history-urinalysis-uf-tests (AUBF) Flashcards

1
Q

The study of urine was based on..

A

Drawing found in the cavement and in the Egyptian hieroglyphics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

an Egyptian hieroglyphics

A

Edwin Smith Surgical Papyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

the father of medicine

A

Hippocrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

the book hippocrates created

A

Uroscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

2 determination of diabetes (Hippocrates)

A

Ant Testing and Taste Testing - honey like taste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Discovered a test by boiling urine

A

Frederick Dekkers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A test of boiling urine

A

Albuminuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

People offering health predictions without medical credentials for a healthy fee

A

Charlatans / Pisse Prophets / Quack Doctors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

he published a book about charlatans and passing of the first medical licensure laws in England

A

Thomas Bryant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

he invented microscope and first to observe bacteria and protozoa

A

Anton Van Leeuwenhoek

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

he developed a method for quantitating microscopic urinary sediments in 17th century

A

Thomas Addis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

cellular elements are counted

A

Addis Count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

he introduced urinalysis as part of doctor’s routine patient examination

A

Richard Bright

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

he constructed the 1st microscope with convex objective and concave eyepiece

A

Zacharias Janssen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

he suggested the use of convex lenses on both objective and eyepiece in compound microscope.

A

Johannes Kepler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

constructed the Kepler’s Microscope which he enlarged the view of the object

A

Christopher Schamir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

became the prototype of modern microscopes

A

Kepler’s Microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Invented a simple but effective 2-lens eyepiece microscope

A

Christian Huggens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

introduced higher numerical apertures for microscope objectives

A

Charles Spurer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

invented darkfield microscope

A

Francis Wenham

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

invented phase contrast microscope

A

Fritz Zernicke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

invented centrifuge microscope

A

E.N Harvey and A.L. Leomis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

invented electron microscope

A

Knoll, Ruska and Rudenbergh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

invented more powerful EM

A

Haws Mahl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

operated through the reflection of light

A

Light Microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

made up of 1 or 2 lenses

A

Simple Microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

made up of many lenses

A

Compound Microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

specimen is illuminated by a special condenser that provides oblique light.

A

Darkfield Microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

enables contrast to be added to normally invisible objects making them quite visible through a microscope

A

Phase Contrast Microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Light travels in a sine-wave form with characteristic amplitude, or wave height and wavelength.

A

Phase Contrast Microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

produces a 3D image

A

Stereoscope Microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

detect chemical bonding between certain substances

A

Fluorescence Microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

operated using beam of electrons to create an image of the specimen

A

Electron Microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

ability of the microscope to render fine detail of an object visible

A

Magnification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

ability of the microscope to distinguish 2 small or closely adjacent images

A

Resolving Power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

designation of amount of light entering the objective from a point in the microscopic field

A

Numerical Aperture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

ration of the velocity of light in this medium is compared with that in a vacuum

A

Refractive Index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

testing of urine with procedures commonly performed in expenditure, reliable, accurate, safe and cost-effective manner

A

Urinalysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

2 types of nephrons

A

cortical and juxtamedullary nephrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

cortical nephrons is approximately…

A

85% of the nephrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

it is situated in the cortex of kidney and responsible for the removal of waste products and reabsorption of nutrients

A

Cortical Nephrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

a nephron that have longer loops of henle and produces enzyme

A

Juxtamedullary Nephrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

the primary function of Juxtamedullary Nephrons

A

concentration of urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

renal functions

A

renal blood flow
glomerular filtration
tubular reabsorption
tubular secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

how many kidneys do human have

A

2 kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

color of kidney

A

dark red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

shape of kidney

A

bean-shaped organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

3 regions of the internal structure of the kidney

A

cortex - outer layer
medulla
renal pelvis - expansion of the upper ureter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

how many nephrons are there in each kidney

A

1 to 1.5 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

the function unit of kidney

A

nephrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

components of glomerulus

A

coiled capillary lobes
located w/in bowman’s capsule
serves as nonselective filter of plasma substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

components of glomerular filtrate

A

water
glucose
electrolytes
amino acid
urea
uric acid
creatinine
ammonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Proximal Convulated Tubules reabsorbs..

