cvp cardiac part 2 Flashcards

(155 cards)

1
Q

jugular venous distension is measured with ______, positioned _______, and shows

A

ruler, 45 degrees laying back, elevated if seen above clavicle which means an increase in volume of the venous system

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2
Q

a normal heart sound is described as “lub-dub” which includes S1 then S2. S1= and S2=

A

mitral and tricuspid valves close
atrial and pulmonary valves close

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3
Q

what happens during disatole

A

PV and AV close, TV and MV open for filling (includes atrial kick)

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4
Q

what happens during systole

A

TV and MV close, ventricle pressure is higher than the aorta causing the pulmonary artery adds pressure on the AV and PV causing them to open

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5
Q

what is the pattern of auscultation of the heart from 1-4

A

aortic, pulmonic, tricuspid, mitral
all physicians take money

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6
Q

aortic valve is auscultated where

A

R 2nd intercostal space

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7
Q

pumonic valve is auscultated where

A

L 2nd intercostal space

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8
Q

tricuspid valve is auscultated where

A

L 4/5 intercostal space

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9
Q

mitral valve is auscultated where

A

5th intercostal space, includes point of maximum impulse and is usually heard as the loudest sound

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10
Q

what does mitral regurgitation mean

A

mitral or tricuspid valve not closing properly

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11
Q

when is mitral regurgitation heard

A

systole, b/w S1 and S2

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12
Q

when is aortic regurgitation heard

A

during diastole after S2

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13
Q

when is mitral/tricupsid stenosis heard

A

during diastole before S1

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14
Q

when is aortic/pulmonic stenosis heard

A

systole between S1 and S2

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15
Q

what kind of patient would have S3 sound

A

heart failure

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16
Q

what kind of patient would have S4

A

LV hypertrophy or long standing HTN

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17
Q

what does S4 cause

A

late diastole

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18
Q

what does S3 cause

A

prolong filling

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19
Q

w/ aortic stenosis:
SV ___, afterload ____, preload ____, atrial pressure _____, aortic pulse pressure _____, left atrium

A

decrease. increase. decrease. increase. decrease. enlarged

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20
Q

w/ aortic regurgitation
____ EDV, _____ EDP, ____ preload _____, mitral regurgitation _____ ,LA blood _____, LA pressure ______, ____ SV

A

increase. increase. increase. quicker. increase. increase

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21
Q

what is the pnemonic to remember heart murmurs

A

MRS. ARD. MSD. ASS

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22
Q

SA node rythm ____
AV node rythm ____
bundle of his rythm ____

A

60-100 bpm
40-60 bpm
20-40 bpm

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23
Q

representation of EKG graph
large box ____
small box ______
normal PR ______
normal QRS _____

