Chapter 8 Flashcards Preview

Brain and Behavior > Chapter 8 > Flashcards

Flashcards in Chapter 8 Deck (181):
1

Ultimately, the purpose of having a brain is to:
a. control movement.
b. solve logical problems.
c. control hormone release.
d. comprehend language.

a. control movement.

2

In infancy, the sea squirt has a brain until it:
a. mates.
b. stops moving.
c. eats clown fish.
d. migrates to open water.

b. stops moving.

3

What type of muscle controls movements of the heart?
a. smooth
b. striated
c. cardiac
d. antagonistic

c. cardiac

4

What type of muscle controls movements of internal organs?
a. smooth
b. striated
c. cardiac
d. antagonistic

a. smooth

5

What type of muscle is responsible for the movement of your body through the environment?
a. smooth
b. striated
c. cardiac
d. syncarpous

b. striated

6

The heart is to ____ as movement of the body is to ____.
a. smooth muscles; rough muscles
b. cardiac muscles; striated muscles
c. striated muscles; skeletal muscles
d. antagonistic muscles; skeletal muscles

b. cardiac muscles; striated muscles

7

Internal organs are to ____ as movement of the body is to ____.
a. smooth muscles; rough muscles
b. smooth muscles; striated muscles
c. striated muscles; skeletal muscles
d. antagonistic muscles; skeletal muscles

b. smooth muscles; striated muscles

8

Cardiac muscles have properties:
a. just like those of smooth muscles.
b. just like those of skeletal muscles.
c. just like those of antagonistic muscles.
d. intermediate between those of smooth and skeletal.

d. intermediate between those of smooth and skeletal.

9

What is the relationship between the motor neuron axons and muscle fibers?
a. Each axon innervates only one muscle fiber.
b. The more muscle fibers a single axon innervates, the more precise the movements.
c. The more axons which innervate a single muscle fiber, the more precise the movements.
d. The fewer muscle fibers a single axon innervates, the more precise the movements.

d. The fewer muscle fibers a single axon innervates, the more precise the movements.

10

The eye muscles can be moved with greater precision than the biceps muscles because the:
a. biceps have only slow-twitch muscles.
b. biceps have only fast-twitch muscles.
c. biceps are opposed by an antagonistic muscle; the eye muscles are not.
d. eye muscles have a lower ratio of muscle fibers to axons.

d. eye muscles have a lower ratio of muscle fibers to axons.

11

You have precise control over the movement of your fingers, probably because:
a. they have many muscle fibers per motor neuron.
b. they have few muscle fibers per motor neuron.
c. the axons in the fingers have faster action potentials.
d. you have learned how to write.

b. they have few muscle fibers per motor neuron.

12

What is the name given to the synapse where a motor neuron's axon meets a muscle fiber?
a. neuromuscular junction
b. polar junction
c. muscle spindle
d. neurofiber synapse

a. neuromuscular junction

13

A neuromuscular junction is a synapse:
a. where a sensory axon delivering information from a muscle meets a neuron.
b. where a motor neuron axon meets a muscle fiber.
c. specific to cardiac muscles.
d. where a muscle excites or inhibits a neuron.

b. where a motor neuron axon meets a muscle fiber.

14

Moving a leg or arm back and forth requires opposing sets of muscles called:
a. extensor muscles.
b. flexor muscles.
c. cardiac muscles.
d. antagonistic muscles.

d. antagonistic muscles.

15

When an axon releases a transmitter at the nerve-muscle junction, the response of the muscle is to:
a. always relax.
b. always contract.
c. relax or contract, depending on the transmitter.
d. relax or contract, depending on the duration and amount of transmitter.

b. always contract.

16

Axons release ____ at junctions with skeletal muscles.
a. many different neurotransmitters
b. dopamine
c. norepinephrine
d. acetylcholine

d. acetylcholine

17

The absence of acetylcholine will cause a muscle to:
a. relax.
b. contract.
c. fatigue.
d. stretch.

a. relax.

18

What will cause a muscle to relax?
a. electrical stimulation
b. absence of acetylcholine
c. presence of norepinephrine
d. presence of epinephrine

b. absence of acetylcholine

19

Which muscle is "antagonistic" to a flexor muscle in the right arm?
a. a flexor muscle in the right arm
b. an extensor muscle in the left arm
c. an extensor muscle in the right arm
d. another flexor muscle in the right arm

c. an extensor muscle in the right arm

20

A contraction of equal force in antagonist muscles of the arm would result in ____ of the arm.
a. flexion
b. extension
c. no movement
d. rotation

c. no movement

21

The eye muscles have a ratio of about ____ axon(s) per ¬¬¬¬____ muscle fiber(s).
a. two, three
b. one, three
c. three, two
d. three one

b. one, three

22

The biceps muscles of the arm have a ratio of ____ to more than a hundred fibers.
a. four
b. three
c. one
d. two

c. one

23

At the elbow, the ____ brings the hand toward the shoulder.
a. extensor muscle
b. flexor muscle
c. striated muscle
d. skeletal muscle

b. flexor muscle

24

A deficit of acetylcholine or its receptors:
a. cause involuntary movement
b. increase movement
c. impair movement
d. does not affect movement

c. impair movement

25

In movement the, ____ muscle straightens the arm.
a. Flexor
b. Striated
c. Extensor
d. Skeletal

c. Extensor

26

What happens when a fish swims at low temperatures?
a. Muscle fibers contract more vigorously than at high temperatures.
b. The fish swims more slowly.
c. The fish swims at its usual speed but fatigues more rapidly.
d. The fish swims at its usual speed but fatigues more slowly.

c. The fish swims at its usual speed but fatigues more rapidly.

