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Flashcards in Crim Law Deck (130):
1

1. What law gave birth to the Revised Penal Code and when did it took effect?

​​a. RA 3518 Jan 1, 1932​​
c. Act 3815 Jan 1, 1932
​​b. RA 3815 Jan 1, 1923​​
d. Act 3185 Jan 1, 1932

​c. Act 3815 Jan 1, 1932

2

2. Which of the following is not a source of Philippine Penal Laws?
​​a. Revised Penal Code​​​
c. Penal Presidential Decrees
​​b. Special Penal Laws
​​​d. Legislative Decrees

d. Legislative Decrees

3

3. One who while advance in age has a mental development comparable of that at​​​ child between 2 and 7 years old
​​a. imbecile
​​​​c. abnormal
​​b. insane​​​​
d. mentally retarded

​​a. imbecile

4

4. The principle that sovereign and head of states are exempted from criminal ​​​liability is covered by.
​​a. law of Foreign Affairs​​
b. Law of Preferred Head of States
​​c. Law of Preferential Applications​
d. Law of Preferential Treatment

​​c. Law of Preferential Applications​

5

5. A chronic nervous disease characterized by fits occurring at intervals and ​​​​attended by conclusive motion of muscles.
​​a. malaria​​​​
c. somnambulism
​​b. schizophrenia​​​
d. epilepsy

d. epilepsy

6

6. Phil. Penal Law is applicable within Phil. Territory to include.
​​a. its atmosphere ​​​​
c. its maritime
​​b. its interior waters​​​​
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

7

7. Members of the Royal Family in England are called.
​​a. Reverend​​​​​
c. Head of States
​​b. Royalties
​​​​​d. Diplomatic Corps

​​b. Royalties

8

8. What age is considered of total irresponsibility or without criminal liability?
​​a. 8
​​​​​​c. 18
​​b. 16​​​​​​
d. 21

a. 8

9

9. Obligation and securities of the Phil government refers to
​​a. Letter of Credit​​​​​
c. Government Bond
​​b. Foreign Investment​​​​
d. Foreign Currencies

c. Government Bond

10

10. Characteristics of criminal law wherein undertakes to punish all offenses ​​​​committed within Phil territory.
​​a. Letter of Credit​​​​​
c. Generality
​​b. Territoriality​​​​​
d. Totality

​​b. Territoriality

11

11. The condition sine-quanon or indispensable element in self defense.
​​a. Provocation​​​​​
c. reasonable necessity
​​b. unlawful aggression​​​​
d. irresistible force

​​b. unlawful aggression

12

12. Another word that means deceit?
​​a. Dolo
​​​​​​c. fault
​​b. Culpa​​​​​​
d. Negligence

​a. Dolo

13

13. Felonies punishable only when they are consummated.
​​a. consumable felonies
​​​​c. grave felonies
​​b. less grave felonies
​​​​d. light felonies

d. light felonies

14

14. Primary source of Phil. Penal laws?
​​a. Revised Penal Code​​​​
c. Penal Pres. Decrees
​​b. Special Penal Laws
​​​​d. Penal Batas Pambansa

​a. Revised Penal Code

15

15. If the offense is committed on board a Philippine ship traveling at the China ​​​Sea, what law will apply?
​​a. China Law
​​​​​c. International Law
​​b. Maritime Law
​​​​d. Philippine Law

​​​​​c. International Law

16

16. Rebellion, sedition and treason are crime against?
​​a. public order and safety​​​c. national security
​​b. public and government service
​​d. national government

c. National security

17

17. A policeman is considered as what kind of person?
​​a. public official​​​​
c. agents of person in authority
​​b. public authority​​​​
d. person in authority

c. agents of person in authority

18

18. Power of the state to define and punish crime.
​​a. police power​​​​
c. execution power ​
​​b. penal power​​​​
d. judicial power