A

0.2 sec
0.04 sec
<0.2
<0.12 or 3 small squares

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24
Q

how can you measure HR on 6 sec strip

A

10 x # QRS

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25
if only one segment on the EKG is regular how do you identify it
normal except ....
26
what does fibrillation mean
ventricle not contracting well causing irregular PR interval
27
early QRS means
premature ventricular/atrial contraction, depends on what else is irregular
28
what does junctional EKG mean
p wave is not before the QRS
29
1st degree AV block means
prolong PR, everything else is normal
30
2nd degree AV block/type 1/wenkelbach
prolong PR that is PROGRESSIVELY lengthening, QRS DROPS
31
2nd degree AV block type 2
shortened PR that has a suddent QRS DROP
32
3rd degree AV block type 3
complete block= PR interval not defined, atria and ventricles don't communicate
33
p wave t wave QRS wave
depoloarization atria repolarization ventricles depolarization ventricles and repolarization atria
34
3 types of SA node rhythms
NSR, sinusbradycardia, sinustachycardia
35
5 types of atrial dysrythmia
premature atrial contraction, atrial tachycardia, atrial bradycardia, atrial flutter, atrial fibrillation
36
junction dysrythmis is of what node
AV node
37
4 types of AV node dysrythmia
premature junctional contractions, junction bradycardia, accelerated junctional rhythm, junctional tachycardia
38
junctional ___ bradycardia ____ junctional ____accelerated ____ tachycardia
<40 40-60 60-100 >100
39
5 types of ventricle dysrhtmias
premature ventricular contraction, ventricular fibrillation, ventricular tachycardia, ventricular escape, polymorphic ventricular tachycardia
40
ventricle ____ bradycardia ____ ventricular rate ____ accelerated ____ tachycardia
<20 20-40 40-100 >100
41
what parts of the heart are associated with RCA
RA, RV, inferior LV, SA node, AV node
42
what parts of the heart are associated with LCX
posterior LV, lateral LV
43
what parts of the heart are associated with LAD
anterior LV, lateral LV, septum
44
how is ischemia identified on an EKG 12 lead
ST depression (appears as horizontal or downslopping)= NSTEMI if > 0.5mm at J point in 2 or more consecutive leads
45
what does t wave inversion mean
may be NSTEMI or previous MI
46
what vascular disease is also atherosclerosis
PAD
47
what are some risks for a patient with PAD
stroke, MI, thrombosis
48
what would a patient with PAD usually complain of
intermittent claudation= pain in leg that gets worse w/ exercise and better with rest
49
what is a medical emergency associated with PAD
critical limb ischemias
50
what are the 6 p's of critical limb ischemias
pallor, pain, paresthesia, paralysis, pulselessness, pokilothermia (unable to regulate temperature)
51
what is a diagnostic imaging PTs can use for PAD
ankle brachial index
52
what does ankle brachial index mean
ankle BP / arm BP and look at ratio to determine how severe and at risk the patient is
53
what would indicate a more severe PAD
lower ratio
54
what does >1.3 of ankle/brachial BP indicate
non-compressible: pulse is unable to obliterate
55
what BP indicates you shouldn't do ankle/brachial index b/c BP is too high
250 mmHg
56
what is the gold standard for dx PAD
angiography
57
possible pharm tx for PAD
PDE 3 inhibitator, pentoxifyline, xanthine, vasolates, anti-HTN, anti-platelet, cholesterol lowering
58
surgical tx PAD
stent, angioplasty, thrombectomy, open surgical bypass
59
what is the typical PT exercise tx for PAD pts: called SET and covered by medicare
30-45 min sessions, 3x/week, 12 weeks total
60
what instrument should be used for differential diagnosis of vascular disease
ultrasound
61
what are s/s of venous insufficiency
LE edema, skin changes, discomfort, pitting edema, dilated veins
62
primary vs secondary venous insufficiency
no precipitating event vs response to previous DVT
63
what kind of disease is venous insufficiency
progressive. can get worse and develop ulcers and skin changes
64
3 parts of virchow's triad- how likely a pt is to develop vascular disease
stasis, hypercoagulability, vessel wall injury
65
can MRI and CT dx DVT
no, they can't be used to r/i or r/o
66
what does AAA mean
vessel diameter > 3cm
67
what vascular disease may cause LBP and can be confused with MSK pain
aortic dissection
68
what are the 2 largest lymphatic trunks
r lymph duct and thoracic duct r lymph: R arm and R side of head thoracic duct: rest of the body
69
what is the primary pathway for removing excess fluid in the lung
mediastinal lymph system
70
what stages of lymphedema are still reversible