27

A fish will adjust to lower water temperatures by:
a. increasing the speed of its action potentials.
b. increasing the amplitude of its action potentials.
c. recruiting different muscle fibers.
d. increasing its basal metabolic rate.

c. recruiting different muscle fibers.

28

What are the differences among the three types of skeletal muscle found in fish (red, pink, and white)?
a. speed of contraction
b. susceptibility to fatigue
c. both speed of contraction and susceptibility to fatigue
d. only their color

c. both speed of contraction and susceptibility to fatigue

29

Of the three types of skeletal muscles found in fish, which type is least susceptible to fatigue?
a. Red
b. White
c. Blue
d. Pink

a. Red

30

At high temperatures, a fish relies mostly on its:
a. white muscles.
b. red muscles.
c. blue muscles.
d. pink muscles.

b. red muscles.

31

Which would be especially important when running up a flight of stairs at full speed?
a. fast-twitch muscles
b. slow-twitch muscles
c. smooth muscles
d. intermediate muscles

a. fast-twitch muscles

32

If a new species were found with legs composed almost completely of fast-twitch muscles, what could we infer about its behavior?
a. It could chase prey over long distances.
b. It could chase prey only over short distances.
c. It probably travels constantly.
d. It probably moves slowly and grazes on vegetation.

b. It could chase prey only over short distances.

33

During aerobic exercises such as dancing, as glucose is used by the muscles, ____.
a. fast-twitch fibers absorb more glucose
b. slow-twitch muscles produce glucose anaerobically
c. glucose use increases
d. glucose use decreases

d. glucose use decreases

34

Exercising at a high altitude where there is less oxygen is most likely to affect:
a. intermediate fibers.
b. anaerobic contraction.
c. fast-twitch fibers.
d. slow-twitch fibers.

d. slow-twitch fibers.

35

Vigorous use of fast-twitch fibers results in fatigue because the process is:
a. aerobic.
b. anaerobic.
c. anabolic.
d. abolic.

b. anaerobic.

36

Compared to the average weekend jogger, a world class marathon runner probably has a higher percentage of which kind of fibers in his legs?
a. slow-twitch
b. fast-twitch
c. smooth muscle
d. white muscle

a. slow-twitch

37

Compared to a long distance runner, a world class sprinter probably has more of which kind of fibers in her legs?
a. slow-twitch
b. fast-twitch
c. smooth muscle
d. striated muscle

b. fast-twitch

38

A proprioceptor is sensitive to the:
a. degree of relaxation or contraction of smooth muscle tissue.
b. position and movement of a part of the body.
c. percentage of fibers that are contracting within a muscle bundle.
d. degree of fatigue in a muscle.

b. position and movement of a part of the body.

39

The stretch reflex:
a. results in a stretch.
b. is caused by a stretch.
c. inhibits motor neurons.
d. sends a message for a muscle to relax.

b. is caused by a stretch.

40

The stretch reflex:
a. results in a stretch.
b. is caused by a stretch.
c. inhibits motor neurons.
d. sends a message for a muscle to relax.

b. is caused by a stretch.

41

Which of the following are two kinds of proprioceptors?
a. extensors and contractors
b. contractors and muscle spindles
c. muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs
d. muscle spindles and extensors

c. muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs

42

A boxer’s ability to sense the position of his arm and hand before planning a punch is dependent on the sense of:
a. proprioception.
b. somatosensation.
c. pain.
d. vision.

a. proprioception.

43

A muscle spindle responds to the:
a. oxygen level in the muscle.
b. acetylcholine concentration at the nerve-muscle junction.
c. fatigue of the muscle.
d. stretch of the muscle.

d. stretch of the muscle.

44

A sudden stretch of a muscle excites a feedback system that opposes the stretch. This message starts in the:
a. dorsal root ganglion.
b. cerebellum.
c. Pacinian corpuscles.
d. muscle spindles.

d. muscle spindles.

45

A physician taps you just below the knee to check a reflex that is based on information from which kind of receptor?
a. a Golgi tendon organ
b. an oscillator
c. a muscle spindle
d. a vestibular organ

c. a muscle spindle

46

A tap on the knee just below the kneecap will elicit extension of the leg. This reflex indicates that:
a. muscle spindles have been stretched.
b. Golgi tendon organs have been stretched.
c. neurons have been damaged in the spinal cord.
d. muscle spindles have been relaxed.

a. muscle spindles have been stretched.

47

A Golgi tendon organ responds to:
a. increases in muscle tension.
b. decreases in muscle tension.
c. increases in muscle spindles.
d. decreases in muscle spindles.

a. increases in muscle tension.

48

Which type of proprioceptor responds to increases in muscle tension?
a. Golgi tendon organ
b. fast-twitch fiber
c. muscle spindle
d. slow-twitch fiber

a. Golgi tendon organ

49

The role of the Golgi tendon organs is to:
a. prevent extreme muscle contractions.
b. guard against fatigue of muscles.
c. produce rapid repetitive movements such as finger tapping.
d. regulate blood flow to the tendons and muscles.

a. prevent extreme muscle contractions.

