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Flashcards in Chapter 9 Deck (194):
1

Psychologists in the early to mid part of the 20th century had difficulty with the notion that wake and sleep cycles were generated from within the body because:
a. there was no scientific evidence to support this notion.
b. all species operate on the same cycle.
c. at that time there were no recorded sleep disorders.
d. they accepted the theory that all behaviors were responses to stimuli.

d. they accepted the theory that all behaviors were responses to stimuli.

2

If a migratory bird is kept in a laboratory room with constant temperature and 12 hours of light each day, when does it show migratory restlessness?
a. steadily at all times
b. never
c. at approximately the correct time of year for migration
d. at random intervals throughout the year

c. at approximately the correct time of year for migration

3

If a migratory bird is kept in a laboratory without any cues to the season, it will become:
a. more active in the spring.
b. less active in the spring.
c. more active in the summer.
d. more active in the winter.

a. more active in the spring.

4

What does "endogenous" mean?
a. occurring at regular intervals
b. learned
c. sensitive to light/dark patterns
d. generated from within

d. generated from within

5

Animals produce endogenous circadian rhythms that:
a. last about an hour.
b. last about a day.
c. last about a week
d. last more then a day.

b. last about a day.

6

Circadian cycles are to ____ as circannual cycles are to ____.
a. light-dark; temperature
b. endogenous; exogenous
c. mating; hibernating
d. daily; yearly

d. daily; yearly

7

Which of the following is most clearly under the control of a circadian rhythm in most animals?
a. Sleep
b. storage of body fat
c. migration
d. Mating

a. Sleep

8

Suppose you fell into a cave and lost your watch. Without any time cues, your circadian rhythm would:
a. increase dramatically over time.
b. cease to exist.
c. decrease over time.
d. remain relatively stable.

d. remain relatively stable.

9

A human's body temperature over the course of 24 hours is usually highest:
a. about the time of awakening.
b. mid-morning.
c. mid to late afternoon.
d. in the middle of the night.

c. mid to late afternoon.

10

Which of the following is TRUE concerning the duration of a self-generated sleep/activity cycle?
a. It is unreliable in most species, and dependably close to 24 hours only in primates.
b. It is longer if the organism is normally active in the dark.
c. There is little or no variability from one individual to another.
d. It is highly consistent in a given individual in a given environment.

d. It is highly consistent in a given individual in a given environment.

11

Mammals have circadian rhythms:
a. only for their sleep/activity cycle.
b. only for frequency of eating and drinking.
c. for sleep and body temperature only.
d. for a variety of activities, including sleep.

d. for a variety of activities, including sleep.

12

Someone who considers herself a “morning person” should take college classes at what time of the day?
a. right after lunch
b. in the late evening
c. early morning
d. after sleep deprivation

c. early morning

13

Suppose you work on a submarine with only artificial light. You are required to follow a schedule of working for 12 hours and then sleeping for 6. What rhythm, if any, will your alertness and body temperature show?
a. They will follow a rhythm of 18 hours.
b. They will follow the usual rhythm of 24 hours.
c. They will follow a rhythm of 21 hours.
d. They will cease to show any consistent rhythm.

b. They will follow the usual rhythm of 24 hours.

14

Based on research, it has been determined that the human circadian rhythm appears to be:
a. shorter than 24 hours.
b. exactly 24 hours.
c. just over 24 hours.
d. closer to 28 hours.

c. just over 24 hours.

15

Which of the following people would be most alert when watching a late-night movie?
a. 40 year old
b. 20 year old
c. 16 month baby
d. a morning person

b. 20 year old

16

What happens if people are put in an environment that is constantly light?
a. It does not affect them in any way.
b. They complain that they cannot sleep.
c. They complain that they have difficulty waking up.
d. They follow a cycle closer to 28 hours than to 24 hours.

b. They complain that they cannot sleep.

17

Social stimuli – that is, the effects of other people – are weak ____, unless they induce exercise or other vigorous activity.
a. effects
b. motivators
c. rhythms
d. zeitgebers

d. zeitgebers

18

What happens if people are put in an environment that is constantly dark?
a. It does not affect them in any way.
b. They complain that they cannot sleep.
c. They complain that they have difficulty waking up.
d. They follow a cycle closer to 28 hours than to 24 hours.

c. They complain that they have difficulty waking up.

19

An astronaut orbiting earth experiences 45-minute periods of daylight alternating with 45-minutes of darkness. What is likely to happen?
a. The alternating patterns allow for normal rhythm development.
b. They are fully alert during wakeful periods.
c. They are able to sleep during rest periods.
d. They sleep poorly during rest periods.

d. They sleep poorly during rest periods.

20

A person's circadian activity cycle would most likely drift out of phase with the activity of other people if the person:
a. spends a period of time in the wilderness, away from clocks.
b. habitually eats a big meal just before bedtime.
c. spends a period of time in seclusion, away from sunlight.
d. lives near the equator, where the seasons do not vary.

c. spends a period of time in seclusion, away from sunlight.

21

A "zeitgeber" is a(n):
a. biological clock.
b. animal that does not have a biological clock.
c. environmental cue that resets a biological clock.
d. body activity that is controlled by a biological clock.

c. environmental cue that resets a biological clock.

22

A stimulus that resets the circadian rhythm is referred to by the German term:
a. lichtgeber.
b. zeitgeber.
c. zeitadian.
d. circazeit.

b. zeitgeber.

23

What is the principal zeitgeber for land animals?
a. Light
b. The tides
c. Temperature
d. Barometric pressure

a. Light

24

What happens if people live in an environment in which the cycle of light and dark is other than 24 hours?
a. Within a few days, they adjust to waking and sleeping on the new schedule, whatever it is.
b. They adjust better if the cycle is some multiple of 24 (e.g., 48).
c. They adjust better if the cycle is close to 24 (e.g., 25).
d. They fail to adjust at all.

c. They adjust better if the cycle is close to 24 (e.g., 25).

