Pathoma - Autoimmune disorders Flashcards

1
Q

What is the role of the AIRE gene

A

It allow medullary epithelial cells of the thymus to display self-antigens during negative selection

Mutation will prevent developing lymphocytes from being tested against self-antigens, and allowed to be released, leading to autoimmunity

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2
Q

What are the 2 methods of peripheral tolerance of lymphocytes?

A

(1) Anergy: T-cells bind to MHC/antigen complex, and if there is no second activation signal (CD28 binding B7) the cell will shut down
(2) Apoptosis: if the T-cell keeps binding the MHC/antigen without a 2nd signal, the T-cell will begin to express FasL which will bind to death receptors

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3
Q

What cytokines to regulatory T-cells produce?

A

IL-10 and TGF-B

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4
Q

What molecules to Treg cells express/are positive for?

A

CD4+
CD25+
FOXP3+

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5
Q

What is Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome (ALPS) caused by?

A

Mutation in the Fas apoptosis pathway, allowing self-reactive lymphocytes to continue proliferating and produce antibodies against normal cells

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6
Q

Describe bystander activation in the setting of autoimmunity

A

Patient makes a few self-reactive lymphocytes, but then gets an infection which ramps up the immune system causing self-reactive lymphs to multiply

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7
Q

Describe molecular mimicry in the setting of autoimmunity

A

Patient is infected with something similar to self-antigen, so self-reactive lymphocytes are increased because they are similar

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8
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is SLE?

A

Type III

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9
Q

Describe the mechanism behind the development of SLE

A

Poorly cleared apoptotic debris (e.g. from UV damage) activates self-reactive lymphocytes, which then produce antibodies to host nuclear antigens

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10
Q

How is complement deficiency a cause of SLE

A

If complement cannot clear the apoptotic debris, it will remain around for cells to make antibodies against them

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11
Q

What are the 11 criteria of SLE:

A

RASH OR PAIN

Rash (malar or discoid)
Arthritis
Serositis
Hematologic disorders (e.g. anemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia)
Oral/nasopharyngeal ulcers
Renal disease
Photosensitivity
Antinuclear antibodies (ANA)
Immunologic disorder (anti-dsDNA, anti-Sm, anti-phospholipid)
Neurologic disorders (psychosis or seizures)

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12
Q

What are the 2 types of renal damage associated with SLE?

A

Nephrotic: membranous nephropathy

Nephritis: diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis

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13
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is there against blood cells in lupus

A

Type II (antibody directly against cells)

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14
Q

What is Libman-Sacks endocarditis (associated with SLE)

A

Small vegetations on BOTH SIDES (top and bottom) of mitral valve

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15
Q

What are anti-Smith antibodies directed against?

A

snRNPs

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16
Q

What complements will be decreased in SLE?

A

CH50, C4, and C3

17
Q

What type of antibody is anticardiolipin and what can it cause false positives in?

A

It is an antiphospholipid in SLE

Can cause false-positive for syphilis

18
Q

What type of antibody is lupus anticoagulant and what can it falsely elevate?

A

It is an anti-phospholipid

Can falsely elevate PTT

19
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria of antiphospholipid antibody syndrome (APA)

A

Hypercoagulable state with + antiphospholipids( e.g. lupus anticoagulant, anticardiolipin, anti-B2-glycoprotein)

20
Q

What is paradoxical about antiphospholipid antibody syndrome

A

Lupus anticoagulant can lead to increased PTT, but the syndrome actually causes HYPERcoagulability

21
Q

What is the characteristic antibody in drug-induced lupus

A

Antihistone antibody

ANA is also positive by definition

22
Q

What drugs are common causes of drug-induced lupus

A
SHIPP-E:
♣	S – sulfa drugs
♣	H – Hydralazine
♣	I – Isoniazid
♣	P – Procainamide
♣	P – Phenytoin
♣	E – Etanercept
23
Q

What clinical findings are usually absent in Drug-induced lupus that are present in SLE

A

Renal and CNS involvment

24
Q

Most common cause of death in SLE?

A

Renal failure, infection, and accelerated coronary atherosclerosis

25
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is Sjogren syndrome?

A

Type IV (lymphocyte-mediated)

26
Q

What are the 3 major diagnostic criteria in Sjogrens?

A

(1) Dry eyes/mouth
(2) ANA + anti-SSA/anti-SSB/anti-RF
(3) Lymphocytic sialadenitis

27
Q

What type of antibodies are anti-SSA and anti-SSB

A

anti-ribonucleoprotein antibodies

28
Q

What is the risk for pregnant women with anti-SSA?

A

Neonatal lupus and congenital heart block

29
Q

What disease does Sjogren’s increase the risk of?

A

B-cell (marginal zone) lymphoma

Will present as unilateral enlargement of parotid gland late in the disease course of Sjogren’s

30
Q

What is the cause of Systemic Sclerosis (Scleroderma)

A

Fibroblast activation leading to deposition of collagen

Autoimmune disorder characterized by sclerosis of skin and visceral organs

31
Q

Describe the disease process leading to fibroblast activation in Scleroderma

A

Autoimmune damage to endothelial cells

Damaged endothelium causes vasoconstriction (increased endothelin and decreased NO) and secretion of growth factors (TGF-B and PDGF), which activate fibroblasts

32
Q

What are the antibodies in limited-type and diffuse-type Scleroderma?

A

Limited-type: anti-centromere

Diffuse-type: anti-DNA topoisomerase

33
Q

What are the characteristics of limited-type scleroderma and describe the protype

A

Limited skin involvement (hands and face) with late visceral involvement

CREST syndrome:
C - Calcinosis (deposition of calcium in subcutaneous tissue / anti-Centromere
R - Raynoud
E - Esophogeal dysmotility
S - Sclerodactyly (fibrosis of skin of hands/tightening of skin/loss of wrinkles)
T - Telangiectasias

34
Q

What are the characteristics of diffuse-type scleroderma

A

Diffuse skin involvement with early visceral involvement

35
Q

What are the 3 diseases that have mixed features in Mixed Connective Tissue disease

A

SLE, systemic sclerosis, polymyositis

36
Q

What antibody is associated with mixed connective tissue disease

A

anti-U1 ribonucleoprotein