50

Slow and continuous stretching exercises could relax a muscle by:
a. stretching the muscle spindle organs.
b. decreasing glucose utilization.
c. stretching the Golgi tendon organs.
d. increasing muscle fiber density.

c. stretching the Golgi tendon organs.

51

Muscle spindles respond to changes in muscle ____; Golgi tendon organs respond to changes in muscle ____.
a. tension; fatigue
b. fatigue; tension
c. stretch; tension
d. tension; stretch

c. stretch; tension

52

Activity of a muscle spindle is to ____ as activity of the Golgi tendon organ is to ____.
a. contraction; inhibition of contraction
b. inhibition of contraction; contraction
c. inhibition of contraction; inhibition of contraction
d. contraction; contraction

a. contraction; inhibition of contraction

53

What experience is similar to losing proprioception?
a. Losing your sense of equilibrium
b. Walking on a leg that has "fallen asleep"
c. Having a phantom limb
d. Teeth chattering in the cold

b. Walking on a leg that has "fallen asleep"

54

A physician who asks you to cross your legs and then taps just below the knee is testing your ____ reflexes.
a. constriction
b. slow
c. stretch
d. fast

c. stretch

55

Infants have several reflexes, such as the ____ and the ____, that are not seen in adults.
a. knee-jerk reflex; rooting reflex
b. Babinski reflex; knee-jerk reflex
c. rooting reflex; Babinski reflex
d. knee-jerk reflex; grasp reflex

c. rooting reflex; Babinski reflex

56

The rooting reflex and the Babinski reflex are characteristic of which group?
a. infants, but not normal adults
b. adults, but not normal infants
c. humans, but not non-humans
d. non-humans, but not humans

a. infants, but not normal adults

57

What is the stimulus for the Babinski reflex?
a. Stroking the sole of the foot
b. Placing an object firmly in the palm of the hand
c. Touching the cheek near the mouth
d. A loud noise

a. Stroking the sole of the foot

58

What is the stimulus for the rooting reflex?
a. Stroking the sole of the foot
b. Placing an object firmly in the palm of the hand
c. Touching the cheek near the mouth
d. A loud noise

c. Touching the cheek near the mouth

59

In adulthood, the rooting and Babinski reflexes:
a. continue to occur, just as in infancy.
b. are completely lost, as the reflexive connections disappear.
c. are suppressed, but they can return if cortical activity decreases.
d. are suppressed, but they can return if the person is motivated.

c. are suppressed, but they can return if cortical activity decreases.

60

If a neurologist tests an adult patient for infant reflexes, the neurologist is probably trying to determine whether the person has suffered damage to the:
a. cerebral cortex.
b. toe.
c. peripheral motor system.
d. cerebellum.

a. cerebral cortex.

61

The Babinski reflex clinically occurs in a(n):
a. person with Parkinson's disease.
b. adult with damage to the cerebral cortex.
c. child born without feet.
d. person with Huntington’s disease.

b. adult with damage to the cerebral cortex.

62

You most likely expect the Babinski reflex to occur in a(n):
a. person with Parkinson's disease.
b. male teenager.
c. child born without feet.
d. adult with damage to the cerebral cortex.

d. adult with damage to the cerebral cortex.

63

Closing your eyes and sneezing in response to suddenly seeing a bright light is an example of:
a. the rooting reflex.
b. an allied reflex.
c. a Babinski reflex.
d. a ballistic movement.

b. an allied reflex.

64

A ballistic movement:
a. is a rhythmic alternation between two movements.
b. is guided by feedback during the course of the movement.
c. proceeds automatically once it has been triggered.
d. tends to overcorrect itself.

c. proceeds automatically once it has been triggered.

65

Which of the following is an example of a ballistic movement?
a. threading a needle
b. singing a song
c. picking up a newspaper
d. a reflexive knee jerk

d. a reflexive knee jerk

66

Central pattern generators:
a. contribute to rhythmic patterns of movement.
b. generate movement which is unresponsive to environmental stimulation.
c. constrict the pupils in response to bright light.
d. control all reflexes in adult humans.

a. contribute to rhythmic patterns of movement.

67

A motor program is a:
a. mechanism that guides movement on the basis of sensory feedback.
b. mechanism that produces an alternation between two movements.
c. plan for training a brain-damaged person to walk.
d. movement that, once triggered, continues automatically until its completion.

d. movement that, once triggered, continues automatically until its completion.

68

Which of the following is an example of a motor program in chickens with featherless wings?
a. flapping wings if suddenly dropped
b. learning to fly
c. stretching its wings but not flapping them
d. flapping its wings while eating

a. flapping wings if suddenly dropped

69

Which of the following behaviors would most likely result from activity of central pattern generators?
a. a dog shaking itself to dry off
b. catching a baseball
c. playing the piano
d. yawning

a. a dog shaking itself to dry off

70

Which of the following is an example of a motor program in a human?
a. yawning
b. a list of things to do today
c. a baby's first steps
d. a teenager learning to drive

a. yawning

71

In order to elicit movement, the motor cortex:
a. has direct connections to the muscles.
b. sends axons to the brainstem and spinal cord.
c. controls isolated movement in a single muscle.
d. relies on feedback from individual muscle fibers.

b. sends axons to the brainstem and spinal cord.