25

In the absence of any light, dark, or time cues, human circadian rhythms would:
a. become much shorter than 24 hours.
b. become slightly longer than 24 hours.
c. cease to exist.
d. make the person crazy.

b. become slightly longer than 24 hours.

26

When traveling across time zones, adjustments are easier when traveling which direction?
a. Travel to the east is easier.
b. Travel to the west is easier.
c. There is no difference.
d. It varies greatly from person to person.

b. Travel to the west is easier.

27

Which of the following would most likely help someone adjust to jet lag?
a. taking a nap during the day
b. taking melatonin when you need to wake up
c. keeping the room light when you need to stay awake
d. darkening the room when you need to stay awake

a. taking a nap during the day

28

A disruption of circadian rhythms due to crossing time zones is known as:
a. circashift.
b. phaselag.
c. jetlag.
d. zeitgeber.

c. jetlag.

29

Research on circadian rhythms has shown that one of the best ways to increase the alertness and efficiency of workers on night shifts is to:
a. expose them to bright lights while they work.
b. keep the environmental temperature constant from night to day.
c. have them eat a big meal before going to sleep.
d. allow them to catnap.

a. expose them to bright lights while they work.

30

When studying disruptions to the biological clock in animals, what did Curt Richter find?
a. Blinding animals strongly disrupted their clock.
b. Rendering animals deaf strongly disrupted their clock.
c. Long periods of forced activity strongly disrupted the clock.
d. The biological clock is insensitive to most forms of interference.

d. The biological clock is insensitive to most forms of interference.

31

What happens after damage to the suprachiasmatic nucleus itself?
a. Light no longer resets the biological clock, but the animal continues generating a 24-hour rhythm.
b. Animals' activity patterns become less consistent and no longer respond to light and dark cycles.
c. Animals lose their biological rhythms of temperature, but keep other circadian rhythms.
d. Animals begin to maintain a constant level of activity throughout the 24-hour day.

b. Animals' activity patterns become less consistent and no longer respond to light and dark cycles.

32

The surest way to disrupt the biological clock is to damage the:
a. substantia nigra.
b. caudate nucleus.
c. lateral hypothalamus.
d. suprachiasmatic nucleus.

d. suprachiasmatic nucleus.

33

A key area of the hypothalamus, particularly important in the regulation of the biological clock, is the:
a. substantia nigra.
b. caudate nucleus.
c. lateral hypothalamus.
d. suprachiasmatic nucleus.

d. suprachiasmatic nucleus.

34

The suprachiasmatic nucleus is found in the:
a. substantia nigra.
b. caudate nucleus.
c. thalamus.
d. hypothalamus.

d. hypothalamus.

35

After damage to the suprachiasmatic nucleus, the body:
a. cannot generate biological rhythms.
b. still has rhythms in synchrony with environmental patterns of light and dark.
c. still has rhythms, but they are less consistent.
d. still has rhythms, but they can only be reset by artificial light.

c. still has rhythms, but they are less consistent.

36

If suprachiasmatic nucleus neurons are disconnected from the rest of the brain, they:
a. no longer produce any activity.
b. continue to produce activity that follows a circadian rhythm.
c. produce a 20-hour rhythm.
d. produce spontaneous bursts of activity, but on no rhythmic pattern.

b. continue to produce activity that follows a circadian rhythm.

37

What is a strong piece of evidence that the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) generates the circadian rhythm?
a. Stimulation of the SCN awakens an individual.
b. SCN neurons generate a circadian rhythm of impulses even after removal from the brain.
c. Different groups of SCN neurons reach their peak of activity at different times of day.
d. Certain animals that are born without an SCN are inactive throughout the day.

b. SCN neurons generate a circadian rhythm of impulses even after removal from the brain.

38

What is the role of the suprachiasmatic nucleus in circadian rhythms?
a. Its neurons generate a 24-hour rhythm by themselves.
b. Its neurons can reset the biological clock, but they do not generate it.
c. It relays visual information to the biological clock.
d. It relays information from the biological clock to areas that control temperature and activity.

a. Its neurons generate a 24-hour rhythm by themselves.

39

The role of the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) in the regulation of biological rhythms is to:
a. coordinate several biological clocks.
b. feed visual information to the biological clock.
c. generate the circadian rhythm.
d. generate circannual rhythms.

c. generate the circadian rhythm.

40

When fetal hamster SCN tissue was transplanted, the adult recipients' biological clocks:
a. no longer functioned.
b. shifted by one hour.
c. began producing a rhythm consistent with that of the donor.
d. were unaffected by the donor SCN tissue.

c. began producing a rhythm consistent with that of the donor.

41

How is the circadian rhythm of adult hamsters affected after transplanting SCN tissue from hamster fetuses with abnormal (20 hour) circadian rhythms?
a. There is no change from their previous 24 hour cycle.
b. It depends on the age of the adult hamsters.
c. The adult hamsters adopted the rhythm of the transplanted tissue.
d. All indications of a cycle disappeared.

c. The adult hamsters adopted the rhythm of the transplanted tissue.

42

The SCN produces circadian rhythms by altering:
a. blood pressure.
b. production of proteins.
c. action potential velocity.
d. axon myelination.

b. production of proteins.

43

By altering ____, the SCN produces circadian rhythms.
a. blood pressure
b. action potential velocity
c. the production of proteins
d. axon myelination

c. the production of proteins

44

Researchers have demonstrated that the expression of the SCN genes can be changed through:
a. exposure of the eyes to light.
b. barometric pressure.
c. the diet.
d. morning exercise.

a. exposure of the eyes to light.

45

After isolating a neuron from the rest of the brain, you find that it has a moderately stable circadian rhythm. The most likely home of this neuron is in the:
a. optic nerve.
b. MPOA.
c. SCN.
d. pineal gland.

c. SCN.

46

The SCN is located just above the:
a. optic chiasm.
b. thalamus.
c. hypothalamus.
d. visual cortex.

a. optic chiasm.

