Infections of the Urogenital System I (13) Flashcards

1
Q

What causes contagious equine metritis (CEM)?

A

taylorella equigenitalis

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2
Q

What are the characteristics of taylorella equigenitalis?

A

short, non-motile gram-negative rods

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3
Q

Taylorella is [microaerophilic/aerotolerant]

A

microaerophilic

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4
Q

Where does t. equigenitalis grow?

A

genital tracts of stallions, mares, and foals

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5
Q

T. equigenitalis is harbored in the ______ of stallions and the ______ of infected mares

A

males: urethral fossa
females: clitoral fossa

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6
Q

What are the two types of taylorella?

A

t. equigenitalis
t. asinigenitalis

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7
Q

T/F: T. equigenitalis affects more species other than equine

A

FALSE

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8
Q

_______ has not been associated with clinical disease in donkeys

A

T. asinigenitalis

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9
Q

What is contagious equine metritis?

A

a highly contagious, localized, venereal disease

characterized by mucopurulent vaginal discharge and temporary infertility in mares

economically important

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10
Q

Who are the main reservoirs for CEM? Who doesn’t show clinical disease?

A

infected stallions and mares

stallions

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11
Q

How is CEM transmitted?

A

during coitus
by contaminated instruments
to foals born to infected dams (in utero or during parturition)

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12
Q

What must happen for CEM to establish infection in mares?

A

bacterium must be deposited in the uterus

NO spontaneous ascending infection

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13
Q

What is the pathogenesis of CEM?

A
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14
Q

T/F: In CEM, most infected mares develop a copious, mucopurulent, vaginal discharge without systemic disturbance within a few days after service by a carrier stallion

A

TRUE

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15
Q

Infection against CEM [does/does not] induce protective immunity, meaning reinfection [can/cannot] occur

A

does not
can

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16
Q

What are clinical signs of CEM?

A

a copious, mucopurulent vaginal discharge 2 to 7 days after coitus

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17
Q

Why must t. equigenitalis be transported via a medium?

A

can die otherwise

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18
Q

What is the identification criteria for t. equigenitalis isolates?

A

colonies may be visible after 48 hours

small, smooth, and yellowish grey and have an entire edge

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19
Q

How do you treat CEM?

A

daily washing of external genitalia with 2% chorohexidine

followed by topical application of nitrofurazone ointment

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20
Q

T/F: CEM is a notifiable disease in the US

A

TRUE

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21
Q

What are the characteristics of brucella spp.?

A

small, gram-negative coccbaccili

non-motile and catalase-positive

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22
Q

Brucella is [nonaerobic/aerobic]

A

aerobic

and capnophilic (thrive in the presence of high concentrations of carbon dioxide)

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23
Q

Brucella stains red using a __________

A

modified ziehl-neelsen (MZN) stain

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24
Q

Brucella is ___-positive except B. ovis

A

urease-positive

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25
Q

Brucella is an [extracellular/intracellular] pathogen

A

intracellular

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26
Q

What does Brucella target?

A

reproductive organs

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27
Q

What is the only brucellus that is not urease-positive?

A

B. ovis

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28
Q

Is Brucella zoonotic?

A

yes - causes undulant fever in humans

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29
Q

What is the usual habitat for Brucella?

A

male and female repro organs in sexually mature animals

30
Q

What are the properties of infected animals with Brucella?

A

serve as reservoirs; often persist indefinitely

organisms shed by infected animals can remain viable in a moist environment for months

31
Q

How does transmission occur by Brucella?

A

transmission usually occurs by direct contact or fluids and tissues associated with abortions

32
Q

Smooth, small, glistening, bluish colonies are for which Brucella species?

A

B. abortus
B. melitensis
B. suis

33
Q

Rough, dull, yellowish, and friable colonies are for which Brucella species?

A

B. ovis
B. canis

34
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Brucella?

A

intracellular replication also occurs in trophoblast cells; can also localize in joints and intervertebral discs in chronic infections

intracellular replication through fusion of Brucella-containing vacuole with rough ER

35
Q

Brucellae that lack LPS produce [rough/smooth] colonies, which are [more/less] virulent

A

rough
less

36
Q

What acts as a growth factor for Brucella spp.? What organs?