72

Very brief electrical stimulation of the motor cortex results in:
a. relaxation.
b. muscle twitching.
c. laughing.
d. complex, coordinated movements.

b. muscle twitching.

73

Longer stimulation (1/2 sec) of the arm region of a monkey's motor cortex results in:
a. brief muscle twitches of the arm.
b. repetitive muscle twitches of the fingers.
c. a fixed set of muscle movements such as contraction of the biceps.
d. a fixed outcome using different muscle movements depending on the initial position of the arm.

d. a fixed outcome using different muscle movements depending on the initial position of the arm.

74

The posterior parietal cortex:
a. is the main area for touch and other body information.
b. keeps track of the position of the body relative to the world.
c. is active during preparations for a movement and less active during movement itself.
d. responds to lights, noises, and other signals for a movement.

b. keeps track of the position of the body relative to the world.

75

People with posterior parietal damage:
a. can see an object, but are unable to describe it.
b. have good hand-eye coordination only if they close one eye.
c. have difficulty accurately locating and approaching a sound.
d. will not step over an obstacle, although they can accurately describe it.

d. will not step over an obstacle, although they can accurately describe it.

76

People with posterior parietal damage:
a. cannot walk toward something they hear.
b. have trouble converting vision into action.
c. can walk toward something they see but cannot reach out to grasp it.
d. cannot accurately describe what they see.

b. have trouble converting vision into action.

77

The prefrontal cortex:
a. is the main area for touch and other body information.
b. keeps track of the position of the body relative to the world.
c. is active during preparations for a movement and less active during movement itself.
d. responds to lights, noises, and other signals for a movement.

d. responds to lights, noises, and other signals for a movement.

78

The premotor cortex:
a. is the main area for touch and other body information.
b. keeps track of the position of the body relative to the world.
c. is active during preparations for a movement and less active during movement itself.
d. responds to lights, noises, and other signals for a movement.

c. is active during preparations for a movement and less active during movement itself.

79

Which of the following would most likely happen with damage to the prefrontal cortex?
a. Inability to move
b. Loss of somatosensory experiences
c. Poorly planned movements
d. No effect on movement

c. Poorly planned movements

80

The part of the cortex that is most active during preparations for a movement and less active during the movement itself is the:
a. premotor cortex.
b. somatosensory cortex.
c. inferior temporal cortex.
d. tabes dorsalis.

a. premotor cortex.

81

In contrast to people with posterior parietal damage, people with damage to certain parts of the occipital cortex outside the primary visual cortex:
a. can't locate the source of sounds.
b. lose their ability to see everything.
c. can accurately describe what they see but cannot reach out to grasp it.
d. cannot accurately describe what they see but can reach out to grasp it.

d. cannot accurately describe what they see but can reach out to grasp it.

82

When are the cells in the premotor cortex (in contrast to the primary motor cortex) most active?
a. In preparation for movements
b. During movements
c. At or after the end of movements
d. During inhibition of movements

a. In preparation for movements

83

The part of the cortex that responds mostly to the sensory signals that lead to a movement is the:
a. premotor cortex.
b. prefrontal cortex.
c. supplementary motor cortex.
d. tabes dorsalis.

b. prefrontal cortex.

84

Cells in the prefrontal cortex, premotor cortex, and ____ prepare for a movement, sending messages to the primary motor cortex.
a. posterior parietal cortex
b. secondary motor cortex
c. somatosensory cortex
d. supplementary motor cortex

d. supplementary motor cortex

85

The supplementary motor cortex becomes active:
a. during the second or two after a movement.
b. during the second or two prior to a movement.
c. only during a movement.
d. only after a movement.

b. during the second or two prior to a movement.

86

A quick typist would rely heavily on the ____ cortex to organize smooth sequences of finger movements.
a. supplementary motor
b. premotor
c. prefrontal
d. occipital

a. supplementary motor

87

Damage to the ____ impairs the ability to organize smooth sequences of activities.
a. premotor cortex
b. prefrontal cortex
c. supplementary motor cortex
d. tabes dorsalis

c. supplementary motor cortex

88

Just thinking about the intention to put your arm around your attractive date would activate which of the following motor areas?
a. posterior parietal lobe
b. primary motor cortex
c. premotor cortex
d. supplementary motor cortex

d. supplementary motor cortex

89

Watching another person shoot a basketball is most likely to activate ____ neurons in the brain of the person who is watching.
a. primary motor cortex
b. spinal cord
c. mirror
d. observational

c. mirror

90

Mirror neurons are active when:
a. viewing mirror images.
b. watching others perform movements.
c. identifying ourselves in the mirror.
d. playing the piano.

b. watching others perform movements.

91

Children with ____ were found to have less activity in the brain areas believed to contain mirror neurons.
a. MS
b. polio
c. autism
d. ADHD

c. autism

92

The motor cortex produces a kind of activity called a(n) ____ before any voluntary movement.
a. readiness potential
b. action potential
c. evoked potential
d. motor potential

a. readiness potential

93

Studies on conscious decisions regarding voluntary movements suggest that:
a. we are conscious of our decision before brain activity is generated for movement.
b. voluntary movements are the result of free will.
c. brain activity for the movement begins before we are conscious of our decision.
d. we are unable to judge when we make conscious decisions.

c. brain activity for the movement begins before we are conscious of our decision.