​a. police power

19

19. The word “ culpa” means
​​a. lack of skill​​​​​
c. negligence
​​b. lack of foresight​​​​
d. all of the above

​d. all of the above

20

20. Which of the following is not place of worship?
​​a. chapel ​​​​​
c. mortuary
​​b. mosque
​​​​​d. church

c. mortuary

21

21. It is committed when a person who decided to commit a felony proposes its ​​​execution to another person.
​​a. inducement​ ​​​​
c. conspiracy
​​b. proposal ​​​​​​
d. instigation

​​b. proposal

22

22. It is incurred by a person committing a felony although the wrongful act done ​​​be different from what he intended to do.
​​a. felonious act​​​​
c. criminal liability
​​b. offense
​​​​​d. civil liability

​c. criminal liability

23

23. The simpliest meaning of the term evident premeditation
​​a. deliberate intent​ ​​​​
c. treachery
​​b. deliberate planning​​​​
d. uninhabited place

​a. deliberate intent

24

24. Stage in the commission of a felony when all the elements necessary for its ​​​accomplishment and execution are present.
​​a. attempted
​​​​​c. consummated
​​b. frustrated
​​​​​d. enumerated

​​​​​c. consummated

25

25. Circumstance that could be either mitigating or aggravating.
​​a. exempting​​​​​
c. alternative
​​b. mitigating​​​​​
d. aggravating

c. alternative

26

26. Medical term for homicidal tendency.
​​a. somnabulism
​​​​c. epilepsy
​​b. dementia praecox​​​
d. kleptomania

​​b. dementia praecox​​​

27

27. Select the persons not exempted from criminal liability
​​a. charges-de-affairs​​​
c. consul
​​b. ministers​​​​​
d. none of them

c. consul

28

28. The criminal acts punished by the Revised Penal Code
​​a. felonies
​​​​​c. offenses
​​b. crimes
​​​​​d. misdemeanor

​a. felonies

29

29. In what offense is ignominy appreciated?
​​a. Parricide
​​​​​c. Abduction
​​b. Rape​​​​​
d. Seduction

​​b. Rape

30

30. Infractions of law, the commission of which carries the penalty of Arresto Menor
​​a. felony​​​​​
c. less grave felony
​​b. grave felony
​​​​d. light felony

​d. light felony

31

31. What is the first written criminal laws in the Philippines?
​​a. Code of Hamurabbi​​​
c. Codigo Penal
​​b. Code of Kalantiaw​​​
d. Code of Maragtas

​​b. Code of Kalantiaw

32

32. A building or structure exclusively used for rest and comfort
​​a. hotel
​​​​​c. dwelling
​​b. apartelle
​​​​​d. hostel

​​​​​c. dwelling

33

33. It exists when two or more person comes to an agreement to commit a felony ​and decided to do it.
​​a. proposal​​​​​
c. confederation
​​b. conspiracy
​​​​​d. insurrection

​​b. conspiracy

34

34. A swift attack on a military camp by elements of the PNP or AFP.
​​a. sedition​​​​​
c. coup-de-etat
​ ​b. rebellion​​​​​
d. insurrection

c. coup-de-etat

35

35. Committed by a married woman who shall have sexual intercourse with another ​​​man not her husband.
​​a. bigamy
​​​​​c. concubinage
​​b. infidelity​​​​​
d. adultery

d. adultery

36

36. Offense covered by Phil Penal Laws even if committed outside the Phil.
​​a. Treason​​​​​
c. Piracy
​​b. Skyjacking
​​​​​d. all of these

​​​​​d. all of these

37

37. Legal term for Treachery?
​​a. nocturnity​​​​​
c. solitude
​​b. alevosia​​​​​
d. planning

​​b. alevosia

38

38. What is the legal term for nighttime?
​​a. sanctuary​​​​​
c. absurdity
​​b. ephitomy
​​​​​d. nocturnity

​​​​​d. nocturnity

39

39. A person who forces or induces another to perform the criminal act is referred ​​​to as
​​a. mastermind​​​​​
c. seducer
​​b. accomplice​​​​​
d. principal

d. principal

40

40. The employment of means of execution that gave the person attacked no ​​​opportunity to defend himself or retaliate.
​​a. ignominy
​​​​​c. treachery
​​b. superior strength ​​​​
d. cruelty