47

A small branch of the optic nerve, known as the ____ extends directly from the retina to the SCN.
a. opticthalamic path
b. retinohypothalamic path
c. opticretinal path
d. retinothalamic path

b. retinohypothalamic path

48

The retinohypothalamic path to the SCN comes from a special population of retinal ganglion cells that have their own photopigment, called:
a. circaopsin.
b. photopsin
c. rodopsin.
d. melanopsin.

c. rodopsin.

49

The retinohypothalamic pathway receives input from the:
a. retinal ganglion cells that respond directly to light.
b. occipital cortex.
c. SCN.
d. LGN.

a. retinal ganglion cells that respond directly to light.

50

The circadian rhythm is reset by input from special ganglion cells in the retina. These ganglion cells are unusual in that they:
a. receive input from only cones, not rods.
b. are located only in a doughnut-shaped band surrounding the fovea.
c. respond directly to light, but respond very slowly.
d. become active only at night or in very dim light.

c. respond directly to light, but respond very slowly.

51

The input from the eyes to the suprachiasmatic nucleus, responsible for shifting the phase of the circadian rhythm, originates from:
a. cones only.
b. ganglion cells that are not connected to any cones or rods.
c. cones and rods equally.
d. rods only.

b. ganglion cells that are not connected to any cones or rods.

52

The retinohypothalamic path extends directly from the:
a. SCN to the hypothalamus.
b. retina to the SCN.
c. hypothalamus to the SCN.
d. retina to the cortex.

b. retina to the SCN.

53

Alternation of TIM protein levels by a pulse of light during the night will:
a. shorten the onset of sleep.
b. increase PER protein levels.
c. phase-advance the temperature cycle.
d. decrease sleepiness.

d. decrease sleepiness.

54

The proteins PER and TIM, originally discovered in insect but now found in mammals also, influence circadian rhythms by:
a. building up during the day and declining during sleep.
b. being transformed into melatonin.
c. stimulating and inhibiting (respectively) the release of acetylcholine in the cerebral cortex.
d. providing negative feedback from the muscles to the neurons that innervate them.

a. building up during the day and declining during sleep.

55

The PER and TIM proteins accumulate during the day until they cause sleepiness. What prevents them from continuing to accumulate at night?
a. Metabolic rates increase at night, so proteins are digested faster than they can be synthesized.
b. The high levels of melatonin present at night react with the proteins to disable them.
c. The proteins are unstable at the lower body temperatures that are typical at night.
d. When the proteins reach a high level, they turn off the genes that produce them.

d. When the proteins reach a high level, they turn off the genes that produce them.

56

When the PER and TIM levels increase, they feed back to inhibit the genes that produce the ____ molecules.
a. Tau
b. messenger RNA
c. Chronos
d. DNA

b. messenger RNA

57

When the PER and TIM levels are low, they result in:
a. narcolepsy.
b. insomnia.
c. sleepiness.
d. wakefulness.

d. wakefulness.

58

Alteration of the per gene in humans is associated with:
a. prolonged circadian rhythms.
b. shortened circadian rhythms.
c. absence of circadian rhythms.
d. narcolepsy.

b. shortened circadian rhythms.

59

People with a mutation in their per gene are more likely to:
a. wake up early.
b. go to bed late.
c. wake up late.
d. have high melatonin levels.

a. wake up early.

60

In one family that has a mutation in the gene responsible for their PER protein, behavior changed in what way?
a. They had REM sleep but no non-REM sleep.
b. They sometimes experienced several consecutive days of insomnia.
c. They liked to go to bed early and wake up early.
d. They suffered sudden attacks of sleepiness during the day.

c. They liked to go to bed early and wake up early.

61

When do the secretions of melatonin begin?
a. just before a person awakens
b. when body temperature is at its lowest
c. when body temperature is at its highest
d. a couple of hours before a person naturally falls asleep

d. a couple of hours before a person naturally falls asleep

62

If you wanted to go to sleep at 11 pm, the best time to take melatonin would be:
a. at the time you go to bed.
b. about 9 pm.
c. when you wake up that morning.
d. at lunchtime.

b. about 9 pm.

63

The pineal gland releases the ____ hormone, which influences both circadian and circannual rhythms.
a. androgen
b. melanopsin
c. melatonin
d. Estrogen

c. melatonin

64

Taking melatonin pills in the late evening:
a. phase-advances the biological clock.
b. phase-delays the biological clock.
c. increases sleepiness.
d. has no noticeable effects.

d. has no noticeable effects.

65

Why will taking a melatonin pill in the evening have little effect on sleepiness?
a. Body temperature is too low.
b. Body temperature is too high.
c. The pineal gland is only active in the morning.
d. The pineal gland produces melatonin at that time anyway.

d. The pineal gland produces melatonin at that time anyway.

66

If you take a melatonin pill in the early afternoon, you will:
a. become very active.
b. be wide awake in a very short period of time.
c. become sleepy within two hours.
d. not sleep well that night.

c. become sleepy within two hours.

67

What does an electroencephalograph measure?
a. action potentials in an individual neuron
b. the electrical resistance of the scalp
c. the rate of glucose uptake in active regions of the brain
d. the average of the electrical potentials of the cells in a given region of the brain

d. the average of the electrical potentials of the cells in a given region of the brain

68

What is the best way to objectively determine if someone is asleep?
a. Monitor breathing rates.
b. Measure muscle tension.
c. Monitor brain waves.
d. Use self-report measures.

c. Monitor brain waves.

69

An polysomnograph displays:
a. action potentials of individual neurons.
b. a combination of EEG and eye-movement records.
c. the rate of glucose uptake in active regions of the brain.
d. the electrical resistance of the scalp.

b. a combination of EEG and eye-movement records.

70

An electroencephalograph displays:
a. action potentials of individual neurons.
b. a net average of all the neurons' potentials.
c. the rate of glucose uptake in active regions of the brain.
d. the electrical resistance of the scalp.

b. a net average of all the neurons' potentials.