94

People with damage to the parietal cortex appear to lack ____ related to voluntary movements.
a. feelings of intention
b. the ability to make conscious decisions
c. a sense of timing
d. muscle strength

a. feelings of intention

95

Paths from the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord are called the:
a. pyramidalspinal tracts.
b. horizontalspinal tracts.
c. dorsospinal tracts.
d. corticospinal tracts.

d. corticospinal tracts.

96

Axons of the lateral corticospinal tract extend to what area?
a. cerebellum
b. cerebral cortex
c. spinal cord
d. Thalamus

c. spinal cord

97

Most of the axons of the pyramidal tract go to which side of the body?
a. Contralateral
b. Ipsilateral
c. Bilateral
d. Ventrolateral

a. Contralateral

98

The lateral tract cross over point is in the:
a. pyramids of the medulla.
b. spinal cord.
c. reticular formation.
d. vestibular nucleus.

a. pyramids of the medulla.

99

Damage to one side of the lateral tract below the level of the medulla would most likely affect:
a. fine motor control on the opposite side of the body.
b. fine motor control on the same side of the body.
c. bilateral control of the neck, shoulders, and trunk.
d. rapid ballistic movements.

b. fine motor control on the same side of the body.

100

Lateral tract axons are responsible for movements in the:
a. arms, hands, and toes.
b. trunk.
c. face and head.
d. internal organs.

a. arms, hands, and toes.

101

Which behaviors would most likely be impaired by damage to the lateral tract?
a. Writing a check
b. Walking
c. Standing
d. Digesting food

a. Writing a check

102

The tract that includes many axons from the primary motor cortex, the reticular formation, and the vestibular nucleus is the:
a. pyramids of the medulla.
b. medial tract.
c. dorsolateral tract.
d. cerebellar tract.

b. medial tract.

103

Most of the axons of the medial tract go to which side of the body?
a. Contralateral
b. Ipsilateral
c. Bilateral
d. Dorsolateral

c. Bilateral

104

Movements near the midline of the body, such as bending and turning of the trunk, are controlled by which motor system?
a. Dorsolateral tract
b. Medial tract
c. Supplementary
d. Hippocampal

b. Medial tract

105

What is the relationship between the lateral tract and the medial tract?
a. Most movements are controlled by one or the other, but not both.
b. Most movements rely on both, which work in a cooperative fashion.
c. Most movements that are initiated by one are terminated by the other.
d. One is excitatory while the other is inhibitory.

b. Most movements rely on both, which work in a cooperative fashion.

106

If you have trouble with rapid, ballistic movement sequences that require accurate timing, you probably have suffered damage to the:
a. reticular formation.
b. cerebellum.
c. hippocampus.
d. hypothalamus.

b. cerebellum.

107

Speaking, piano playing, athletic skills, and other rapid movements would be most impaired by damage to which structure?
a. Reticular formation
b. Cerebellum
c. Ventromedial hypothalamus
d. Parasympathetic nervous system

b. Cerebellum

108

Damage to the cerebellum is most likely to interfere with:
a. lifting weights.
b. the ability to remember a series of events.
c. rapid movements that require timing.
d. chewing and swallowing.

c. rapid movements that require timing.

109

Patients with damage to the cerebellum are impaired at ____ movements, but relatively normal in making ____ movements.
a. continuous, rapid
b. imagining, continuous
c. rapid, imagining
d. imagining, rapid

b. imagining, continuous

110

What is the name of the rapid eye movement occurring when a person moves his or her eyes from one focus point to another?
a. gyration
b. sclerosis
c. slide
d. saccade

d. saccade

111

A saccade is initiated by impulses from the:
a. spinal cord.
b. hypothalamus.
c. cerebellum.
d. hippocampus.

c. cerebellum.

112

After damage to the cerebellar cortex, an individual has trouble with which part of the finger-to-nose test?
a. The initial rapid movement to the nose
b. The second step involving the hold function
c. The third step which involves the finger moving to the nose by a slow movement
d. Both the second and third steps

a. The initial rapid movement to the nose

113

The finger-to-nose test is a common way of testing for possible damage to what structure?
a. Spinal cord
b. Basal ganglia
c. Medulla
d. Cerebellum

d. Cerebellum

114

The nuclei of the cerebellum (as opposed to the cerebellar cortex) are most important in:
a. moving a finger rapidly toward a target.
b. holding a finger in a steady position.
c. using the hands to lift heavy weights.
d. coordinating the left hand with the right hand.

b. holding a finger in a steady position.

115

The symptoms of cerebellar damage resemble those of:
a. a heart attack.
b. Parkinson's disease.
c. intoxication.
d. mental illness.

c. intoxication.

116

A man who has suffered from damage to the cerebellar cortex is given the finger-to-nose test. He is most likely to have trouble with which part of the task?
a. Understanding the instructions
b. Controlling the initial, rapid movement
c. Holding his finger steady following the initial, rapid movement
d. Moving his finger to his nose following the brief hold function

b. Controlling the initial, rapid movement

117

The cerebellum is most important for any process that requires:
a. precise timing.
b. control of muscle strength.
c. comparison between the left and right hemispheres.
d. detecting the intensity of a stimulus.

a. precise timing.