​​​​​c. treachery

41

41. It is a legislative enactment that inflicts punishment for a crime without judicial trial.
​A. Ex post facto law
C. Enrolled bill
B. Bill of attainder​​
D. Expose facto law ​

B. Bill of attainder

42

42. These are the rights of an accused that are derived from special laws enacted by Congress.
A. Constitutional rights​
C. Civil rights​
B. Statutory rights
D. Natural rights ​​

B. Statutory rights

43

43. These are agreements between independent states entered into by their authorized representatives and ratified by their legislature in accordance with their respective laws.
A. Executive agreements​
B. Treaties
​C. Treatises​
D. Memoranda

B. Treaties

44

44. The following are exceptions to the general application of criminal laws, except:
A. laws of preferential application​
C. principles of international law​ ​​
B. treatise​​​
D. treaty stipulations

B. treatise

45

45. The following are exempt from the operation of our criminal laws, except:
A. ambassadors​​
C. minister plenipotentiary
B. consul general​​
D. minister resident

B. consul general

46

46. The following felonies do not admit of a frustrated stage, except:
A. rape​​
B. physical injuries
​C. adultery​
D. theft

A. rape

47

47. The following are the classifications of felonies according to gravity, except:
A. grave felonies​​
C. less grave felonies​
B. light felonies​​
D. slight felonies​.

D. slight felonies

48

48. These are acts or omissions not expressly punished by a penal law but are nevertheless considered and punished as crimes.
A. Common crimes​​
C. Common law crimes
B. Common crimes law
D. Commonly crimes​​

C. Common law crimes

49

49. This branch of government has the power to define and punish crimes.
A. executive branch ​​
C. judicial branch
B. legislative branch
​​​D. none of the above

C. judicial branch

50

50. It is a law that partially or totally modifies or changes an existing law.
A. Repealed law​​
C. Repelled law​
B. Repealing law​​
D. Repelling law​

B. Repealing law​​

51

51. It is one of the basic characteristics of criminal laws.
A. Perspective
​​​C. Proactive
B. Prospective​​​
D. Retroactive​

B. Prospective

52

52. It is a characteristic of criminal laws that requires that they be applied to all persons who live or sojourn in the Philippine territory.
A. Generality​​​
C. Territorially​
B. Territoriality​​​
D. Generally​

A. Generality

53

53. A proposal to commit the following felonies is punishable, except:
A. treason
​B. rebellion​
C. insurrection
D. sedition

D. sedition

54

54. The evil intent in impossible crime cannot be accomplished because of the following reasons, except:
​A. inherent impossibility ​ ​
C. employment of inadequate means
​B. employment of ineffectual means
D. none of the above

D. none of the above

55

55. It is a crime in which the accomplishment of the evil intent was by reason of cause or accident other than the offender’s spontaneous desistance.
A. Attempted felony
​​​C. Impossible crime​
B. Frustrated felony​​
D. Indeterminate offense​

A. Attempted felony

56

56. It is a crime in which the specific or particular criminal intent of the offender cannot be determined such that he/she will only be charged with the crime that his/her acts constituted at the time he/she was stopped while committing an unlawful act:
A. Attempted felony​
C. Impossible crime​
B. Frustrated felony​​
D. Indeterminate offense​

D. Indeterminate offense

57

57. The following are light felonies punishable by the Revised Penal Code, except:
A. maltreatment​
C. malicious mischief
B. alteration of boundary
​D. intriguing against honor

A. maltreatment

58

58. It is the rule followed by the Philippines whenever a crime is committed inside a Philippine ship or airship while in a foreign territory.
A. French Rule
​B. Spanish Rule
C. English Rule
D. General Rule

C. English Rule

59

59. The offender performs all acts of execution, that would produce the felony as a consequence, but the felony was not produced, by reason of causes independent of the will of the perpetrator are the requisites of:
A. attempted felony​
C. consummated felony
​​​B. frustrated felony​​
D. impossible crime​.