A

reabsorbs large amount of water, sodium chloride, bicarbonate, potassium, calcium, phosphate, CHON, glucose and other necessary substances back into the bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

the glucose if totally reabsorbed at concentrations of..

A

160-180 mg/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Proximal Convoluted Tubule secretes

A

Sulfate, glucoronides, hydrogen ion and drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

2 loops of henle

A

Descending and Ascending Loop of Henle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

it reabsorbs water back into the bloodstream and does not reabsorb solutes.

A

Descending Loop of Henle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

it reabsorbs sodium, chlorine, calcium and magnesium and does not reabsorb water

A

Ascending Loop of Henle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Distal Convoluted Tubule reabsorbs

A

sodium and potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

D. conv tubule secretes

A

K, NH3 and H+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

it is composed of transitional epi cells

A

Urethral Epithelial Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

the Urethral Epithelial Cells lines the..

A

renal calyces
renal pelvis
ureters
bladder
urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what can be seen in normal patients or after catheterization which is an increased numbers are seen in UTI

A

Urethral Epithelial Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

volume of filtered plasma

A

approximately 170,000 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

volume of the average urine output when filtered plasma is converted

A

1,200 to 1,500 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

urine formation pathways

A
  1. glomerulus
  2. bowman’s capsule
  3. proximal convoluted tubule
  4. loop of henle
  5. distal convoluted tubule
  6. collecting tubules
  7. ureter
  8. urinary bladder
  9. urethra
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

in nephrotic syndrome, the renal tubular epithelial cells absorb and become engaged with fat known as

A

Oval Fat Bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

indicates lipid droplets contained in the cell

A

Maltese cross

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

high urine production

A

polyuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

the amount of abnormal increase in polyuria

A

> 2500 ml per 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

polyuria is associated with..

A

diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus
also, use of diuretics, caffeine or alcohol which suppress the excretion of ADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what suppresses the excretion of ADH

A

use of diuretics, caffeine or alcohol which suppress the excretion of ADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

polyuria is seen in:

A

diabetes mellitus
diabetes insipidus
chronic nephritis
nervous conditions
excessive fluid intake
absorption of large quantity of edema fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

low urine production

A

oliguria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

the decrease volume which amounts to..

A

<500 ml per 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

cause by dehydration and seen in a state of dehydration

A

oliguria

77
Q

causes of oliguria

A

excessive water loss
vomiting
diarrhea
perspiration or severe burns

78
Q

oliguria is seen in:

A

acute nephritis/glomerulonephritis
calculus or tumor of the kidney
severe diarrhea
dehydration (vomiting, fever, sweating)
uremia
shock
transfusion reactions
toxic agents such as mercury

79
Q

complete suppression of urine formation

A

anuria

80
Q

anuria may result..

A

any serious damage to the kidneys or from a decrease in the flow of blood to the kidney

81
Q

anuria is seen in:

A

acute nephritis
poisoning with mercury
transfusion reactions
toxic agents
complete obstruction
collapse

82
Q

volume amount in anuria

A

<1000 ml per 24 hours for 3 consecutive days

83
Q

increased urine volume at night

A

nocturia

84
Q

involuntary voiding of urine at night

A

enuresis

85
Q

secreted by the adrenal cortex

A

aldosterone

86
Q

aldosterone increase reabsorption of

A

Na or Sodium

87
Q

it is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland

A

ADH or Vasopressin

88
Q

the ADH or Vasopressin regulates reabsorption of..

A

water in the distal tubules

89
Q

ADH deficiency results in

A

Diabetes Mellitus

90
Q

it is secreted by the kidneys and stimulates production of erythrocytes

A

Erythropoietin

91
Q

95-97% main composition of urine

A

Water

92
Q

3-5% main composition of urine

A

solids

93
Q

gram of organic and inorganic substance in urine

A

35g organic substances and 25g inorganic substances

94
Q

the major organic constituent of the urine

A

urea

95
Q

the amount of urea in urine

A

25 g/liter

96
Q

a metabolic waste product produced by the liver from the breakdown of protein and amino acids