118

In a study, functional MRI measured cerebellar activity. It was found that the cerebellum was quite active when individuals:
a. lifted objects.
b. remembered seeing faces.
c. made reflexive movements.
d. felt objects with both hands to decide whether they were the same.

d. felt objects with both hands to decide whether they were the same.

119

The cerebellum appears to be critical for:
a. motor behaviors only.
b. certain aspects of attention.
c. judging which tone is louder.
d. controlling the force of a movement.

b. certain aspects of attention.

120

Purkinje cells are:
a. proprioceptors.
b. flat cells in sequential planes.
c. nuclei in the central cerebellum.
d. axons parallel to one another.

b. flat cells in sequential planes.

121

How do parallel fibers in the cerebellum control the duration of a response?
a. By determining the number of Purkinje cells that fire in sequence
b. By altering the velocity of action potentials from Purkinje cells
c. By determining which one of all the available Purkinje cells becomes active
d. By passing information back and forth between one Purkinje cell and another

b. By altering the velocity of action potentials from Purkinje cells

122

Which widely branching cells are responsible for all of the output from the cerebellar cortex to the nuclei of the cerebellum?
a. parallel fibers
b. Purkinje cells
c. putamen cells
d. saccade cells

b. Purkinje cells

123

The greater the number of Purkinje cells activated, the:
a. less the collective duration of the response.
b. greater the collective duration of the response.
c. greater the strength of the response.
d. less the strength of the response.

b. greater the collective duration of the response.

124

The number of Purkinje cells activated determines the ____ of the resulting movement.
a. speed
b. power
c. duration
d. accuracy

c. duration

125

The structure composed of the caudate nucleus, putamen, and globus pallidus is the:
a. basal ganglia.
b. limbic system.
c. cerebellum.
d. sympathetic nervous system.

a. basal ganglia.

126

Most of the output from the globus pallidus to the thalamus releases:
a. glutamate.
b. ACh.
c. dopamine.
d. GABA

d. GABA

127

Which basal ganglia structure(s) is/are important for receiving input from sensory areas of the thalamus and the cerebral cortex?
a. globus pallidus and putamen
b. globus pallidus and caudate nucleus
c. caudate nucleus and putamen
d. globus pallidus

c. caudate nucleus and putamen

128

The basal ganglia work together to initiate movement by:
a. ceasing to inhibit movement.
b. inhibiting thalamic nuclei.
c. exciting cerebellar nuclei.
d. exciting spinal cord nuclei.

a. ceasing to inhibit movement.

129

Cerebellum is to ____ as basal ganglia are to ____.
a. clumsy; paralysis
b. initiation; stopping
c. gross muscle function; fine motor coordination
d. timing; voluntary movements

d. timing; voluntary movements

130

With experience, the motor skills required to drive a car become more automatic over time mostly because of changes in the:
a. cerebellum.
b. primary motor cortex.
c. basal ganglia.
d. spinal cord.

c. basal ganglia.

131

What is one of the main symptoms of Parkinson's disease?
a. Rapid fatigue of the muscles
b. Loss of saccadic eye movements
c. Difficulty initiating movements
d. Inability to coordinate speech with movements

c. Difficulty initiating movements

132

Most Parkinson's patients suffer depression:
a. only during the late stages of the disease.
b. as a reaction to the muscle failure they suffer.
c. as one of the symptoms of the disease.
d. if they are under 50 years of age when the disease strikes.

c. as one of the symptoms of the disease.

133

Parkinson's disease patients, who usually have trouble walking, can walk surprisingly well when they:
a. have their eyes closed.
b. walk backwards.
c. count their steps.
d. are following a parade.

d. are following a parade.

134

Which of the following is NOT common in people with Parkinson's disease?
a. Difficulty initiating voluntary movements
b. Slowness of movements
c. Rigidity and tremors
d. Outbursts of emotions

d. Outbursts of emotions

135

Parkinson's disease is caused by degeneration of a pathway of neurons that releases which neurotransmitter?
a. Acetylcholine
b. Substance P
c. Serotonin
d. Dopamine

d. Dopamine

136

The immediate cause of Parkinson's disease is the:
a. net increase in the excitatory output from the globus pallidus.
b. gradual, progressive death of neurons in the substantia nigra.
c. immediate, mass death of neurons releasing acetylcholine.
d. accumulation of amyloid-beta in neurons.

b. gradual, progressive death of neurons in the substantia nigra.

137

A loss of dopamine activity leads to ____ stimulation of the motor cortex and ____ onset of movements.
a. less; faster
b. more; faster
c. less; slower
d. more; slower

c. less; slower

138

Most research on Parkinson's disease has focused on which part of the brain?
a. Globus pallidus
b. Substantia nigra
c. Thalamus
d. Cortex

b. Substantia nigra

139

In Parkinson's disease, which pathway in the brain degenerates?
a. Basal ganglia to cerebellum
b. Substantia nigra to caudate nucleus and putamen
c. Cerebellum to spinal cord
d. Cerebral cortex to spinal cord

b. Substantia nigra to caudate nucleus and putamen

140

Many of the symptoms of Parkinson's disease apparently relate to:
a. an imbalance between activity in the left and right hemispheres.
b. a decrease in metabolic activity in the cerebellum.
c. loss of arousal in the cortex.
d. increased excitation of neurons in the substantia nigra.

c. loss of arousal in the cortex.