71

Alpha waves are characteristic of what type of activity?
a. NREM sleep
b. Nightmares
c. relaxed wakefulness
d. periods of great excitement

c. relaxed wakefulness

72

What do the EEG waves look like when brain activity is "desynchronized"?
a. long, slow waves of large amplitude
b. short, rapid waves of large amplitude
c. regular alternation between waves of large amplitude and waves of small amplitude
d. irregular waves with low amplitude

d. irregular waves with low amplitude

73

Sleep spindles and K-complexes are most characteristic of which sleep stage?
a. stage 1
b. stage 2
c. stage 3
d. stage 4

b. stage 2

74

Sleep spindles originate from:
a. PGO waves.
b. sudden stimuli.
c. SCN neurons.
d. interactions between the thalamus and cortex.

d. interactions between the thalamus and cortex.

75

A sharp high-amplitude negative wave followed by a smaller, slower, positive wave is called:
a. a sleep spindle.
b. a K-complex.
c. a slow-wave.
d. REM.

b. a K-complex.

76

Slow-wave sleep is comprised of:
a. alpha wave sleep.
b. stages 1 and 2.
c. stages 3 and 4.
d. REM sleep.

c. stages 3 and 4.

77

What is also known as slow-wave sleep?
a. alpha wave sleep
b. stages 1 and 2
c. stages 3 and 4
d. REM sleep

c. stages 3 and 4

78

How do sleep stages 3 and 4 differ?
a. body position
b. percentage of REM
c. percentage of serotonin that is released
d. percentage of slow, low amplitude waves

d. percentage of slow, low amplitude waves

79

With each succeeding stage of sleep (from 1 to 4):
a. breathing and heart rates increase.
b. brain activity increases.
c. slow, large-amplitude waves increase in number.
d. brain waves become smaller.

c. slow, large-amplitude waves increase in number.

80

EEG waves are larger when brain activity decreases because:
a. the EEG measures muscle tension, which also decreases.
b. neurons are becoming more synchronized.
c. neurons are becoming more desynchronized.
d. blood flow is increasing.

b. neurons are becoming more synchronized.

81

What is one of the contradictions in "paradoxical" sleep?
a. The frequency of the brain waves is low, while the amplitude is high.
b. The brain is very active, while many of the muscles are deeply relaxed.
c. Subcortical structures are very active, while the cerebral cortex is inactive.
d. Postural muscles are tense, while heart rate and breathing rate are very low.

b. The brain is very active, while many of the muscles are deeply relaxed.

82

What is paradoxical about paradoxical sleep?
a. It serves restorative functions, and yet the body has no apparent need for it.
b. It is light sleep in some ways and deep sleep in other ways.
c. It depends on serotonin for its onset and acetylcholine for its offset.
d. It is associated with dreaming although brain activity is low.

b. It is light sleep in some ways and deep sleep in other ways

83

What is synonymous with paradoxical sleep?
a. alpha waves
b. stages 1 and 2
c. stages 3 and 4
d. REM sleep

d. REM sleep

84

During REM sleep, the EEG shows:
a. regular, high-voltage slow waves.
b. irregular, high-voltage slow waves.
c. regular, low-voltage slow waves.
d. irregular, low-voltage fast waves.

d. irregular, low-voltage fast waves.

85

It is possible to determine a person's stage of sleep through which kinds of monitoring?
a. EEG and GSR
b. GSR and eye movements
c. EEG and eye movements
d. body position and carbon dioxide level in the blood

c. EEG and eye movements

86

Which of the following is NOT associated with REM sleep?
a. increased probability of dreaming
b. facial twitches
c. EEG pattern resembling wakefulness
d. tense and active postural muscles

d. tense and active postural muscles

87

REM sleep is characterized by which of the following?
a. tension and activity of the postural muscles
b. low and steady heart and breathing rates
c. a high level of brain activity
d. a highly synchronized EEG pattern

c. a high level of brain activity

88

Sometimes people find themselves unable to move their postural muscles immediately after awakening. Why?
A Blood pressure is too low.
B The motor nerves are inactive until body temperature reaches its normal level.
C An increase in light striking the eyes reflexively inhibits the motor neurons.
D Part of the brain is still asleep.

D Part of the brain is still asleep.

89

Facial twitches are most characteristic of which stage of sleep?
a. stage 2
b. stage 3
c. stage 4
d. REM

d. REM

90

After entering stage 4 for the first time each evening, the sleeper typically:
a. returns immediately to stage 1.
b. enters REM.
c. cycles back through stages 3 and 2.
d. wakes up.

c. cycles back through stages 3 and 2.

91

The EEG record for REM sleep is most similar to which other sleep stage?
a. stage 1
b. stage 2
c. stage 3
d. stage 4

a. stage 1

92

For a normal person, which part of a night's sleep contains the largest percentage of stage 4 sleep?
a. early in the night
b. the middle of the night
c. toward the end of the night
d. all parts equally

a. early in the night

93

For a normal person, about how long does a cycle of sleep (from stage 1 to stage 4 and back again) last?
a. 10 minutes
b. 90 minutes
c. 4 hours
d. 7 hours

b. 90 minutes

94

Compared to the earlier part, the later part of a night's sleep:
a. includes a larger percentage of REM sleep.
b. includes a lower percentage of REM sleep.
c. is characterized by declining body temperature.
d. has more slow wave sleep.

a. includes a larger percentage of REM sleep.

95

The relationship between sleep stage and dreaming is that dreams:
a. occur only in REM sleep.
b. occur only in NREM sleep.
c. are more frequent and more vivid in REM sleep.
d. are more frequent and more vivid in NREM sleep.

c. are more frequent and more vivid in REM sleep.

96

What is the best way to determine if an individual who claims to never dream does, in fact, have dreams?
a. Ask them about their dreams immediately after they wake up in the morning.
b. Wake them up during REM sleep and ask them if they have been dreaming.
c. Wake them up during NREM sleep and ask them if they have been dreaming.
d. Ask them under hypnosis if they have had any dreams recently.

b. Wake them up during REM sleep and ask them if they have been dreaming.