​​​B. frustrated felony​​

60

60. When there is doubt as to the identity of the assailant, if evidence is merely circumstantial, and when there are no eyewitnesses to a crime are some of the instances when it becomes useful and necessary to show evidence of:
A. intent
B. motive
C. conspiracy
D. proposal

B. motive

61

61. The following are the forms of civil liability or civil indemnity that a person convicted of a crime pays to the victim, EXCEPT:
A. reparation
​​​C. indemnification​
B. restitution​​​​
D. commutation

D. commutation

62

62. The following are accessory penalties, EXCEPT:
A. fine ​​
C. temporary absolute disqualification
B. suspension
​D. perpetual special disqualification​

A. fine

63

63. The following are the kinds of penalties according to their gravity, EXCEPT:
A. capital punishment ​
C. correctional penalties
B. light penalties​​r
D. afflictive penalties ​

A. capital punishment

64

64. The following are principal penalties, EXCEPT:
A. death​​​​
C. fine
B. bond to keep peace​​
D. suspension ​

B. bond to keep peace​​

65

65. The following relatives of an offender are exempt from criminal liability as accessories, EXCEPT:

A. spouse ​
B. mother
C. son​
D. brother ​
E. none of the above.

E. none of the above

66

66. The person, who is authorized by law to give pardon after an accused is convicted by final judgment of a felony, is:
A. President of the Philippines
​C. Offended party
B. Director of Prisons
​​D. Offender ​​​

​A. President of the Philippines

67

67. The following are instances when criminal liability of an accused or convicted person are totally extinguished, except:
A. Amnesty ​​​​
C. Absolute Pardon ​
B. Probation ​​​​
D. Death of convict/accused

B. Probation

68

68. The following are instances when criminal liability of an accused or convicted person are partially extinguished, except:
A. Parole ​​​
C. Commutation of sentence​
B. Conditional Pardon
​D. Allowance for good conduct

B. Conditional Pardon

69

​69. Fine is an afflictive penalty if the amount thereof is:
A. more than P6,000
​C. P200 to P6,000​​ ​B. more than 12,000​
D. P200 to 12,000​​

A. more than P6,000

70

70. The person, who is authorized by law to give allowance for good conduct to a convict serving sentence, is:
A. President of the Philippines​
C. Trial Court Judge
B. Director of Prisons ​​
D. Jail Warden​

D. Jail Warden​
​​

71

71. The person, who is authorized by law to grant probation to an accused convicted of a crime, is:
​A. President of the Philippines​
C. Trial Court Judge
B. Director of Prisons
​​D. Jail Warden​

​C. Trial Court Judge

72

72. Fine is a correctional penalty if the amount thereof is:
A. more than P6,000​
C. P200 to P6,000
​​​​B. more than 12,000​
D. P200 to 12,000​

C. P200 to P6,000

73

73. The following are instances when death penalty cannot be imposed, except:
A. accused is 71 years old​
C. accused is a minor
B. accused is 70 years old
​D. accused is pregnant​

B. accused is 70 years old

74

74. A crime punishable by reclusion temporal prescribes in:
A. 20 years ​
B. 15 years​
C. 10 years
​D. 5 years

A. 20 years

75

75. A crime punishable by arresto mayor prescribes in:
A. 20 years ​
B. 15 years
​C. 10 years​
D. 5 years

​D. 5 years

76

76. A crime punishable by correctional penalty prescribes in:
​A. 20 years ​
B. 15 years​
C. 10 years​
D. 5 years

C. 10 years

77

77 The penalty of reclusion temporal prescribes in:
​A. 20 years ​
B. 15 years​
C. 10 years​
D. 5 years

B. 15 years

78

78. A correctional penalty prescribes in:
​A. 20 years ​
B. 15 years​
C. 10 years
​D. 5 years

10 years

79

79. A light penalty prescribes in:
A. 10 years ​
B. 5 years​
C. 1 year​
D. 6 months ​

C. 1 year

80

80. A light offense prescribes in:
A. 10 years ​
B. 5 years
​C. 1 year​
D. 6 months

​C. 1 year

81

81. The following are crimes against chastity, EXCEPT:
A. adultery
​​​​C. rape ​
B. concubinage
​​​D. seduction​​

​​​​C. rape

82

82. The following are crimes committed by public officers , EXCEPT:
A. direct bribery​​​
C. illegal use of public funds
B. indirect bribery​​​
D. none of these​