A

urea

97
Q

the major inorganic constituent of urine

A

chloride

98
Q

amount of chloride in urine

A

9 g/liter

99
Q

amount of Na in urine

A

4 g/liter, primary from salt, varies by intake

100
Q

amount of K in urine

A

2 g/liter, combined with Chlorine and other salts

101
Q

the product of creatine metabolism by muscles

A

creatinine

102
Q

the amount of creatinine in the urine

A

1.5 g/liter

103
Q

it combines with sodium to buffer the blood

A

phosphate

104
Q

the amount of phosphate in the urine

A

2 g/liter

105
Q

a product of nucleic acid in food and cells

A

uric acid

106
Q

amount of uric acid in urine

A

0.6 g/liter

107
Q

it regulates the blood and tissue fluid acidity

A

ammonium/ammonia

108
Q

the amount of ammonium/ammonia in the urine

A

0.6 g/liter

109
Q

it combines with chloride, sulfate, and phosphate

A

calcium

110
Q

the amount of calcium in urine

A

0.2 g/liter

111
Q

urine may also contain

A

hormones, vitamins, medications

112
Q

urine may also contain formed elements such as

A

cells
cast
crystals
mucus
bacteria

113
Q

the test used to determine whether a particular fluid is urine

A

Urine-Creatinine Test

114
Q

two content of urine to determine that the fluid is really urine

A

urea and creatinine

115
Q

____ of urine is directly proportional to its _____

A

concentration ; specific gravity

116
Q

if the urine is dark therefore;

A

concentration is great as well as the specific gravity.

117
Q

factors affecting urine concentration

A

dietary intake
physical activity
body metabolism
endocrine function
body position

118
Q

the more fluid intake the greater the ___

A

urine volume

119
Q

factors affecting urine volume

A

fluid intake
fluid loss from non-renal sources
variations in the secretion of ADH
necessity to excrete increased amount of dissolved solids

120
Q

reasons for urinalysis

A

Aid in diagnosis of disease
Screen asymptomatic populations for undetected disorder
Monitor the progress of diseases and the effectiveness of therapy

121
Q

approx. ___% of the blood leaves the left ventricle of the hearts enters the ____ by way of ____

A

20-25% ; kidneys ; renal arteries

122
Q

amount of blood passing through kidneys

A

1200 ml/min

123
Q

amount of blood passing per kidney

A

600 ml/min

124
Q

amount of filtered plasma on the glomerulus

A

120 ml/min

125
Q

the amount that the filtered plasma on the glomerulus produces and is finally excreted as urine

A

1 ml/min

126
Q

amount in dehydration and in excessive dehydration

A

o.3 ml in dehydration ; 15ml in excessive dehydration

127
Q

methods of urine specimen collection

A

bottle method, gauze-pad method, catheterization method, midstream-catch method and suprapubic aspiration method.

128
Q

uses receptacles to collect the specimen provided that it is clean, dry and steriled

A

Bottle Method

129
Q

used to collect specimen and then centrifuged.

A

Gauze-Pad Method

130
Q

used for bacterial culture where a clean rubber tuber is inserted through the urethral orifice to the urethral canal, then to the bladder to collect a pure urine specimen.

A

Catheterization Method

131
Q

a urine collection used for routine screening and the urine collection is at the middle part of single continued normal urination and is considered less traumatic method.

A

midstream catch method

132
Q

what strong bacterial cleaning agent should not be used in midstream-catch method

A

hexachlorophene or povidone-iodine

133
Q

bladder urine for bacterial culture

A

Suprapubic Aspiration Method

134
Q

a type of urine specimen collected at any time for routine and qualitative urine analysis

A

random specimen

135
Q

collection is timed or scheduled for a particular due to the needs of the situation, tests and substance being determined.

A

timed specimen

136
Q

used for quantitative chemical test urine is collected within 24 hours

A

24 hr specimen

137
Q

collected within 12 hours

A

12 hour specimen

138
Q

8 pm to 8 am urine collection

A

12-hr specimen (night)

139
Q

urine sample at 8 am is discarded and all samples are voided until 8 pm

A

12-hr specimen (day)

140
Q

specimen collected between 2pm to 6pm

A

afternoon specimen

141
Q

it is best evaluated from specimens obtained between 2 and 4 pm

A

afternoon specimen

142
Q

the first morning urine specimen is used for

A

pregnancy test, routine screening and orthostatic protein.