0-1
71
what stages of lymphedema have a + stemmer sign
2-3
72
what is the most common type of lymphoma
non-hodgkin's: slow and agressive
73
what type of swelling is most common in LE of women in a symmetrical pattern found PROXIMALLY
lipedema
74
what kind of swelling is most commonly found in the extremities and found unilaterally
lymphedema
75
does primary or secondary lyphedema have an unknown cause
primary. secondary is caused by damage to lymph vessels and nodes
76
what does a positive stemmer sign mean
when pinching the dorsum of the foot/ hand you're unable to separate the skin from the bone aka there's too much fat
77
examples of PT interverntion for lymphedema
compression, manual lymph drainage, exercise to increase muscle pump activity and facilitate decompression, low impact CV exercise
78
what is the difference b/w HF and cardiomyopathy
HF= diagnosis cardiomyopathy= etiology
79
what causes systolic heart failure
LV is dilated and can't contract efficiently
80
what causes diastolic heart failure
LV is stiff and can't easily relax causing thickening of the LV
81
how are hormones related to HF
overactive RAAS and sympathetic NS to prevent heart from failing causes diminished natriuretic peptides leading to an imbalance of hormones furthering the decline in heart function
82
4 physiological causes of cardiorenal syndrome due to overactivation of SNS
vasoconstriction, tachycardia, sodium retension, renin released
83
RV failure 3 causes
-pHTN or high pressure in the lungs caused by disease or L side HF -tricuspid pathology or RV dysfunction -pericardium effusion
84
why is right side HF systemic symptoms
blood can't even reach L side since it starts as deoxygenated in the R side
85
why is left side HF only pulmonic symptoms
blood can't get through to the lungs themselves
86
examples of decompensated HF symptoms
hypotension, JVD, altered mental status, weight gain
87
what is the most common type of cardiomyopathy
ischemic
88
3 types of non-ischemic cardiomyopathy
dilated LV: most common, caused by virus, postpartum, toxic restrictive LV: very rare hypertrophic VALVE: very rare, usually athletes
89
why is cardiogenic shock a medical emergency
very low BP that may be so severe and cause organ damage CI <2.2
90
what is BNP
brain nateruretic peptide: identifies heart STRETCH, if the heart is stretched BNP will be increased
91
what lab value determines HF that is compensated or decompensated
BNP
92
what would a CXR and echo of someone w/ HF look like
enlarged heart, wedge pressure >15, abnormal EF
93
if a heart has mitral regurgitation what would happen to the atria
dilated b/c excess blood
94
if LV hypertrophy what would likely happen to the pulmonary pressure
increase in pressure
95
3 types of short term surgical tx for HF
ECMO, IABP, impella
96
venovenous support is for ______ venoatrial support is for ______
lungs. heart
97
where is IABP located
proximal descending aorta and commonly inserted in the primary femoral artery
98
what happens to the IABP during systole _____ and diastole _____
deflated. inflate. the purpose is to assist with diastole inflation
99
purpose of IABP
decrease afterload and improve CO by filling arteries better and more efficiently
100
who can be candidate for IABP
acute cardiogenic shock, advanced HF waiting surgery, severe coronary disease
101
3 indications for lvad
-stage 4 heart failure according to NYHA -LV EF of <25% -inotrope dependent OR -CI <2.2 not on ionotropes w/ optimal medical management or advanced HF for 2 weeks
102
3 lvad designations
destination therapy, bridge to transplant, bridge to recovery
103
LVAD is _____ dependent and _____ sensitive
preload, afterload
104
4 parameters for LVAD
speed, flow, pulsatility index, power
105
pulsitality index
native heart's ability to pump blood and contribute to CO, higher= heart is pulsing on its own, lower= heart isn't pulsing as much on its own
106
3 LVAD hemodynamics
native LV contributon, volume status, IV meds
107
after pt is on LVAD do they get to stop taking meds?
no, they must continue taking meds to keep their immune system and body functioning properly
108
orthotopic heart transplant (OHT) requirements
<70 yo, end stage heart disease, signficiant risk mortality, no active infection, no cancer, no organ impairment, BMI <35, abstain from alcohol and tobacco, medical and financial support
109
methylprednusolone
glucocorticoid, anti-inflammatory by reversing capillary permeability, used in IV after surgery, SE: acne, adrenal suppression, fluid retention (all hormone related)
110
prednisone