97

Typically, a person who falls asleep enters:
a. stage 4 and slowly progresses through the stages 3, 2, 1 and then REM.
b. REM and then slowly progresses from stage 4, to 3, then 2, and lastly 1.
c. stage 1 and slowly progresses through stages 2, 3 and 4, but not necessarily in order.
d. stage 1 and slowly progresses through stages 2, 3 and 4 in order.

d. stage 1 and slowly progresses through stages 2, 3 and 4 in order.

98

Which of the following occurs as a normal night's sleep progresses?
a. Stage 4 and REM both increase.
b. Stage 4 and REM both decrease.
c. Stage 4 increases, while REM decreases.
d. Stage 4 decreases, while REM increases.

d. Stage 4 decreases, while REM increases.

99

In comparison to NREM dreams, REM dreams:
a. are less likely to include striking visual imagery.
b. are more likely to include complicated plots.
c. do not contain violence.
d. are almost always less than five minutes.

b. are more likely to include complicated plots.

100

After a cut through the midbrain separates the forebrain and part of the midbrain from all the lower structures, an animal:
a. stops sleeping.
b. sleeps a normal amount per day, but lacks REM sleep.
c. enters a prolonged state of sleep.
d. alternates rapidly between sleep and wakefulness.

c. enters a prolonged state of sleep.

101

After cutting each of the individual tracts that enter the medulla and spinal cord, depriving the brain of almost all sensory input, an animal:
a. continues to have periods of wakefulness and sleep.
b. stops sleeping.
c. goes into a coma.
d. enters a prolonged state of sleep.

a. continues to have periods of wakefulness and sleep.

102

The ____ is a structure that extends from the medulla into the forebrain.
a. reticular formation
b. tectum
c. tegmentum
d. thalamus

a. reticular formation

103

What is the result of electrical stimulation to the reticular formation?
a. Sudden onset of sleep
b. Increased alertness
c. Coma
d. Hallucinations

b. Increased alertness

104

The role of the reticular formation in arousal is that it is:
a. the single, critical system in arousing the cortex.
b. only one of several systems involved in arousal.
c. activated only by external stimuli.
d. activated only by internal stimuli.

b. only one of several systems involved in arousal.

105

What is activated by the reticular formation?
a. the spinal cord
b. only those portions of the cerebral cortex involved in processing sensory information
c. only subcortical structures in the brain stem and midbrain
d. wide regions of the entire cerebral cortex

d. wide regions of the entire cerebral cortex

106

Stimulation of the pontomesencephalon:
a. awakens a sleeping individual.
b. decreases alertness in someone already awake.
c. shifts the EEG from short waves to long, slow waves.
d. delays the onset of the next REM period.

a. awakens a sleeping individual.

107

One part of the reticular formation that contributes to cortical arousal is known as the:
a. tectomesencephalon
b. pontomesencephalon
c. corticomesencephalon
d. rubromesencephalon

b. pontomesencephalon

108

With regard to sleep and arousal, the locus coeruleus is:
a. very active during sleep.
b. active when the pontomesencephalon is not.
c. almost completely inactive during sleep.
d. instrumental in waking us up.

c. almost completely inactive during sleep.

109

In response to meaningful events, the locus coeruleus releases:
a. norepinephrine.
b. acetylcholine.
c. dopamine.
d. serotonin.

a. norepinephrine.

110

Axons from the locus coeruleus release ____ widely throughout the cortex.
a. norepinephrine
b. acetylcholine
c. dopamine
d. serotonin

a. norepinephrine

111

Which of the following events would most likely activate the locus coeruleus?
a. taking a nap
b. daydreaming
c. walking
d. hearing a bear growl in the woods

d. hearing a bear growl in the woods

112

Orexin, produced by neurons in the hypothalamus, appears to be necessary for:
a. getting to sleep.
b. waking up.
c. raising body temperature.
d. staying awake.

d. staying awake.

113

Cells in the basal forebrain increase arousal and wakefulness by releasing:
a. norepinephrine.
b. acetylcholine.
c. dopamine.
d. serotonin.

b. acetylcholine.

114

A couple of paths from the hypothalamus release histamine, thereby:
a. increasing arousal.
b. initiating sleep.
c. shifting sleep from REM to NREM.
d. slowing the circadian rhythm.

a. increasing arousal.

115

Which of the following structures is NOT a brain structure of arousal and attention?
a. suprachiasmatic nucleus
b. reticular formation
c. locus coeruleus
d. raphe nuclei

a. suprachiasmatic nucleus

116

Some drugs used to treat allergies may produce drowsiness if they:
a. block histamine.
b. stimulate acetylcholine.
c. decrease adenosine.
d. block GABA.

a. block histamine.

117

During sleep, what happens in the brain?
A cessation of spontaneous activity in neurons
B increased firing by dopamine neurons
C decreased firing by dopamine neurons
D increased firing by GABA neurons

D increased firing by GABA neurons

118

During ____, cells in the pons send messages that inhibit the motor neurons that control the body’s large muscles.
a. wakefulness
b. REM sleep
c. NREM sleep
d. transition from wakefulness to sleep or sleep to wakefulness

b. REM sleep

119

Sometimes people find themselves unable to move their postural muscles immediately after awakening. Why?
A Blood pressure is too low.
B The motor nerves are inactive until body temperature reaches its normal level.
C An increase in light striking the eyes reflexively inhibits the motor neurons.
D Part of the brain is still asleep.

D Part of the brain is still asleep.

120

Research found that during REM sleep, activity:
a. decreased in the pons, while it increased in the limbic system.
b. increased in the pons, while it decreased in the limbic system.
c. decreased in both the pons and the limbic system.
d. increased in both the pons and the limbic system.

d. increased in both the pons and the limbic system.