D. none of these

83

83. The following are crimes against property, EXCEPT:
A. robbery
​​​​C. malicious mischief
B. arson​​​​
D. estafa

D. estafa

84

84. The following are principal penalties, EXCEPT:
A. death​​​​
C. fine
B. bond to keep peace
​​D. suspension

B. bond to keep peace

85

85. The following relatives of an offended party are exempt from criminal liability in theft, estafa, and malicious mischief, EXCEPT:
A. spouse ​
B. mother
C. son
​D. grandfather ​

​D. grandfather

86

86. It refers to the improper performance of some act which might lawfully be done.
A. Nonfeasance ​​
C. Malfeasance
B. Misfeasance​​
D. Unfeasance​

B. Misfeasance

87

87. It refers to the failure to perform an act that is required to be done.
​A. Nonfeasance ​​
C. Malfeasance
B. Misfeasance​​
D. Unfeasance​

​A. Nonfeasance

88

88. It refers to the performance of an act that ought not to be done.
​A. Nonfeasance ​​​
C. Malfeasance
B. Misfeasance​​​
D. Unfeasance​

C. Malfeasance

89

89. Fine is an afflictive penalty if the amount thereof is:
A. more than P6,000
C. P200 to P6,000​​​​​
B. more than 12,000​​
D. P200 to 12,000

A. more than P6,000

90

90. It refers to the final determination by a Court of competent jurisdiction of the issues submitted to in a case such that after it is issued, the case ends if the losing party does not appeal.
A. interlocutory order​​
B. summons ​​
C. subpoena
​​​​D. judgment

​D. judgment

91

91. It refers to a resolution of the Court on collateral or incidental matters while a case is being heard; it is not a final determination of the main issue in the case.
​A. interlocutory order​​
B. summons ​​
C. subpoena
D. judgment

A. interlocutory order

92

92. It is the felony committed by a public officer, who is maliciously fails to prosecute an offense.
A. prevaricacion​
​C. prevericacion​​​​​​
B. prevaricacion
​​D. postvaricacion

A. prevaricacion

93

93. It is also known as “crime of the giver” when a private person gives money to a public officer so that he will do something favorable to the giver
A. direct bribery ​​
C. corruption of a public official
B. indirect bribery​​
D. accused is pregnant​

​C. corruption of a public official

94

94, It is also known as “crime of the receiver” when a private person gives money to a public officer so that he will do something favorable to the giver and the public officer accepts it.
A. direct bribery
​​C. corruption of a public official
​​B. indirect bribery​​
D. qualified bribery​​

A. direct bribery

95

95. It is a crime of giving a public officer money or any gift in consideration of his position or office.
A. direct bribery ​​
C. corruption of public official ​
B. indirect bribery​​
D. qualified bribery ​

B. indirect bribery​​

96

96, It is the special law that punishes plunder.
​A. R.A. No. 7080 ​​​
C. R.A. No. 3019
B. R.A. No. 7610​​​
D. R.A. No. 1379

​A. R.A. No. 7080

97

97. It is the crime committed when a public officer uses public funds for his own personal benefit or for the benefit of another person.
​​A. illegal use of public funds​
C. plunder​​​​​​​
B. malversation of public funds
​D. none of the above

​B. malversation of public funds

98

98. It is the crime committed when a public officer uses public funds for another public use other than the purpose for which the fund is intended.
​​A. illegal use of public funds
​C. plunder​​​​​ ​​
B. malversation of public funds
​D. none of the above

​A. illegal use of public funds

99

99. It is a crime committed when a married woman is taken away against her will with lewd design.
A. forcible abduction
​​C. forcible seduction​​
B. consented abduction​​
D. qualified seduction​

A. forcible abduction

100

100. It is the felony committed when a person takes away a minor, over 12 but under years of age, with her consent, after solicitation or cajolery from the offender, committed with lewd design.
A. forcible abduction ​​
C. forcible seduction​​
​​B. consented abduction​​
D. qualified seduction​