A

erythritol, a polyphydric alcohol

placenta

37
Q

T/F: Brucella affects both non-phagocytic and phagocytic cells

A

TRUE - escapes normal vesicle trafficking

38
Q

Majority of Brucella are killed by ______ but a small number of them are able to _______

A

macrophages

survive and replicate in macrophages

39
Q

What is the significance of the O-chain in Brucella?

A

helps in getting inside the cell and prevent the fusion of lysosome with vesicle

40
Q

What does Brucella manipulate? It leads to _____

A

vesicle trafficking

leads to formation of Brucella-containing vacuole that eventually fuses to the ER, which facilitates intracellular replication of Brucella

41
Q

B. abortus usual hosts are ____

A

cattle

causes abortus, orchitis

42
Q

T/F: Care should be taken when dealing with infected Brucella specimens

A

TRUE

43
Q

Who does B. abortus also affect?

A

buffalo
bison
elk

44
Q

B. ____ is a human pathogen

A

abortus - can be debilitating

could be used in a bioterrorist attack

45
Q

What is bovine brucellosis caused by?

A

caused by B. abortus

46
Q

How is bovine brucellosis transmitted?

A

ingestion

venereal, inhalation, abrasions, and transplacental

47
Q

In bovine brucellosis, _____ may be seen after 5th month of pregnancy

A

abortion storms

48
Q

What are the targeted organs in bulls by bovine brucellosis?

A

seminal vesicles
testicles
epididymis

49
Q

What are the targeted organs in cows by bovine brucellosis?

A

lymph nodes
mammary glands

50
Q

What is the brucella milk ring test for?

A

conducted on bulk milk samples for monitoring

not reliable in large herds

51
Q

What is the rose-bengal plate test for regarding brucella?

A

useful agglutination test for screening

positive results require confirmation by CFT or ELISA

52
Q

What is the complement-fixation test regarding brucella for?

A

widely accepted confirmatory test for individual animals

53
Q

What is the indirect ELISA test regarding brucella used for?

A

reliable screening and confirmatory test

54
Q

What is the treatment and control for bovine brucellosis?

A

treatment is ineffective

national eradication program

two vaccine strains

55
Q

What species does B. melitensis primarily affect? Where is it mostly seen?

A

caprine and bovine

Mediterranean area, Central Asia, and South America

56
Q

What species is the most susceptible for B. melitensis?

A

goats

57
Q

What are clinical features of B. melitensis?

A

high abortion rate in females
orchitis in males
arthritis and hygromas

58
Q

What is the modified live vaccine for B. melitensis?

A

B. melitensis Rev 1 strain - used for vaccination in kids and labs up to 6 months of age

59
Q

What species does B. ovis affect?

A

ovine

60
Q

What does B. ovis cause?

A

epididymitis in rams
placentitis in ewes

reduced fertility, sporadic abortions, and increased perinatal losses

61
Q

How is B. ovis transmitted?

A

venereal transmission

62
Q

What is characteristic of B. ovis?

A

unilateral or bilateral testicular atrophy with swelling and hardening of the epididymis

63
Q

Porcine brucellosis is caused by _______ and [does/does not] occur in the US

A

B. suis

occasionally occurs in the US

64
Q

What are clinical signs of B. suis?

A

prolonged bacteremia
chronic inflammatory lesions in the reproductive organs of sows and boars

65
Q

Regarding B. suis, lesions can be found in _____ and _____

A

joints
bones

66
Q

How is B. suis transmitted?

A

coitus
ingestion

67
Q

What are consequences of B. suis?

A

abortion
stillbirths
neonatal mortality
temporary sterility

68
Q

What is canine brucellosis caused by?

A

caused by B. canis

69
Q

What are clinical signs of B. canis?

A

relatively mild and asymptomatic disease

may cause abortions in dogs

70
Q

What brucella spp. affect humans?

A

B. abortus
B. melitensis
B. suis

rarely B. canis and brucellae of sea mammals

71
Q

What does Brucellosis in humans primarily cause?

A

undulant fever

*fluctuating pyrexia, malaise, fatigue, muscle, and joint pain