Hematology and Oncology - Pathology (2) Flashcards

(39 cards)

1
Q

Coagulation disorders

  • PT
  • PTT
A
  • PT
    • Tests function of common and extrinsic pathway (factors I, II, V, VII, and X).
    • Defect –> increased PT.
  • PTT
    • Tests function of common and intrinsic pathway (all factors except VII and XIII).
    • Defect –>Ž increased PTT.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hemophilia A or B

  • Type of disorder
  • PT
  • PTT
  • Mechanism and comments
  • Treatment
A
  • Type of disorder
    • Coagulation disorder
  • PT
    • No effect
  • PTT
    • Increased
  • Mechanism and comments
    • Intrinsic pathway coagulation defect.
      • A: deficiency of factor VIII –>Ž increased PTT.
      • B: deficiency of factor IX –>Ž increased PTT.
    • Macrohemorrhage in hemophilia
      • Hemarthroses (bleeding into joints), easy bruising, increased PTT.
  • Treatment
    • Recombinant factor VIII (in hemophilia A).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Vitamin K deficiency

  • Type of disorder
  • PT
  • PTT
  • Mechanism and comments
A
  • Type of disorder
    • Coagulation disorder
  • PT
    • Increased
  • PTT
    • Increased
  • Mechanism and comments
    • General coagulation defect.
    • Bleeding time normal.
    • Decreased synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, X, protein C, protein S.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Platelet disorders

A
  • Defects in platelet plug formation –>Ž increased bleeding time (BT).
  • Platelet abnormalities –>Ž microhemorrhage:
    • Petechiae
    • Mucous membrane bleeding
    • Purpura
    • Increased bleeding time
    • Possible decreased platelet count (PC)
    • Epistaxis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Bernard-Soulier syndrome

  • Type of disorder
  • PC
  • BT
  • Mechanism
A
  • Type of disorder
    • Platelet disorder
  • PC
    • Decreased
  • BT
    • Increased
  • Mechanism
    • Defect in platelet plug formation.
    • Decreased GpIb –>Ž defect in platelet-to-vWF adhesion.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Glanzmann thrombasthenia

  • Type of disorder
  • PC
  • BT
  • Mechanism
  • Labs
A
  • Type of disorder
    • Platelet disorder
  • PC
    • No effect
  • BT
    • Increased
  • Mechanism
    • Defect in platelet plug formation.
    • Decreased GpIIb/IIIa Ž–> defect in platelet-to-platelet aggregation.
  • Labs
    • Blood smear shows no platelet clumping.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Immune thrombocytopenia

  • Type of disorder
  • PC
  • BT
  • Mechanism
  • Labs
A
  • Type of disorder
    • Platelet disorder
  • PC
    • Decreased
  • BT
    • Increased
  • Mechanism
    • Defect: anti-GpIIb/IIIa antibodies –>Ž splenic macrophage consumption of platelet/antibody complex.
      • May be triggered by viral illness.
    • Decreased platelet survival.
  • Labs
    • Increased megakaryocytes on bone marrow biopsy.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

  • Type of disorder
  • PC
  • BT
  • Mechanism
  • Pathogenesis
  • Labs
  • Symptoms
  • Treatment
A
  • Type of disorder
    • Platelet disorder
  • PC
    • Decreased
  • BT
    • Increased
  • Mechanism
    • Inhibition or deficiency of ADAMTS 13 (vWF metalloprotease) –>Ž decreased degradation of vWF multimers.
  • Pathogenesis
    • Increased large vWF multimers –>Ž increased platelet adhesion –> increased platelet aggregation and thrombosis.
    • Decreased platelet survival
  • Labs
    • Schistocytes, increased LDH.
  • Symptoms
    • Pentad of neurologic and renal symptoms, fever, thrombocytopenia, and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia.
  • Treatment
    • Exchange transfusion and steroids.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