B. consented abduction

101

121. Commonly used for evidence excluded by the Constitution. A judicially created remedy which provides that evidence obtained in violation of the accused constitutional rights must be suppressed from the government’s case in chief.
​a. Search warrant ​​​
c. Exclusionary Rules ​​​​
b. doctrine of fruit of poisonous tree​d. d. Substantial evidence

c. Exclusionary Rules

102

122. Is an order in writing issued in the name of the people of the Philippines, signed by a judge directing a law enforcement officer to locate for personal property described therein and bring it before the court.
​a. Warrant of Arrest
​​​c. Search warrant ​​​​​​
b. Subpoena​​​​
d. Exclusionary rules

c. Search warrant

103

123. Also known as “but for” or taint doctrine.
​a. Exclusionary Rules
​c. Doctrine of fruit of poisonous tree ​​​
b. Search Warrant
​​d. Warrant of Arrest

c. Doctrine of fruit of poisonous tree

104

124. ______is more than a mere scintilla. It means such relevant evidence as a reasonable mind might accept as adequate to support a conclusion.
​a. Circumstantial evidence​
c. Substantial evidence ​ ​​​​
b. Preponderance of evidence​
d. Corpus delicti

c. Substantial evidence

105

125. Is the proof of facts from which, taken collectively, the existence of the particular fact in dispute may be inferred as a necessary or probable consequence.
​a. Substantial evidence ​​
c. Circumstantial evidence​ ​​​​
b. Preponderance evidence​
d. Corpus delicti

c. Circumstantial evidence​

106

126. Are admissions, made out of court, or in a judicial proceeding other than the one under consideration.
​a. Extra-Judicial Admission ​
c. Admission ​​​​​​
b. Judicial Admission
d. Confession

​a. Extra-Judicial Admission

107

127. Is a voluntary acknowledgment in express terms or by implication, by a party interest or by another by whose statement he is legally bound, against his interest, of the existence or truth of a fact in dispute material to issue.
​a. Admission ​​
c. Extra-Judicial Admission​
​​​​b. Judicial Admission​
d. Confession

b. Judicial Admission

108

128. Is the declaration of an accused acknowledging his guilt of the offense charged, or of any offense necessarily included therein, may be given in evidence against him.
​a. Confession ​​​
c. Admission ​​​​​​​
b. Extra-Judicial Confession​
d. Extra-judicial Admission

​a. Confession

109

129.____ is the document whose contents are to be proved.
​a. Original of a document ​​
c. Best Evidence
​​​​​b. Documentary evidence
​​d. Secondary evidence

​a. Original of a document

110

130. That which consists of writings or any material containing letters, words, numbers, figures, symbols or other modes of written expressions offered as proof of their contents.
​a. Documentary evidence ​
c. Original of a document ​
​​​​b. Best evidence
​​d. Secondary evidence

​a. Documentary evidence

111

131. Rule which requires the highest grade of evidence obtainable to prove a disputed fact is the original of a document.
​a. Parole Evidence Rule
c. Original of a document​​​​​
b. Best Evidence Rule​
d. Secondary Evidence

b. Best Evidence Rule

112

132. Is that which shows that better, or primary evidence exists as to the proof of a fact in question.
​a. Parole evidence ​​​
c. Original of a document ​​​​​
b. Secondary evidence​​
d. Best evidence rule

​b. Secondary evidence

113

133. Is a rule which forbids any addition to or contradiction of the terms of a written instrument by testimony purporting to show that, at or, before the signing, of the document, other or different terms were orally agreed upon by the parties.
​a. Best Evidence Rule
​c. Original of a Document ​​​​​
b. Parole Evidence Rule​
d. Secondary evidence

b. Parole Evidence Rule

114

134. ____is meant the legal fitness or ability of a witness to be heard on the trial of a cause.
​a. Qualification of a witness​
c. Marital Disqualification
​​​​b. Competency of witness​
d. Dead Man’s Statute Rule

