Genetic Code and Protein Synthesis Flashcards

(47 cards)

1
Q

code words that are 3 bases long can specify ____ amino acids

A

64

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2
Q

what is the start codon?

A

AUG

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3
Q

what are the 3 stop codons?

A

UAA, UAG, UGA

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4
Q

what codon is used the most in e coli?

A

CUG

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5
Q

what codon is used the least in coli?

A

CUA

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6
Q

what codon is used the most in humans?

A

CUG

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7
Q

what codon is used the least in humans?

A

UUA

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8
Q

___ out of the 64 amino acids specify amino acids

A

61

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9
Q

what two amino acids are not coded by more than one sequence?

A

MET, TRP

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10
Q

proteins are synthesized at the ____

A

ribosome

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11
Q

prokaryotes are know as the ____S ribosomes

A

70

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12
Q

eukaryotes are known as the ___S ribosomes

A

80

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13
Q

what are the two parts of the prokaryotic ribosomes?

A

30S, 50S

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14
Q

what are the two parts of the eukaryotic ribosomes?

A

40S, 60S

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15
Q

a prokaryote can contain ____ ribosomes and a eukaryote can contain _____

A

20,000, 200,000

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16
Q

what percent rRNA is the small pro subunit?

A

60

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17
Q

what percent rRNA is the large pro subunit?

A

70

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18
Q

what percent rRNA is the small euk subunit?

A

50

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19
Q

what percent rRNA is the large euk subunit?

20
Q

what is the purpose of the gap between the ribosomal subunits?

A

mRNA goes through, RNA, growing protein chain

21
Q

where does the new amino acid bind to the ribosome?

22
Q

at what site does the growing polypeptide growing?

23
Q

at what site is the exit site for tRNA

24
Q

what holds the growing chain to the P site?

A

the anticodon and tRNA

25
pro: EF-Tu
eEf1(alpha)
26
pro: EF-Ts
eEF1(beta)(gamma)
27
pro: EF-G
eEF2
28
what is the eukaryotic release factor?
eRF1
29
what are the prokaryotic release factors?
RF-1, RF-2, RF-3
30
initiation begins with the binding of ____ and the ___ _____ to the 30S ribosomal subunit
mRNA, initiator tRNA
31
all other parts of the growing chain attach to the ___ site except for the initiator, which attaches to the ___ site
A, P
32
what happens to GTP during initiation?
breaks down into GDP
33
what it the anticodon sequence of f-met-tRNA?
5'CAU3'
34
during peptide chain elongation, the first stage is the binding of a new ______ to the A site
aminoacyl-tRNA
35
what elongation factor brings about the binding of a new aminoacyl-tRNA to the A Site?
EF-Tu
36
what elongation factor recycles EF-Tu after it binds an aminoacyl-tRNA?
EF-Ts
37
the ____ _____ activity is not due to a protein enzyme, but is due to an RNA enzyme activity of the peptidyl transferase center of the 23S rRNA and the 50S subunit
peptidyl transferase
38
translocation of the peptide chain back to the P site is brought about by elongation factor _____
EF-G
39
activated EF-TU is required for aminoacyl-tRNA to bind, and it is activated by ____
GTP
40
____ is the second enzyme in addition to EF-TU that needs to be activated by GTP
EF-G
41
the biding of release factors to the A site transforms the ribosomal peptydyl transferase into a ____, which breaks covalent bonds
hydrolase
42
the presence of a ___ ____ at the A site brings about the binding of 2 release factors to the A site (always at lease RF-3) along with GTP
stop codon
43
after dissocitation, there is ___ ____ between the pool of 50S ribosomes and 30S ribosomes
dynamic equillibrium
44
a ____ is multiple ribosomes synthesizing proteins on a single mRNA molecule
polysome
45
prokaryotic mRNAs can have up to _____ ribosomes attached
10
46
what are Hsp70, GroES/GroEL exmaples of?
molecular chaperones that aide in the folding of proteins into the cell
47
_____ percent of proteins require GroES/GroEL to fold (all else requires either none or Hsp70)
15