von Willebrand disease

  • Type of disorder
  • PC
  • BT
  • PT
  • PTT
  • Mechanism
  • Diagnosis
  • Treatment
A
  • Type of disorder
    • Mixed platelet and coagulation disorder
  • PC
    • No effect
  • BT
    • Increased
  • PT
    • No effect
  • PTT
    • No effect or increased
  • Mechanism
    • Intrinsic pathway coagulation defect
      • Decreased vWF –>Ž normal or increased PTT
      • Depends on severity;
      • vWF acts to carry/protect factor VIII
    • Defect in platelet plug formation
      • Decreased vWF –>Ž defect in platelet-to-vWF adhesion.
    • Mild but most common inherited bleeding disorder.
    • Autosomal dominant.
  • Diagnosis
    • Diagnosed in most cases by ristocetin cofactor assay
    • Decreased agglutination is diagnostic
  • Treatment
    • DDAVP, which releases vWF stored in endothelium.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

DIC

  • Type of disorder
  • PC
  • BT
  • PT
  • PTT
  • Mechanism
  • Causes
  • Labs
A
  • Type of disorder
    • Mixed platelet and coagulation disorder
  • PC
    • Decreased
  • BT
    • Increased
  • PT
    • Increased
  • PTT
    • Increased
  • Mechanism
    • Widespread activation of clotting leads to a deficiency in clotting factors, which creates a bleeding state.
  • Causes
    • Sepsis (gram-negative), Trauma, Obstetric complications, acute Pancreatitis, Malignancy, Nephrotic syndrome, Transfusion
    • STOP Making New Thrombi
  • Labs
    • Schistocytes, increased fibrin split products (d-dimers), decreased fibrinogen, decreased factors V and VIII.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Hereditary thrombosis syndromes leading to hypercoagulability

  • Factor V Leiden
  • Prothrombin gene mutation
  • Antithrombin deficiency
  • Protein C or S deficiency
A
  • Factor V Leiden
    • Production of mutant factor V that is resistant to degradation by activated protein C.
    • Most common cause of inherited hypercoagulability in whites.
  • Prothrombin gene mutation
    • Mutation in 3′ untranslated region –>Ž increased production of prothrombin –> increased plasma levels and venous clots.
  • Antithrombin deficiency
    • Inherited deficiency of antithrombin: has no direct effect on the PT, PTT, or thrombin time but diminishes the increase in PTT following heparin administration.
    • Can also be acquired: renal failure/nephrotic syndrome –>Ž antithrombin loss in urine –>Ž increased factors II and X.
  • Protein C or S deficiency
    • Decreased ability to inactivate factors V and VIII. 
    • Increased risk of thrombotic skin necrosis with hemorrhage following administration of warfarin.
    • Skin and subcutaneous tissue necrosis after warfarin administration –>Ž think protein C deficiency.
    • “Protein C Cancels Coagulation.”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Blood transfusion therapy

  • Blood transfusion risks
  • For each
    • Dosage effect
    • Clinical use
  • Packed RBCs
  • Platelets
  • Fresh frozen plasma
  • Cryoprecipitate
A
  • Blood transfusion risks
    • Infection transmission (low)
    • Transfusion reactions
    • Iron overload
    • Hypocalcemia (citrate is a calcium chelator)
    • Hyperkalemia (RBCs may lyse in old blood units).
  • Packed RBCs 
    • Dosage effect: Increases Hb and O2 carrying capacity
    • Clinical use: Acute blood loss, severe anemia
  • Platelets 
    • Dosage effect: Increases platelet count (increase ~5000/mm3/unit)
    • Clinical use: Stop significant bleeding (thrombocytopenia, qualitative platelet defects)
  • Fresh frozen plasma 
    • Dosage effect: Increases coagulation factor levels
    • Clinical use: DIC, cirrhosis, warfarin overdose, exchange transfusion in TTP/HUS
  • Cryoprecipitate
    • Dosage effect: Contains fibrinogen, factor VIII, factor XIII, vWF, and fibronectin
    • Clinical use: Treat coagulation factor deficiencies involving fibrinogen and factor VIII
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Leukemia vs. lymphoma