​b. Competency of witness

115

135. A rule which forbids husband and wife, during their marriage, from testifying for or against the other without the consent of the affected spouses except in some circumstances.
​a. Disqualification of witness​​
c. Dead Man’s Statute Rule
​​b. Marital Disqualification​​
d. Privilege Communication rule

​​b. Marital Disqualification

116

136. Parties or assignors of parties to a case, or persons in whose behalf a case is prosecuted, against an executor or administrator or other representative of a deceased person, or against a person of unsound mind, upon a claim or demand against the estate of such deceased person or against such person of unsound mind, cannot testify as to any matter of fact accruing before the death of such deceased person or before such person became of unsound mind.
​a. Marital Disqualification
​​c. Parental and filial privilege​​​​
b. Privilege Communication Rule
​d. Dead Man’s Statute Rule​

d. Dead Man’s Statute Rule

117

137. Rule which provides that a communication made in good faith on any subject matter in which the communicator has an interest, or concerning which he has a duty, is privileged if made to a person having a corresponding interest or duty, although it contains incriminatory matter which, without the privilege, would be libelous and actionable.

​a. Parental and filial privilege rule
​c. Marital Disqualification
​​​​b. Dead Man’s Statute Rule​
d. Privilege Communication Rule

d. Privilege Communication Rule

118

138. Is an agreement made between two or more parties as a settlement of matters in dispute.

​a. Conspiracy​
c. Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
​​​​​b. Settlement​​
d. Compromise

​d. Compromise

119

139. Provides that the right of a party cannot be prejudiced by an act, declaration, or omission of another unless it falls under the exceptional circumstances.
​a. Privies ​​​
c. Compromise​​​​​​
b. Conspiracy
​​d. Res Inter Alios Acta Rule

​d. Res Inter Alios Acta Rule

120

140. Requisite before recall of a witness.

​a. Leading Question
​c. Impeachment ​​​​​​
b. Misleading Question​
d. Leave of Court

​d. Leave of Court

121

141. Jurisdiction of courts is conferred by the –

a. Rules of Court,
b. Constitution and the Law,
c. parties of the case,
d. the Revised Penal Code.

a. Rules of Court

122

142. Penalty for the offense charged also determines jurisdiction –

a. wholly correct,
b. incorrect,
c. partly correct,
d. partly incorrect.

a. wholly correct

123

143. The illegality of an arrest or the validity of the warrant issued can be questioned by the person arrested before the court at any time

a. before posting his bail,
b. before entering a plea,
c. before pre- trial,
d. during the trial proper.

b. before entering a plea,

124

144. The warrant of arrest may be executed by the Barangay Tanod –

a. wholly correct
b. wholly incorrect,
c. partly correct,
d. partly incorrect.

b. wholly incorrect

125

145. Under the law, what agency that is empowered to order the change of venue or place of trial in order to prevent the miscarriage of justice –

a. DOJ,
b. Supreme Court,
c. Executive Judge,
d. Regional state Prosecutor.

b. Supreme Court

126

146. Jurisdiction over the subject matter is determined by the –
a. nature of the offense,
b. gravity of the offense,
c. investigating officer,
d. presiding judge.

a. nature of the offense

127

147. The offender who is still under investigation by the police
a. respondent,
b. suspect,
c. accused,
d. plaintiff.

b. suspect,

128

148. Refers to facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably discreet and prudent man to believed that an offense ha been committed and that an object sought in connection with the offense are in the place to be searched is
a. probable cause,
b. search warrant,
c. plain view doctrine,
d. arrest warrant.

a. probable cause,

129

149. The method prescribed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of a person who might have committed a crime and for his punishment in case of conviction of acquittal in case he is found innocent is
a. criminal jurisprudence,
b. criminal law,
c. criminal procedure,
d. criminal jurisdiction.

c. criminal procedure

130

150. The law that prescribes certain rights of a person arrested, detained or under custodial investigation and guidelines, procedure and responsibilities of arresting, detaining and investigating officer is
(a.) B.P. 129, as amended,
(b.) R.A. 7691,
(c.) R.A. 8294,
(d.) R.A. 7438.

(d.) R.A. 7438