121

During REM sleep, neuronal activity decreases in the:
a. entire brain.
b. pons.
c. limbic system.
d. primary visual cortex and the motor cortex.

d. primary visual cortex and the motor cortex.

122

PGO (waves) is an abbreviation for which of the following?
a. paradoxical gradual onset
b. psycho-galvanic oscillation
c. pons geniculate occipital
d. psychasthenia glyceric onomatopoeia

c. pons geniculate occipital

123

PGO waves are associated with which of the following?
a. NREM sleep
b. REM sleep
c. relaxation during wakefulness
d. being awakened from REM sleep

b. REM sleep

124

The onset of REM sleep begins with activity in the:
a. prefrontal cortex.
b. pons.
c. medulla.
d. cerebellum.

b. pons.

125

After a period of sleep deprivation, PGO waves begin to:
a. occur during sleep stages 2-4 and wakefulness.
b. decrease in intensity.
c. reverse their sequence of brain activity.
d. cause sleep paralysis during waking.

a. occur during sleep stages 2-4 and wakefulness.

126

REM sleep is associated with:
a. tension and activity of the postural muscles.
b. PGO waves in the brain.
c. a highly synchronized EEG pattern.
d. decreased heart rate.

b. PGO waves in the brain.

127

The sequence of the bursts of neural activity during REM sleep is:
a. lateral geniculate nucleus, pons, and occipital cortex.
b. occipital cortex, pons, and lateral geniculate nucleus.
c. pons, lateral geniculate nucleus, and occipital cortex.
d. pons, occipital lobe, and lateral geniculate nucleus.

c. pons, lateral geniculate nucleus, and occipital cortex.

128

The pons sends inhibitory messages to motor neurons of the spinal cord during which sleep stage(s)?
a. stage 1
b. stage 2
c. stages 3 and 4
d. REM sleep

d. REM sleep

129

During REM sleep, the pons sends inhibitory messages to the:
a. spinal cord.
b. occipital lobe.
c. vestibular system.
d. cerebral cortex.

a. spinal cord.

130

After damage to the floor of the pons, what happens during a cat's REM sleep?
a. The eyes move vertically instead of horizontally.
b. Heart rate becomes steadier.
c. Breathing rate decreases.
d. The cat’s muscles are not relaxed.

d. The cat’s muscles are not relaxed.

131

It appears from research with cats that one function of the messages from the pons to the spinal cord is to prevent us from:
a. dreaming.
b. sleeping too soundly.
c. acting out our dreams.
d. having difficulty falling asleep.

c. acting out our dreams.

132

A person who is taking an antidepressant that increases serotonin or norepinephrine levels in the brain is most likely to have:
a. interrupted or shortened REM sleep.
b. prolonged wakefulness.
c. prolonged NREM sleep.
d. enhanced dreaming.

a. interrupted or shortened REM sleep.

133

What is a defining criterion for insomnia?
a. a person who consistently feels sleepy during the day
b. consistently less than 6 hours of sleep per night
c. at least 50% less REM sleep than normal
d. more time spent in NREM sleep than in REM sleep

a. a person who consistently feels sleepy during the day

134

What is a likely consequence if someone's temperature rhythm is phase-delayed?
a. waking up frequently during the night
b. having problems going to sleep after losing your job
c. difficulty falling asleep
d. not breathing during the night

c. difficulty falling asleep

135

One disadvantage in using tranquilizers as sleeping pills it that they may:
a. cause narcolepsy.
b. decrease body temperature during the second half of the night.
c. cause sleeplessness on later nights.
d. prevent the brain from inhibiting movements during sleep.

c. cause sleeplessness on later nights.

136

Which of these is characteristic of sleep apnea?
a. involuntary movements of the arms and legs during sleep.
b. periods without breathing during sleeping.
c. tendency to fall asleep suddenly during the day.
d. sleep walking and sleep terrors.

b. periods without breathing during sleeping.

137

Aside from the problems with failing to breathe at times during the night, people with sleep apnea are also found to have:
a. enlarged hearts.
b. overactive bladders.
c. desynchronized temperature rhythms.
d. fewer neurons in certain brain areas.

d. fewer neurons in certain brain areas.

138

Similar to the effects of sleep apnea, rats that are repeatedly oxygen-deprived lose neurons throughout the cortex and hippocampus, causing impairments in:
a. learning and memory.
b. dreaming.
c. respiratory reflexes.
d. appetite.

a. learning and memory.

139

Which of the following physical conditions is related to apnea?
a. Puberty
b. Being female
c. Being obese
d. Having asthma

c. Being obese

140

The probability of sleep apnea is increased among which group of people?
a. College students during finals week
b. Those who are addicted to tranquilizers
c. Overweight men
d. People who work on swing shifts

c. Overweight men

141

Which kind of adults is most likely to suffer from sleep apnea?
a. Overweight men
b. Depressed women
c. Recent immigrants to a country
d. People who eat a high-protein diet

a. Overweight men

142

Which of the following has often been interpreted as an intrusion of REM sleep into wakefulness?
a. Narcolepsy
b. Sleep apnea
c. REM behavior disorder
d. Somnambulism

a. Narcolepsy

143

What is narcolepsy?
a. Sleepwalking
b. The inability to breathe while sleeping
c. Involuntary movements of the limbs while sleeping
d. Sudden periods of sleepiness during the day

d. Sudden periods of sleepiness during the day

144

Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of narcolepsy?
a. Attacks of sleepiness during the day
b. Attacks of muscle weakness during the day
c. Involuntary movements of the limbs during sleep
d. Dreamlike experiences that are hard to distinguish from reality

c. Involuntary movements of the limbs during sleep

145

What does cataplexy involve?
a. Dreamlike experiences that the person has trouble distinguishing from reality
b. An attack of muscle weakness while awake
c. A lack of inhibition of movement during REM sleep
d. Repeated involuntary movement of the legs or arms during sleep

b. An attack of muscle weakness while awake

146

What are the dreamlike experiences at the onset of sleep that are difficult to distinguish from reality?
a. Hypnagogic hallucinations
b. Idiopathic hallucinations
c. Occipital illusions
d. Pseudo-psychedelic visions

a. Hypnagogic hallucinations

147

One explanation for narcolepsy in humans is:
a. a loss of orexin-containing neurons in the hypothalamus.
b. a genetic loss of basal forebrain neurons.
c. swollen tonsils.
d. damage to the locus coeruleus.

a. a loss of orexin-containing neurons in the hypothalamus.