  • Leukemia
  • Lymphoma
A
  • Leukemia
    • Lymphoid or myeloid neoplasms with widespread involvement of bone marrow.
    • Tumor cells are usually found in peripheral blood.
  • Lymphoma
    • Discrete tumor masses arising from lymph nodes.
    • Presentations often blur definitions.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Reactions

  • Leukemoid reaction
  • CML
A
  • Leukemoid reaction
    • Acute inflammatory response to infection. 
    • Increased WBC count with increased neutrophils and neutrophil precursors such as band cells (left shift)
    • Increased leukocyte ALP.
  • CML
    • Also increased WBC count with left shift
    • Decreased leukocyte ALP).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Hodgkin vs. non‑Hodgkin lymphoma

  • Location
  • Characteristics
  • Age
  • Associations
  • Constitutional sign / symptoms
A
  • Location
    • H: Localized, single group of nodes
      • Extranodal rare
      • Contiguous spread (stage is strongest predictor of prognosis).
      • Prognosis is much better than with non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
    • NH: Multiple, peripheral nodes
      • Extranodal involvement common
      • Noncontiguous spread
  • Characteristics
    • H: Characterized by Reed-Sternberg cells
    • NH: Majority involve B cells (except those of lymphoblastic T-cell origin)
  • Age
    • H: Bimodal distribution
      • Young adulthood and > 55 years
      • More common in men except for nodular sclerosing type
    • NH: Peak incidence for certain subtypes at 20–40 years old
  • Associations
    • H: 50% of cases associated with EBV
    • NH: May be associated with HIV and immunosuppression
  • Constitutional sign / symptoms
    • H: Constitutional (“B”) signs/symptoms—low-grade fever, night sweats, weight loss
    • NH: Fewer constitutional signs/symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Reed-Sternberg cells

  • Characteristics
  • Prognosis
A
  • Characteristics
    • Distinctive tumor giant cell seen in Hodgkin disease
      • Binucleate or bilobed with the 2 halves as mirror images (“owl eyes” [A]).
      • RS cells are CD15+ and CD30+ B-cell origin.
      • 2 owl eyes × 15 = 30.
    • Nodular sclerosing form most common (affects women and men equally).
    • Necessary but not sufficient for a diagnosis of Hodgkin disease.
  • Better prognosis with strong stromal or lymphocytic reaction against RS cells.
    • Lymphocyte-rich form has best prognosis.
    • Lymphocyte mixed or depleted forms have poor prognosis.
17
Q

Burkitt lymphoma

  • Type of condition
  • Occurs in…
  • Genetics
  • Comments
A
  • Type of condition
    • Non-Hodgkin lymphoma: neoplasm of mature B cells
  • Occurs in…
    • Adolescents or young adults
  • Genetics
    • t(8;14)—translocation of c-myc (8) and heavy-chain Ig (14)
  • Comments
    • “Starry sky” appearance [A], sheets of lymphocytes with interspersed macrophages (arrows).
    • Associated with EBV.
    • Jaw lesion [B] in endemic form in Africa; pelvis or abdomen in sporadic form.
18
Q

Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma

  • Type of condition
  • Occurs in…
  • Genetics
  • Comments
A
  • Type of condition
    • Non-Hodgkin lymphoma: neoplasm of mature B cells
  • Occurs in…
    • Usually older adults, but 20% in children
  • Genetics
    • t(14;18)
  • Comments
    • Most common type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma in adults.
19
Q

Mantle cell lymphoma

  • Type of condition
  • Occurs in…
  • Genetics
  • Comments
A
  • Type of condition
    • Non-Hodgkin lymphoma: neoplasm of mature B cells
  • Occurs in…
    • Older males
  • Genetics
    • t(11;14)—translocation of cyclin D1 (11) and heavy-chain Ig (14)
  • Comments
    • CD5+.
20
Q

Follicular lymphoma

  • Type of condition
  • Occurs in…
  • Genetics
  • Comments
A
  • Type of condition
    • Non-Hodgkin lymphoma: neoplasm of mature B cells
  • Occurs in…
    • Adults
  • Genetics
    • t(14;18)—translocation of heavy-chain Ig (14) and bcl-2 (18)
  • Comments
    • Indolent course; bcl-2 inhibits apoptosis.
    • Presents with painless “waxing and waning” lymphadenopathy.
21
Q