PO, anti-inflammatory, SE: anaphylaxis, bradycardia, moon face
111
what happens with OHT hemodynamics
no parasympathetic or sympathetic input so pts will have an increase in resting HR and rely on catecholamines to increase HR during activity
112
rejection of transplant symptoms and why are they important
usually similar to HF symptoms so pts may not be as quick to report them to us: fatigue, edema, irregular heartbeat, decreased activity tolerance
113
goals of HF meds
either increase contractility to decrease HR OR decrease afterload to reach euvolemia (neutral volume)
114
group of guideline directed medical therapy drugs
ACEI/ARB, beta blocker, aldosterone antagonists, nitrates
115
how does ACEI treat HF
decrease afterload, decrease preload, increase CO by dilating vessels
116
how does beta blocker treat HF
only used for stable HF b/c blocks SNS system to decrease ionotropy and increase preload
117
how does aldosterone antagonist treat HF
very common K+ sparing drug which prevent arrythmias. PT related: risk for hypotension, dehydration, hyperkalemia
118
how do nitrates treat HF
dilate vessels to decrease afterload and increase SV b/c allows heart to function better
119
NY classes of HF class 3 compared to class 4
3= symptoms only during activity and not at rest 4= symptoms at rest and during activity
120
what are loop diuretics good for HF tx
decrease edema (symptom relief), causes vessel walls to become less dilated since there's less fluid there, also increases risk for dehydration
121
why would vasopressors be used to treat HF
they do vasoconstriction so are good for tx of cardiac arrest, septic shock, hypotension
122
alpha receptor beta 1 receptor beta 2 receptor
significant vasoconstrictor heart: some vasoconstriction lungs: vasodilation
123
doses of epinephrine differences in reaction
beta= lower dose = dilates= decrease BP alpha= higher dose= constrict= increase BP
124
norepinephrine
most commonly used vasopressor= increase systemic vascular resistance, increase BP
125
why is vasopressin given exogenously
with septic shock vasopressin stores are depleted by 96 hours
126
dopamine doses
low= vasodilation medium= increase HR and ionotrophy high= vasoconstriction
127
what does iontrope do
assist with contractility
128
when would iontrope be given
end stage HF, cardiogenic shock, CI < 2.2
129
primacor
positive ionotrope, vasodilator, decreases afterload, increases SV
130
dobutrex
catecholamine. vasodilates. increases contractility
131
other drugs that can be used as iontrope
digoxin, epinephrine low, dopamine medium dose
132
what's a CI for 6MWT
unstable angina recently
133
high risk 6 MWT
<200 m predictive of hospitalization or mortality COPD <300 m predictive HF
134
if a patient is on O2 can they titrate their own
yes, they can
135
SPBB
for 3 physical performance tests designed to capture limitations in lower extremity functioning that relate to gait, balance, strength
136
what is considered an angina equivalent
dizziness
137
SPBB results mean
<9 considered frail helpful for screening LVAD pts to see how frail they are
138
FITT components
frequency, intensity, time, type
139
mod intensity vigorous intensity exercise
50-70% HRR 75-90% HRR
140
MET =
metabolic equivalent (energy cost at rest)
141
borg RPE scale
6-20
142
cardiac rehab purposes
improve aerobic condition, decrease risk disease, decrease symptoms, improve knowledge and self management of disease, decrease hospitalization
143
3 types of cardiac rehab
inpatient, supervised, unsupervised
144
phase 2 cardiac rehab
supporting physician is immediately available, only specific diagnoses are allowed: acute MI, stable angina, valve replacement, stable chronic HF, heart/lung transplant
145
who prescribes exercise in cardiac rehab
physician
146
stable chronic heart failure def
LVEF <35% or NYHA class 2+, not hospitalization in past 6 weeks
147
difference in billing cardiac rehab
whether or not EKG monitoring was used continuously
148
most commonly used outcome measure cardiac rehab
RPE
149
easiest and non-invasive way to diagnose CHD
echo
150
cyanotic CHD acyanotic CHD
right to left shunting, s/s hypoxia, SPO2 is low left to right shunting, s/s heart failure
151
most common CHD
ventricular septal defect, can lead to pHTN and RV failure
152
7 symptoms of cyanotic CHD
tetralogy of fallot, transposition of the great vessels/arteries, tricuspid atresia, truncus anteriosus, total anomalous pulmonary venous return, pulmonary atresia, hypoplastic LH syndrome
153
most common cyanotic defect
tertralogy of fallot
154
tetralogy of fallot examples
squatting, cyanosis, clubbing, syncope
155