148

Mice that lack orexin have difficulty:
a. breathing at night.
b. maintaining wakefulness.
c. sleeping.
d. waking up.

b. maintaining wakefulness.

149

Loss of orexin-containing neurons in the hypothalamus may contribute to:
a. sleep apnea.
b. narcolepsy.
c. insomnia.
d. periodic limb movement disorder.

b. narcolepsy.

150

Huntington’s disease may also affect orexin-containing neurons in the hypothalamus, leading to symptoms similar to:
a. sleep apnea.
b. periodic limb movement disorder.
c. REM behavior disorder.
d. narcolepsy.

d. narcolepsy.

151

Drugs that are used to control narcolepsy also tend to produce what other effects?
a. uncontrollable hand tremors and facial tics
b. increased wakefulness
c. reduction of sympathetic arousal
d. relief from the symptoms of schizophrenia

b. increased wakefulness

152

Repeated involuntary movements of the arms and legs that may prevent a person from falling asleep are known as:
a. REM behavior disorder.
b. night terrors.
c. periodic limb movement disorder.
d. restless legs syndrome.

c. periodic limb movement disorder.

153

People with REM behavior disorder:
a. show intrusions of REM sleep into wakefulness.
b. show bizarre behaviors while awake due to REM deprivation at night.
c. enter REM sleep at unusual and unpredictable times.
d. move vigorously during REM, apparently acting out their dreams.

d. move vigorously during REM, apparently acting out their dreams.

154

People with REM sleep disorder most likely have:
a. damage in the pons and midbrain.
b. damage to areas of the brain that normally produce movements during REM.
c. restricted oxygen intake during sleep due to factors associated with obesity.
d. abnormally high levels of serotonin in the brain.

a. damage in the pons and midbrain.

155

REM behavior disorder occurs mostly in:
a. adults.
b. young adults.
c. children.
d. older people.

d. older people.

156

Night terrors are most common in ____ during ____.
a. adults; NREM sleep
b. adults; REM sleep
c. children; NREM sleep
d. children; REM sleep

d. children; REM sleep

157

Nightmares are to ____ as night terrors are to ____.
a. children; adults
b. REM; NREM
c. narcolepsy; cataplexy
d. dopamine; serotonin

b. REM; NREM

158

Night terrors can be distinguished from nightmares in that night terrors:
a. occur during REM sleep.
b. occur during NREM sleep.
c. are far more common in adults than children.
d. usually involve sleep talking.

b. occur during NREM sleep.

159

Which of the following is more common during REM sleep than during NREM sleep?
a. sleep talking
b. sleepwalking
c. nightmares
d. night terrors

c. nightmares

160

When does sleep walking occur?
a. only during REM sleep
b. only during NREM sleep
c. during both stage 3 and 4 sleep
d. during the brief transition period between REM sleep and non-REM sleep

c. during both stage 3 and 4 sleep

161

Which of the following is NOT true about sleepwalking?
a. It occurs mostly in children.
b. It is dangerous to awaken a sleepwalker.
c. It runs in families.
d. It occurs most often during stages 3 and 4.

b. It is dangerous to awaken a sleepwalker.

162

Which of the following is TRUE about sleepwalking?
a. It occurs mostly in adults.
b. It is most common early in the night.
c. It occurs during REM.
d. It is dangerous to awaken a sleepwalker.

b. It is most common early in the night.

163

Which of the following claims would be made by the evolutionary perspective of sleep?
a. The function of sleep is similar to that of hibernation.
b. More highly evolved species, such as humans, need more sleep than other species.
c. During sleep, we relive the experiences of past generations.
d. Sleep enables the body to repair and restore itself to promote survival.

a. The function of sleep is similar to that of hibernation.

164

According to the evolutionary perspective of sleep, the primary function of sleep is to:
a. conserve energy.
b. promote brain development.
c. restore body functions that were exhausted during wakefulness.
d. enable the person to re-experience, in dreams, the events of the past.

a. conserve energy.

165

Which of the following is NOT true regarding hibernation and sleep?
a. They conserve energy.
b. They increase body temperature.
c. They lower body temperature.
d. They increase during times of food shortages.

b. They increase body temperature.

166

Which of the following is NOT true about hibernation?
a. The longer an animal spends in hibernation, the shorter its life expectancy.
b. During hibernation, an animal's body temperature drops.
c. Pet hamsters sometimes hibernate.
d. An extract from the brain of a hibernating animal can cause another animal to lower its body temperature.


a. The longer an animal spends in hibernation, the shorter its life expectancy.

167

Which of the following shows a decreased need for sleep?
a. birds during migration
b. mammalian mothers during pregnancy
c. cats during the mating season
d. children when they are ill

a. birds during migration

168

A decrease in the amount of sleep most likely to affect the performance of migratory bird during:
a. migration season.
b. NREM sleep.
c. the daytime.
d. seasons other than migration.

d. seasons other than migration.

169

Migratory birds sleep less during the migratory season because they:
a. are too busy finding food.
b. decrease their need for sleep.
c. are worried about predators.
d. are too busy mating.

b. decrease their need for sleep.

170

Grazing animals that need to eat for many hours per day get less sleep than carnivores because:
a. they do not need as much sleep
b. carnivores can satisfy nutritional needs with a single mean.
c. they are not as active
d. they have different circadian rhythms

b. carnivores can satisfy nutritional needs with a single mean.

171

European swifts sleep:
a. after a meal.
b. only in their nest.
c. during flight.
d. only at night.

c. during flight.