141

Symptoms of Parkinson's disease emerge only after the number of neurons in the substantia nigra decreases to what level?
a. To the point where there are no cells remaining
b. Less than 20% of the original total
c. Less than 50% of the original total
d. Less than 90% of the original total

b. Less than 20% of the original total

142

Having an identical twin with Parkinson's disease greatly increases the other twin's likelihood of also getting Parkinson's disease if the:
a. first twin had late-onset Parkinson's disease.
b. first twin had early-onset Parkinson's disease.
c. twins are male.
d. twins are female.

b. first twin had early-onset Parkinson's disease.

143

The role of heredity in late-onset Parkinson's disease:
a. equals that of early onset Parkinson's disease.
b. is probably not as great as with early onset Parkinson's disease.
c. is greater for DZ twins that MZ twins.
d. is greater for females than males.

b. is probably not as great as with early onset Parkinson's disease.

144

Although several genes have been found to be more common among people with Parkinson’s disease, these genes are:
a. more common in men than women.
b. more common in women than men.
c. small contributors to the incidence of late-onset Parkinson’s disease.
d. large contributors to the incidence of late-onset Parkinson’s disease.

c. small contributors to the incidence of late-onset Parkinson’s disease.

145

Genetic factors have their greatest impact on Parkinson’s disease in cases of:
a. early onset of the disease.
b. late onset of the disease.
c. first-born children.
d. children with older brothers and sisters.

a. early onset of the disease.

146

At least some cases of Parkinson's disease are apparently linked to what cause?
a. A recessive gene on chromosome 4
b. The accumulation of aluminum in the cerebral cortex and hypothalamus
c. A chronic lack of vitamin B-1
d. A toxic substance found in a heroin substitute

d. A toxic substance found in a heroin substitute

147

Although Parkinson's disease is usually limited to old people, it has occurred in a small number of young people that:
a. used a designer drug.
b. used cocaine.
c. lived near a nuclear power plant.
d. were on low-protein diets.

a. used a designer drug.

148

What is the effect of MPTP?
a. It kills the neurons that release dopamine.
b. It suppresses activity of the immune system.
c. It is converted in the brain to dopamine.
d. It inhibits the enzyme acetylcholinesterase.

a. It kills the neurons that release dopamine.

149

MPTP and some chemicals in herbicides:
a. can damage cells of the substantia nigra.
b. can cause Huntington's disease.
c. are illegal designer drugs.
d. are effective treatments for Parkinson's disease.

a. can damage cells of the substantia nigra.

150

It is believed that exposure to herbicides and pesticides is:
a. the primary cause of Parkinson's disease.
b. a contributing factor in some cases of Huntington's disease.
c. the primary cause of myasthenia gravis.
d. a contributing factor in some cases of Parkinson's disease.

d. a contributing factor in some cases of Parkinson's disease.

151

If Parkinson's disease were caused primarily by exposure to herbicides and pesticides, we should expect to find:
a. near epidemics in some geographical regions.
b. greater incidence in people under 50 than in older people.
c. greater incidence in women than in men.
d. greater incidence in left-handers than in right-handers.

a. near epidemics in some geographical regions.

152

Cigarette smoking and coffee drinking ____ the risk of Parkinson’s disease, and marijuana ____ the risk.
a. increase, increases
b. increase, decreases
c. decrease, decreases
d. decrease, increases

d. decrease, increases

153

One thing that many different causes of Parkinson’s disease share in common is that they:
a. are all curable.
b. cause damage to the mitochondria.
c. increase dopamine release.
d. occur more often in women than men.

b. cause damage to the mitochondria.

154

Cigarette smoking correlates with a decreased risk of:
a. Huntington’s disease.
b. sleep apnea.
c. Parkinson’s disease.
d. myasthenia gravis.

c. Parkinson’s disease.

155

What is the most common drug in the treatment for Parkinson's disease?
a. haloperidol
b. physostigmine
c. Dilantin
d. L-dopa

d. L-dopa

156

What characteristic of L-dopa makes it an effective treatment for Parkinson's disease?
a. L-dopa has a negative ionic charge.
b. L-dopa dissolves readily in water but poorly in fats.
c. L-dopa binds tightly to both glutamate and GABA synapses.
d. L-dopa can cross the blood-brain barrier.

d. L-dopa can cross the blood-brain barrier.

157

The reason why a dopamine pill is ineffective for treating Parkinson's disease is that:
a. there is already too much dopamine present.
b. dopamine does not cross the blood-brain barrier.
c. it would have to be the size of a baseball to be effective.
d. it is too expensive.

b. dopamine does not cross the blood-brain barrier.

158

Which of the following is a limitation of using L-dopa for Parkinson's disease?
a. It only helps those who are in the later stages.
b. It doesn't cross the blood-brain barrier.
c. It can contribute to a greater loss of dopamine neurons.
d. It blocks glutamate receptors.

c. It can contribute to a greater loss of dopamine neurons.

159

L-dopa is most effective:
a. in the early to intermediate stages of Parkinson's disease.
b. in the late stages of Parkinson's disease.
c. for females.
d. for either the very young or the very old.

a. in the early to intermediate stages of Parkinson's disease.

