Drugs for Hypertension Flashcards

(67 cards)

1
Q

What is the initial drug of choice for stage 1 hypertension

A

thiazide-type diuretics

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2
Q

what is the BP goal fo hypertensive age >/ 60 years old with no comorbidities?

A

SBP < 150

DBP <90

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3
Q

what is the BP goal fo hypertensive with DM?

A

SBP <150

DBP <90

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4
Q

what is the BP goal fo hypertensive with CKD?

A

SBP <140

DBP <90

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5
Q

What are the acceptable oral antihypertensive agents in pregnant women?

A

Methyldopa
Labetalol
Nifedipine

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6
Q

Drug class that is effective in pre-eclamptic and non-proteinuric hypertension

A

labetalol

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7
Q

antihypertensive that can be used extensively later in pregnancy

A

nifedipine

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8
Q

What is the effective monotherapy or as add on to methyldopa in chronic hypertension in pregnancy

A

hydralazine

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9
Q

Antihypertensive drugs that are not recommended during pregnancy

A

ACEi and ARBs

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10
Q

the first line drug in hypertension

A

hydrochlorothiazide

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11
Q

[Thiazide diuretics]

____ drug that crosses the placenta causing hypokalemia, hyponatremia, hypoglycemia, jaundice, thrombocytopenia

A

metolazone

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12
Q

[Thiazide diuretics]

what are the toxic effects of thiazide diuretics?

A

HYPERGLUC

  1. Hyperglycemia
  2. Hyperlipidemia
  3. Hyperuricemia
  4. Hypercalcemia
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13
Q

[Diuretics]

Diuretics that cause K wasting are expected to cause what metabolic derangement?

A

HYPOKALEMIC metabolic ALKALOSIS

where K goes, H+ follows

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14
Q

[K sparing Diuretics]

K sparing diuretic are expected to cause what metabolic derangement?

A

HYPERkalemic metabolic ACIDOSIS

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15
Q

This drug inhibits Na/K/2Cl transporter in thick ascending limb loop of henle

A

furosemide

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16
Q

What loop diuretic is not a sulfur derivative that is not a sulfur derivative?

A

Ethacrynic Acid

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17
Q

What are the toxicities of loop diuretics?

A
Ototoxicity
Hypokalemia
Dehydration
Allergy to sulfa
Nephritis
Gout
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18
Q

What are the effects of sympathoplegics in the VR, HR, contractile force, CO, and TPR?

A
  1. Decrease VR
  2. Decrease HR
  3. Decrease contractile force
  4. Decrease CO
  5. Decrease TPR
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19
Q

What is the antidote of clonidine?

A

Phentolamine

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20
Q

What is the major SE of clonidine?

A

sedation

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21
Q

what drug causes rebound hypertension and dry mouth?

A

clonidine

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22
Q

What drug causes hemolytic anemia (positive coombs test) as an idiosyncratic reaction?

A

methyldopa

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23
Q

What drug competitively blocks Nn nicotinic ACh receptors?

A

hexamethonium

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24
Q

What drug causes irreversible blockage of vesicular monoamine transporter?

A

Reserpine

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25
This drug inhibits vesicular release of NE from the presynaptic neuron, causes psychiatric depression, suicidal ideation?
guanethidine
26
also used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia
prazosin
27
major SE causes first dose orthostatic hypotension and lesser chance of reflex tachycardia
prazosin
28
___ is most selective for prostatic smooth muscle
tamsulosin
29
___ betablocker that reduces renin release.
Propanolol
30
used as maintenance for angina and post STEMI/NSTEMI cases to decrease HR and thus decrease myocardial oxygen demand
Propanolol
31
used in chronic heart failure to regular HR but not acute HF
propanolol
32
What are the drugs used to control BP in pheochromocytoma?
Phenoxybenzamine Phentolamine Labetalol
33
[Oral vasodilator] Drug that alter intracellular Calcium
Hydralazine
34
[Oral vasodilator] Drug that opens K channel leading to hyperpolarization
Minoxidil
35
[Oral vasodilator] Drug that increase NO, increasing cGMP leading to vasodilation
Nitroprusside | Nitrates
36
[Oral vasodilator] Calcium channel blockade
CCBs
37
[Oral vasodilator] D1 receptor agonism
fenoldopam
38
What is the most common SE for all vasodilators?
Reflex Tachycardia
39
[Oral vasodilator] Cause drug-induced lupus
hydralazine
40
[Oral vasodilator] used in hypertensive urgencies among pregnant patients
hydralazine
41
What medications may cause drug-induced lupus?
Hydralazine Isoniazid Procainamide Penicillamine
42
[Oral vasodilator] require concomitant use of diuretics and beta blockers to block compensatory responses
monoxidil
43
[CCB] causes gingival hyperplasia
verapamil
44
[CCB] SE: constipation, pretibial edema, gingival hyperplasia cardiac>vascular
verapamil
45
[CCB] that is used for arrythmia
verapamil
46
What drugs can cause Gingival Hyperplasia?
Nifedipine Cyclosporine Phenytoin Verapamil
47
[CCB] have pro-arrythmogenic effec; cause reflex tachycardia
dihydropyridine Ca channel blocker
48
[Parenteral vasodilators] Cyanide toxicity is a major side effect
nitroprusside
49
[Parenteral vasodilators] both an arteriolar vasodilator and a venodilator
nitroprusside
50
[Parenteral vasodilators] dopamine 1 agonist; causes arteriolar vasodilation of the afferent and efferent arterioles used in hypertensive emergency
fenoldopam
51
How will you manage malignant hypertension?
Vasodilator + diuretics
52
Antihypertensive drug that cause cough and angioedema
ACEI
53
drug class that are used in post-MI infarction (slows ventricular remodeling); DM nephropathy (delays progression)
ACEi
54
ACEi should not be given inpatients experiencing ____
AKI | Hyperkalemia
55
ACEi and ARBs are not given together since it
increases the adverse reaction and increased incidence of CA
56
ACEi are not given to patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis since
it decreases the GFR of the stenotic kidney
57
This drug class delays the progression of DM nephropathy
ARB
58
This class can cause fetal hypotension, neonatal skull hypoplasia, anuria, renal failure, renal dysplasia
ARBs
59
Hyperkalemia is common in patients taking ACEi and ARBs because?
ACEi and ARBs reduce aldosterone levels and cause potassium retention
60
[What is the electrolyte imbalance] peaked T waves
hyperkalemia
61
[What is the electrolyte imbalance] T wave inversion
hypokalemia
62
[What is the electrolyte imbalance] decreased PR interval
hypercalcemia
63
[What is the electrolyte imbalance] increased PR interval
hypocalcemia
64
this drug inhibits renin thereby preventing conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
Aliskiren
65
[Kinin Inhibitor] Selective antagonist of kinin B2 receptors
icatibant
66
[Kinin Inhibitor] plasma C1 esterase inhibitor that decreases bradykinin formation
Cinryze | Berinert
67
[Kinin Inhibitor] plasma kallikerin inhibitor
Ecallantide