172

How does prolonged sleep deprivation affect human volunteers?
a. It produces death.
b. It decreases later need for sleep.
c. Brain activity increases.
d. It impairs concentration.

d. It impairs concentration.

173

What effects are generally produced during prolonged sleep deprivation in laboratory animals?
a. continuous seizures
b. few noticeable adverse effects
c. similar effects to sleep deprivation studies with humans
d. more severe effects than in sleep deprivation studies with humans

d. more severe effects than in sleep deprivation studies with humans

174

One study found that a nap that included ____ sleep enhanced performance on certain kinds of creative problem solving.
a. stage 1
b. stage 2
c. stages 3 and 4
d. REM

d. REM

175

Which of the following would most likely have the highest total amount of REM sleep?
a. infant human
b. old horse
c. young cow
d. old bear

a. infant human

176

Young adults deprived of a night’s sleep show deficits on ____ tasks.
a. verbal
b. sensory
c. memory
d. motor

c. memory

177

Another aspect of sleep’s contribution to memory relates to:
a. delta waves
b. sleep spindles.
c. alpha waves.
d. PKO spikes.

b. sleep spindles.

178

For which species does REM sleep compose the largest percentage of total sleep?
a. species that get a great deal of sleep
b. species that sleep very little
c. humans, dolphins, and others with a large brain
d. the aged members of any species

a. species that get a great deal of sleep

179

Research suggests that REM is:
a. important for all types of memory.
b. most important for strengthening memories of motor skills.
c. most important for strengthening memories of lists of words.
d. not important for strengthening memories of any kind.

b. most important for strengthening memories of motor skills.

180

If we compare either different species or different ages, what trend emerges?
a. The less total sleep, the higher the percentage of REM sleep
b. The more total sleep, the higher the percentage of REM sleep
c. The more activity during wakefulness, the higher the percentage of REM sleep
d. The more activity during wakefulness, the lower the percentage of REM sleep

b. The more total sleep, the higher the percentage of REM sleep

181

If you were awakened every time you entered REM sleep for a few days, and then were permitted to sleep without interruptions, you would:
a. spend about 50 percent more time in REM sleep than usual.
b. get nothing but REM sleep the next night.
c. get little or no REM sleep for the next several nights.
d. spend about the same time in REM sleep as usual.

a. spend about 50 percent more time in REM sleep than usual.

182

Among adult humans, those who sleep ____ or more hours per night have the highest percentage of REM sleep.
a. 9
b. 5
c. 8
d. 10

a. 9

183

Compared to REM, research suggests that NREM is:
a. important for all types of memory.
b. important for strengthening memories of motor skills.
c. important for strengthening memories of lists of words.
d. not important for strengthening memories of any kind.

c. important for strengthening memories of lists of words.

184

Research suggests that ____ sleep is most important for strengthening memories of motor skills.
a. stage II
b. stage I
c. deep
d. REM

d. REM

185

REM sleep has been shown to:
a. inhibit sexual arousal.
b. interfere with new learning.
c. strengthen the formation of new motor skills.
d. strengthen memories for new facts.

c. strengthen the formation of new motor skills.

186

A recent hypothesis proposed that the role of REM is:
a. to shake the eyeballs back and forth in order to get sufficient oxygen to the corneas of the eyes.
b. to shake the eyeballs back and forth so the individual moves from REM to NREM.
c. no different than the role of NREM.
d. to bring to the surface the individual's unconscious wishes.

a. to shake the eyeballs back and forth in order to get sufficient oxygen to the corneas of the eyes.

187

Whereas most theorists have proposed that REM serves functions in memory and brain development, according to one newer hypothesis, the role of REM is merely to:
a. rest the muscles.
b. increase oxygen flow to the cornea.
c. keep the person from waking up.
d. synchronize activity between the left and right hemispheres.

b. increase oxygen flow to the cornea.

188

According to the activation-synthesis hypothesis, what do dreams reflect?
a. The brain's attempt to make sense of spontaneous neural activity
b. Unconscious motivations and emotions
c. Experiences that have been part of the species' evolutionary history
d. An imbalance among hormone levels

a. The brain's attempt to make sense of spontaneous neural activity

189

According to the activation-synthesis hypothesis, it should be possible to predict (with better than chance accuracy) the content of a person's dreams if we know what information about the person?
a. concentration of serotonin and acetylcholine in the cerebral cortex
b. number and type of emotional experiences during the day
c. stimuli currently acting on the body and areas of spontaneous brain activity
d. time the person went to sleep and the current time

c. stimuli currently acting on the body and areas of spontaneous brain activity

190

According to the activation-synthesis hypothesis of dreams, a dream represents the brain’s effort to:
a. thinking that takes place under unusual conditions
b. make sense of sparse and distorted information
c. predict the future
d. bring up past events

b. make sense of sparse and distorted information

191

Dreams begin with arousing stimuli, whether generated from the external or internal environment, according to which hypothesis/theory?
a. Freud's theory of dreams
b. the repair and restoration theory
c. a clinico-anatomical hypothesis
d. the evolutionary theory

c. a clinico-anatomical hypothesis

192

Which hypothesis/theory suggests that the primary motor cortex is suppressed so arousal during sleep cannot lead to action?
a. Freud's theory of dreams
b. the repair and restoration theory
c. a clinico-anatomical hypothesis
d. the evolutionary hypothesis

c. a clinico-anatomical hypothesis

193

Patients with damage to ____ report no dreams.
a. the upper part of the parietal cortex
b. the lower part of the parietal cortex
c. all layers of the occipital lobe
d. the nonvisual areas of the temporal lobe

b. the lower part of the parietal cortex

194

During dreaming, which of the following area or areas continue to be highly active?
a. the hypothalamus, amygdala, and other emotional areas
b. the primary motor cortex in the precentral gyrus
c. the areas of the prefrontal cortex that are key to working memory
d. the primary visual cortex and primary auditory cortex

a. the hypothalamus, amygdala, and other emotional areas