Adult T-cell lymphoma

  • Type of condition
  • Occurs in…
  • Genetics
  • Comments
A
  • Type of condition
    • Non-Hodgkin lymphoma: neoplasm of mature T cells
  • Occurs in…
    • Adults
  • Genetics
    • Caused by HTLV-1 (associated with IV drug abuse)
  • Comments
    • Adults present with cutaneous lesions
      • Especially affects populations in Japan, West Africa, and the Caribbean.
    • Lytic bone lesions, hypercalcemia.
22
Q

Mycosis fungoides / Sézary syndrome

  • Type of condition
  • Occurs in…
  • Comments
A
  • Type of condition
    • Non-Hodgkin lymphoma: neoplasm of mature T cells
  • Occurs in…
    • Adults
  • Comments
    • Adults present with cutaneous patches [C] / plaques/tumors with potential to spread to lymph nodes and viscera.
    • Circulating malignant cells seen in Sézary syndrome.
    • Indolent, CD4+.
23
Q

Multiple myeloma

  • Definition
  • Associated with:
A
  • Definition
    • Monoclonal plasma cell (“fried egg” appearance) cancer that arises in the marrow and produces large amounts of IgG (55%) or IgA (25%).
    • Most common 1° tumor arising within bone in the elderly (> 40–50 years old).
    • Numerous plasma cells with “clock face” chromatin and intracytoplasmic inclusions containing immunoglobulin [B].
  • Associated with:
    • Increased susceptibility to infection
    • Primary amyloidosis (AL)
    • Punched-out lytic bone lesions on x-ray [A]
    • ƒƒM spike on serum protein electrophoresis
    • Ig light chains in urine (Bence Jones protein)
    • Rouleaux formation (RBCs stacked like poker chips in blood smear)
  • Think CRRAABBB MMeat:
    • hyperCalcemia
    • Renal insufficienc
    • Rouleaux formation
    • Anemia
    • primary Amyloidosis
    • Bone lytic lesions
    • Back pain
    • Bence Jones protein
    • Monoclonal M protein spike
24
Q