143
Q

concentrated specimen, detection of chemicals and formed elements

A

first morning urine specimen

144
Q

for diabetic monitoring and screening, there will be no any metabolites from food ingested before the beginning of the fasting period

A

fasting specimen

145
Q

void urine shortly before routine meal and collect a specimen 2 hours after eating (for diabetic monitoring)

A

2-hour postprandial

146
Q

a preservation that prevents bacterial growth and preserve formed elements

A

refrigeration

147
Q

the formed elements that are preserved through refrigeration

A

casts, rbcs, wbcs, epithelial cells and acid ph.

148
Q

preservation of urine that prevents:
- conversion of urea to ammonium carbonate
- destruction of glucose by yeast/bacteria
- false positive albumin tests due to the presence of bacterial protein
- degeneration/destruction of organized sediments

A

Chemical Preservation

149
Q

organized sediments

A

pus, blood and casts

150
Q

ideal preservative for steroids

A

toluene

151
Q

preserves urinary sediments well

A

formalin 40%

152
Q

a small crystal is added to 3-4 ounces of urine

A

thymol

153
Q

good preservative for aldosterone ; not an ideal preservative

A

chloroform

154
Q

ideal for glucose analysis (glucose tolerance test or as an aid in regulating the insulin dosage of a diabetic patient)

A

sodium fluoride or benzoic acid

155
Q

used for regent strip testing

A

sodium benzoate

156
Q

used in specimens forwarded to distant laboratories and is considered as an excellent preservatives and is good for long-term preservation.

A

phenol

157
Q

preserved 24-hr urine specimens

A

hydrochloric acid (10 ml cone)

158
Q

special preservative for the detection of catecholamines, calcium, nitrogen, inorganic constituents

A

sulfuric acid (1ml cone)

159
Q

keeps pH at about 6.0 and bacteriostatic at 18g/L

A

boric acid

160
Q

can be used for culture transport and the sample can be kept for 24 hours w/o ref

A

boric acid

161
Q

the normal amount of urine in adult

A

800-1600 ml/24hours

162
Q

normal amount of urine in children 6-12 years

A

500-1500 ml/24hours

163
Q

normal amount of urine in children 1-6 years

A

300-1000 ml/24hours

164
Q

urine obtained by a catheter immediate after the patient has emptied the bladder voluntarily

A

residual urine

165
Q

amount of urine that remains in the bladder after voluntary urination

A

residual urine

166
Q

normal urine color

A

straw to amber yellow

167
Q

yellow pigment of urine is due to

A

urochrome (named by Thudichum)

168
Q

pink pigment of urine is due to

A

uroerythrin (ppt of amorphous urates)

169
Q

orange-brown color is due to

A

urobilin (oxidation product of urobilinogen)

170
Q

the sg of amber urine

A

high SG and small quantity

171
Q

sg of colorless to straw

A

low SG and large quantity

172
Q

the aromatic odor of urine is due to

A

urinod or volatile organic acids

173
Q

the normal transparency of urine

A

clear (fresh specimen)

174
Q

normal clarity of urine

A

nubecula - faint cloud in urine forms after standing it for some time due to mucus, leukocytes or epithelial cells.

175
Q

faint cloud in urine forms after standing it for some time due to mucus, leukocytes or epithelial cells.

A

nubecula

176
Q

the ratio of the weight of a substance to the weight of an equal volume of a reference substance

A

specific gravity

177
Q

density of a solution compared with the density of a similar volume of distilled water at a similar temperature

A

specific gravity

178
Q

measurement of the concentration of solutes and the concentrating and diluting power of the kidney

A

specific gravity

179
Q

specific gravity is a very complicated function that involves:

A

osmosis
counter current
ultra-filtration and
secretion mechanisms

180
Q

urine sg is high, usually above 1.010

A

hypersthenuric

181
Q

urine sg is normal, fixed at about 1.010

A

isosthenuric

182
Q

urine sg is low, usually less than 1.007

A

hyposthenuric

183
Q

low sg is related to:

A

chronic nephritis and diabetes insipidus

184
Q

high sh is related to:

A

diabetes mellitus, acute nephritis and fever

185
Q

determines the concentration of dissolved particles in a specimen by measuring refractive index

A

Refractometer Method

186
Q

comparison of the velocity of light in air with the velocity of light in a solution.

A

refractive index

187
Q

consists of weighted float attached to a scale that has been calibrated in terms of urine SG

A

urinometer

188
Q

less accurate method

A

urinometer