL cells and parietal cells, whereas gastric phase mechanisms are based on neural stimulation of only G cells.
109
Secretin enters the pancreas via _______ and HCO3- exits the pancreas via ________.
Question options:
a)
hepatic portal vein, veins
b)
veins, ducts
c)
its arterial blood supply, hepatic portal vein
d)
ducts, ducts
e)
its arterial blood supply, ducts
e)
its arterial blood supply, ducts
110
Ketogenesis typically occurs in situations in which …
Question options:
a)
dietary carbohydrate intake is too high and excess sugars are converted to ketones.
b)
more acetyl CoA is formed than can be used in the tricarboxylic acid cycle.
c)
dietary fat intake is too high, and fatty acids are converted to keto-acids.
d)
rates of lipolysis are high.
e)
b and d
e)
b and d
111
During the fasted / postabsorptive state, muscle can contribute to maintenance of blood glucose levels by …
Question options:
a)
breaking down proteins and exporting amino acids to be used by the liver as gluconeogenic substrates.
b)
breaking down glycogen and exporting free glucose.
c)
exporting pyruvate or lactate to be used by the liver as a gluconeogenic substrate.
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
d)
a and c
112
Possible fates of fatty acids include being …
Question options:
a)
catabolized for energy via β oxidation.
b)
used by the brain for energy
c)
re-esterified to triglycerides and stored in adipose cells.
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
d)
a and c
113
A human with the same condition as the ob/ob mouse …
Question options:
a)
would be obese.
b)
would have high circulating levels of leptin.
c)
would respond to treatment with exogenous leptin.
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
d)
a and c
114
Leptin is a protein hormone produced in ___________ that acts in the ___________.
Question options:
a)
adipose cells; medulla
b)
adipose cells; adrenal gland
c)
liver; medulla
d)
the small intestine; liver
e)
adipose cells; hypothalamus
e)
adipose cells; hypothalamus
115
CCK, a hormone from the small intestine …
Question options:
a)
slows gastric activity.
b)
increases secretion of enzymes from pancreatic acini.
c)
decreases appetite.
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
e)
a, b and c
116
Glucose sensing and insulin release by pancreatic beta cells involves these membrane proteins:
Question options:
a)
KATP leak channels
b)
SGLT transporters
c)
NaV, voltage-gated Na+ channels
d)
a and c
e)
a, b and c
a)
KATP leak channels
117
Insulin secreted in response to a meal results in …
Question options:
a)
increased fat synthesis.
b)
enhanced cellular utilization of amino acids.
c)
increased glucose transport into muscle and adipose.
d)
enhanced cellular utilization and storage of glucose.
e)
all of the above
e)
all of the above
118
Primary targets for insulin action include all of the following EXCEPT …
Question options:
a)
skeletal muscle glucose uptake.
b)
renal glucose reabsorption.
c)
protein synthesis in target cells.
d)
hepatic glycogen synthesis.
e)
adipose lipogenesis.
b)
renal glucose reabsorption.
119
Contrast the insulin response to an oral glucose challenge versus an intravenous injection of glucose (assuming they both achieve the same plasma glucose concentrations):
Question options:
a)
The oral route would cause a greater insulin release because pancreatic β cells would be stimulated by both gut peptides and glucose in the blood.
b)
Injection would cause a greater insulin release because pancreatic β cells only monitor glucose in plasma.
c)
The oral route would cause a greater insulin release because the GI tract is closer to the pancreas.
d)
Injection would cause a greater insulin release because glucose in the blood stimulates pancreatic β cells more directly.
a)
The oral route would cause a greater insulin release because pancreatic β cells would be stimulated by both gut peptides and glucose in the blood.
120
Diabetics who require exogenous insulin usually inject it rather than taking it as a pill because …
Question options:
a)
the hormone is a protein and will therefore be broken down in the digestive system.
b)
injecting it protects it from being excreted by the kidney.
c)
injecting it helps it to cross the blood-brain barrier.
d)
they prefer injecting themselves over the hassle of taking pills.
e)
a rapid rise in plasma insulin is required, to drop blood glucose quickly.
a)
the hormone is a protein and will therefore be broken down in the digestive system.
121
Which effect is unique to cortisol?
Question options:
a)
increased lipolysis
b)
increased proteolysis
c)
increased gluconeogenesis
d)
increased blood glucose
e)
suppression of immune function
e)
suppression of immune function
122
A person with a mutation resulting in a 21α-hydroxylase deficiency would be expected to have _____ ACTH levels and _____ adrenals.
Question options:
a)
normal, small
b)
normal, enlarged
c)
high, small
d)
high, normal
e)
high, enlarged
e)
high, enlarged
123
Which group of hormones are most similar in their effects on metabolism?
Question options:
a)
cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone
b)
glucagon, cortisol, growth hormone
c)
glucagon, insulin, thyroid hormone
d)
growth hormone, insulin, thyroid hormone
e)
glucagon, cortisol, epinephine
e)
glucagon, cortisol, epinephine
124
Graves’ disease is caused by auto-antibodies that act as TSH agonists, which are not affected by the usual feedback loops. What will happen to thyroid gland size in a patient with Graves’ disease?
Question options:
a)
There will be no change.
b)
It will increase.
c)
It will decrease.
b)
It will increase.
125
Hypocalcemia is detected by cells in the ...
Question options:
a)
parathyroid gland
b)
hypothalamus
c)
medulla oblongata
d)
marrow of weight-bearing bones
e)
kidney
a)
parathyroid gland
126
The active form of vitamin D3 (calcitriol) is released from the ...
Question options:
a)
skin
b)
liver
c)
sun
d)
kidney
e)
parathyroid gland
d)
kidney
127
A male taking synthetic androgens in an attempt to increase his muscle mass would be expected to have _________ and ___________.
Question options:
a)
low circulating LH/FSH, decreased testicular size.
b)
low circulating LH/FSH, increased testicular size.
c)
low circulating LH/FSH, unaffected testicular size.
d)
high circulating LH/FSH, increased testicular size.
e)
high circulating LH/FSH, decreased testicular size.
a)
low circulating LH/FSH, decreased testicular size.
128
______________ are target cells for LH in the male.
Question options:
a)
Sertoli cells
b)
GnRH-releasing neurons in the hypothalamus
c)
Leydig cells
d)
Granulosa cells
e)
Spermatogonia
c)
Leydig cells
129
Luteinization ...
Question options:
a)
refers to regression of the corpus luteum.
b)
occurs during the follicular phase.
c)
refers to the formation of the corpus luteum.
d)
a and b are correct
e)
b and c are correct
c)
refers to the formation of the corpus luteum.
130
In the male, the mesonephric duct ...
Question options:
a)
gives rise to components of the internal genitalia
b)
degenerates in response to the actions of Anti-Mullerian Hormone
c)
develops in response to the actions of Anti-Mullerian Hormone
d)
degenerates in response to the actions of testosterone
a)
gives rise to components of the internal genitalia
131
Natural fertilization occurs in the ...
Question options:
a)
ovarian follicle
b)
uterus
c)
Fallopian tube
d)
cervix
e)
vagina
c)
Fallopian tube
132
The first two cell types to differentiate in the mammal are ...
Question options:
a)
fibroblasts and epithelial cells
b)
Sertoli and Leydig cells
c)
inner cell mass and trophectodermal cells
d)
neurons and glial cells
e)
granulosa and thecal cells
c)
inner cell mass and trophectodermal cells