160

Which of the following is NOT a potential treatment for Parkinson's disease?
a. Drugs that directly stimulate dopamine receptors
b. MPTP
c. Neurotrophins
d. Antioxidant drugs

b. MPTP

161

L-Dopa, a common treatment for Parkinson's disease, is a drug that:
a. inhibits activity of the immune system.
b. increases the brain's production of dopamine.
c. blocks the enzyme acetylcholinesterase.
d. facilitates the passage of sodium across neuron membranes.

b. increases the brain's production of dopamine.

162

Of the following, which is considered LEAST promising as a treatment for Parkinson's disease?
a. high-frequency electrical stimulation of the globus pallidus
b. adrenal gland transplants
c. antioxidants
d. neurotrophins

b. adrenal gland transplants

163

Immature cells that are capable of developing into a variety of cells are known as:
a. stem cells.
b. neurotrophins.
c. L-dopa cells.
d. mitochondria.

a. stem cells.

164

Transplanting brain tissue into Parkinson's patients would most likely be successful if:
a. the patient is older.
b. they are female.
c. the brain tissue comes from rats.
d. the transplant was accompanied by neurotrophins.

d. the transplant was accompanied by neurotrophins.

165

As an option for treating Parkinson’s patients, transplantation of stem cells appears to be:
a. the most effective technique.
b. more effective in late stages of the disease.
c. modestly effective, as with other treatments.
d. not at all effective.

c. modestly effective, as with other treatments.

166

Early symptoms of Huntington's disease usually include:
a. paralysis.
b. jerky arm movements and body tremors.
c. rapid fatigue.
d. difficulty coordinating the left hand with the right hand.

b. jerky arm movements and body tremors.

167

What is especially limited in a patient with Huntington's disease?
a. The ability to learn and improve new movements
b. Controlling aim and duration of eye movements
c. Reflexes
d. Short-term memory

a. The ability to learn and improve new movements

168

What is a common symptom of Huntington's disease?
a. Rapid fatigue of the muscles
b. Loss of both sensation and motor control in certain limbs
c. Twitches, tremors, and writhing that interfere with voluntary movement
d. Impairment of saccadic eye movements and rapid alternating movements

c. Twitches, tremors, and writhing that interfere with voluntary movement

169

Which of the following is TRUE of Huntington's disease?
a. There is a loss of dopamine neurons in the substantia nigra.
b. The symptoms can be effectively treated.
c. The earlier the onset, the more rapid the deterioration.
d. It is caused by environmental toxins.

c. The earlier the onset, the more rapid the deterioration.

170

Which parts of the brain deteriorate most strongly in Huntington's disease?
a. Pathways of neurons containing the neurotransmitter dopamine
b. The cerebellum and medulla
c. The caudate nucleus, putamen, and globus pallidus
d. The hippocampus and amygdala

c. The caudate nucleus, putamen, and globus pallidus

171

The psychological disorders that accompany Huntington's disease could be mistaken for which of the following?
a. Schizophrenia
b. Dissociative identity disorder
c. Antisocial personality disorder
d. Bipolar disorder

a. Schizophrenia

172

What is the usual age of onset for Huntington's disease?
a. 5-7 years old
b. 12-20 years old
c. 30-50 years old
d. 65 years or older

c. 30-50 years old

173

Which of the following is NOT true of Huntington's disease?
a. It is controlled by a gene on chromosome
b. It is possible to predict with nearly 100% accuracy who will get the disease.
c. It is generally treated with L-dopa.
d. The average age of onset is around 40 years.

c. It is generally treated with L-dopa.

174

What is the relationship of genetics to Huntington's disease?
a. It is caused by a dominant gene on the X chromosome.
b. It is caused by a dominant gene on chromosome 4
c. It is caused by a recessive gene on one of the autosomal chromosomes.
d. There is no evidence linking Huntington's disease to any gene.

b. It is caused by a dominant gene on chromosome 4

175

Which of the following can be used as a presymptomatic test for Huntington's disease?
a. differences in blood flow between the left and right hemispheres
b. examination of chromosome 4
c. a blood test that measures the concentration of phenylalanine
d. tests of the P300 component of an evoked potential

b. examination of chromosome 4

176

In its normal form, part of the gene which controls Huntington's disease repeats its sequence of bases:
a. under ten times.
b. between approximately 11-24 times.
c. at least 36 times.
d. approximately 75 or 80 times.

b. between approximately 11-24 times.

177

The sequence of bases repeated more often in people with Huntington's disease is:
a. T-A-G.
b. C-A-G.
c. C-A-T.
d. H-U-N.

b. C-A-G.

178

The presymptomatic test for Huntington's disease enables one to predict not only who will get the disease but also:
a. the approximate age of onset.
b. what other diseases the person will get.
c. which drugs will best alleviate the disease.
d. which symptoms will become prominent first, and which ones later.

a. the approximate age of onset.

179

The gene for Huntington's disease codes for a protein called:
a. huntingtin.
b. chorea.
c. protein #4.
d. C-A-G.

a. huntingtin.

180

One effect of an abnormal form of the protein huntingtin on neurons is to:
a. increase dopamine release.
b. damage the nucleus.
c. block acetylcholine receptors.
d. prevent the release of BDNF.

d. prevent the release of BDNF.

181

Which of the following would be the most promising treatment for Huntington’s disease?
a. Enhancing formation of glutamine chains
b. Increasing production of huntingtin
c. Blocking formation of glutamine chain clustering
d. Decreasing production of BDNF

c. Blocking formation of glutamine chain clustering