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EMT FF Class > Module 6 Exam > Flashcards

Module 6 Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is the musculoskeletal system composed of?

A

Striated muscle

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2
Q

How is the musculoskeletal system controlled?

A

Direct voluntary control from the brain

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3
Q

What is the part of the nervous system that controls the involuntary activities of the body such as the heart rate, blood pressure, and digestion of food?

A

Autonomic nervous system

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4
Q

How is skeletal muscle composed?

A

Striated muscle

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5
Q

What is atrophy usually caused by?

A

Muscular dystrophy

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6
Q

What is the fibrous material that attaches muscle to bone?

A

Tendons

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7
Q

What attaches bone to bone?

A

Ligaments

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8
Q

What structures are regulated by smooth muscle?

A

Autonomic structures

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9
Q

Give an example of an autonomic structure.

A

Blood vessels

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10
Q

A fracture is accurately defined as:

A

A break in the skeletal system, or in the continuity of the bone

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11
Q

What injury is known as a joint injury involving damage to supporting ligaments, and sometimes partial or temporary dislocation of bone end?

A

Sprain

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12
Q

What injury is known as stretching or tearing of a muscle?

A

Strain

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13
Q

Which of the following is an example of a direct injury?

a. A child dislocates an elbow after falling on an outstretched arm.
b. A person lands on his or feet and fractures the lumbar spine.
c. A skier dislocated his knee after twisting on an ankle.
d. A passenger fractures their patella after it strikes the dashboard.

A

a. A child dislocates an elbow after falling on an outstretched arm.

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14
Q

What is an open fracture most accurately defined as?

A

Any external wound that is present over a fracture site.

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15
Q

You arrive on scene and find a patient that appears to have a broken leg. How would you determine that the leg is actually broken?

A

Compare it to the other leg.

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16
Q

What are some signs that are indicative of crepitus and false motion?

A

A limb moving in a direction that it should not be moving in.

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17
Q

What is described as a grating or grinding sensation or sound caused by fractured bone ends or joints rubbing together?

A

Crepitus

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18
Q

What is convection?

A

Loss of body heat caused by air movement (eg, a breeze blowing across the body).

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19
Q

How do you lose heat through respiration?

A

By breathing in cold air and breathing out warm air.

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20
Q

What does shivering do?

A

Increasing metabolic rate

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21
Q

Why are kids more at risk for hypothermia than adults?

A

Larger surface area.

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22
Q

How do you assess a patient’s general body temperature?

A

By placing the back of an ungloved hand on their bare abdomen.

23
Q

You pull a patient out of the water and are extremely cold to the touch, wet, and hypothermic. What could happen if we handle them roughly?

A

You could stop their heart through v-fib.

24
Q

What are the two best ways the body can eliminate excess heat?

A

Sweating, and vasodilation

25
Q

If there is high ambient air temperature, how does the body lose its ability to give off heat?

A

Radiation

26
Q

When your body loses sweat, it also loses:

A

Electrolytes

27
Q

If sweating is to be effective, it must:

A

Evaporate from the body

28
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion?

A

Excessive heating with hot, dry skin.

29
Q

On a very humid 95-degree day, a 16-year-old male was outside on high-school track field. He is conscious, alert, and complains of nausea and headache. His skin is pale, cool, and clammy. You should:

A

Remove him from the hot environment.

30
Q

The vagina and the neck of the uterus comprise the:

A

The birth canal.

31
Q

What does the term “bloody show” mean?

A

A small amount of blood in the vagina that appears at the beginning of labor and may include a plug of pink-tinged mucus.

32
Q

What is the main job of the placenta in relation to filtering?

A

It allows oxygen, CO2, and other products to transfer between the mother and the fetus but does not allow blood to mix between the mother and fetus.

33
Q

What does the amniotic fluid do?

A

Insulates, and cushions the fetus.

34
Q

First baby, the mother is pregnant in the first stage of labor. How long could the mother be in labor?

A

Up to 16 hours.

35
Q

What does the onset of labor begin with?

A

The first stage begins with the onset of contractions and ends when the cervix is fully dilated.

36
Q

What is “true” labor?

A

The frequency and intensity of contractions increase with time.

37
Q

What is the third stage of labor?

A

The third stage of labor begins with the birth of the newborn and ends with the delivery of the placenta.

38
Q

A pregnant woman who is 34 weeks pregnant, she had a seizure (not currently having a seizure), she has a chief complaint of high blood pressure, and a headache for the past few days. How should you treat this patient?

A

Give her high-flow O2 and place her on her left side (left lateral recumbent position), rapid transport.

39
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of a patient that is experiencing preeclampsia?

A

Persistent headache, high blood pressure (hypertension), and edema.

40
Q

What is supine hypotension syndrome?

A

Low blood pressure resulting from compression of the inferior vena cava by the weight of the pregnant uterus when the woman is supine.

41
Q

A 36-week pregnant woman presenting with vaginal bleeding has suddenly becomes diaphoretic, tachycardic, and hypotensive; you should do which of the following:

a. Ventilate her with a bag valve mask.
b. Carefully place sanitary gauze into her vagina.
c. Position her in a supine position and raise her legs 12 inches.
d. Place the patient on her left lateral recumbent position.

A

d. Place the patient on her left lateral recumbent position.

42
Q

Unless critically ill, you should generally begin your assessment of a toddler:

A

Away, generally you should begin the assessment from a distance.

43
Q

In regards of assessing an 8-year-old child, you should:

A

Speak to the child as well as the parents.

44
Q

Which of the following is a correct statement?

a. A child’s epiglottis is smaller and less floppy than in an adult.
b. A child’s tongue is proportionally smaller that in an adult.
c. A child has more rigid tracheal rings.
d. Children have a larger more rounded occipitals compared to an adult.

A

d. Children have a larger more rounded occipitals compared to an adult.

45
Q

Respiratory rates for a newborn should not exceed:

A

60 breaths a minute.

46
Q

What does pale skin indicate in a child?

A

Oxygen levels have decreased.

47
Q

What is the purpose of the PAT?

A

To assess the pediatric patient from a distance to form a general impression.

48
Q

What does the acronym PAT stand for?

A

Pediatric assessment triangle, the three components consists of appearance, work of breathing, and circulation to skin.

49
Q

Early signs of respiratory distress include all of the following EXCEPT in pediatrics:

a. Tachypnea
b. Retraction
c. Abnormal air noise
d. Cyanosis

A

d. Cyanosis

50
Q

You have a semi-conscious child; before you can adequately assess their breathing you must first make sure that:

A

Their airway is patent, and free of airway obstructions.

51
Q

To ensure that an airway of an infant or small child correctly in position, you may have to do:

A

Not pad under the occipit, place a towel or pad under the shoulder and back.

52
Q

How do you assess the ventilation status of an infant patient?

A

Palpate the abdomen for rise and fall.

53
Q

After squeezing an infant’s toe or finger for a few seconds; how long should it take for blood circulation to the finger or toe?

A

Less than 2 seconds.

EMT FF Class (71 decks)

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