Related to multiple myeloma

  • Waldenström macroglobulinemia Ž
  • Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS)
A
  • Waldenström macroglobulinemia Ž
    • M spike = IgM
    • –> hyperviscosity symptoms
    • No lytic bone lesions.
  • Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS)
    • Monoclonal expansion of plasma cells with serum monoclonal protein < 3g/dL (“M spike”) and bone marrow with < 10% monoclonal plasma cells.
    • Asymptomatic precursor to multiple myeloma.
    • Patients with MGUS develop multiple myeloma at a rate of 1–2% per year.
25
Myelodysplastic syndromes * Definition * Pseudo–Pelger-Huet anomaly
* Definition * Stem cell disorders involving ineffective hematopoiesis --\>Ž defects in cell maturation of all non-lymphoid lineages. * Caused by de novo mutations or environmental exposure (e.g., radiation, benzene, chemotherapy). * Risk of transformation to AML. * **Pseudo–Pelger-Huet anomaly** * Neutrophils with bilobed nuclei (two nuclear masses connected with a thin filament of chromatin) typically seen after chemotherapy.
26
Leukemias
* Unregulated growth of leukocytes in bone marrow * --\>Ž increased or decreased number of circulating leukocytes in blood and marrow failure Ž * --\> anemia (decreased RBCs), infections (decreased mature WBCs), and hemorrhage (decreased platelets) * Leukemic cell infiltrates in liver, spleen, and lymph nodes are possible.
27
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma (ALL) * Type of condition * Age * Characteristics
* Type of condition * Leukemia: lymphoid neoplasm * Age * \< 15 years * Characteristics * T-cell ALL can present as mediastinal mass (leukemic infiltration of the thymus). * Associated with Down syndrome. * Peripheral blood and bone marrow have really really increased lymphoblasts [A]. * TdT+ (marker of pre-T and pre-B cells), CD10+ (pre-B cells only). * Most responsive to therapy. * May spread to CNS and testes. * t(12;21) --\>Ž better prognosis.
28
Small lymphocytic lymphoma (SLL)/ chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) * Type of condition * Age * Characteristics
* Type of condition * Leukemia: lymphoid neoplasm * Age * \> 60 years * Characteristics * CD20+, CD5+ B-cell neoplasm. * Often asymptomatic, progresses slowly * Smudge cells [B] in peripheral blood smear * Autoimmune hemolytic anemia. * SLL same as CLL except CLL has increased peripheral blood lymphocytosis or bone marrow involvement.
29
Hairy cell leukemia * Type of condition * Age * Characteristics * Treatment
* Type of condition * Leukemia: lymphoid neoplasm * Age * Adults. * Characteristics * Mature B-cell tumor in the elderly. * Cells have filamentous, hair-like projections [C] . * Stains TRAP (tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (+)). * TRAP stain largely replaced with flow cytometry. * Causes marrow fibrosis --\>Ž dry tap on aspiration. * Treatment * Cladribine (2-CDA), an adenosine analog (inhibits adenosine deaminase).
30
Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) * Type of condition * Age * Characteristics * Risk factors
* Type of condition * Leukemia: myeloid neoplasm * Age * Median onset 65 years * Characteristics * Auer rods [D] * Peroxidase (+) cytoplasmic inclusions seen mostly in M3 AML * Really really increased circulating myeloblasts on peripheral smear * t(15;17) --\>Ž M3 AML subtype responds to all-trans retinoic acid (vitamin A), inducing differentiation of myeloblasts * DIC is a common presentation in M3 AML and can be induced by chemotherapy due to release of Auer rods. * Risk factors * Prior exposure to alkylating chemotherapy, radiation, myeloproliferative disorders, Down syndrome.
31
Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) * Type of condition * Age * Characteristics * Treatment
* Type of condition * Leukemia: myeloid neoplasm * Age * Peak incidence 45–85 years, median age at diagnosis 64 years * Characteristics * Defined by the Philadelphia chromosome (t[9;22], bcr-abl) * Myeloid stem cell proliferation * Presents with increased neutrophils, metamyelocytes, basophils [E], splenomegaly * May accelerate and transform to AML or ALL (“blast crisis”). * Very low leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) as a result of low activity in mature granulocytes (vs. leukemoid reaction, in which LAP is increased). * Treatment * Responds to imatinib (a small-molecule inhibitor of the bcr-abl tyrosine kinase).
32
Disorders associated with these chromosomal translocations * t(9;22) * t(8;14) * t(11;14) * t(14;18) * t(15;17)
* t(9;22) (**_Philadelphia_** chromosome) * **_CML_** (bcr-abl hybrid) * **_Philadelphia_** **_C_**rea**_ML_** cheese. * t(8;14) * Burkitt lymphoma (c-myc activation) * t(11;14) * Mantle cell lymphoma (cyclin D1 activation) * t(14;18) * Follicular lymphomas (bcl-2 activation) * Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma * t(15;17) * M3 type of AML (responsive to all-trans retinoic acid)
33
Langerhans cell histiocytosis * Definition * Presentation
* Definition * Proliferative disorders of dendritic (Langerhans) cells from monocyte lineage. * Cells are functionally immature and do not efficiently stimulate primary T lymphocytes via antigen presentation. * Cells express S-100 (mesodermal origin) and CD1a. * Presentation * Presents in a child as lytic bone lesions [A] and skin rash or as recurrent otitis media with a mass involving the mastoid bone. * Birbeck granules (“tennis rackets” on EM) are characteristic [B].
34
Chronic myeloproliferative disorders * Definition * Disorders
* Definition * The myeloproliferative disorders represent an often-overlapping spectrum * JAK2 is involved in hematopoietic growth factor signaling. * Mutations are implicated in myeloproliferative disorders other than CML. * Disorders * Polycythemia vera * Essential thrombocytosis * Myelofibrosis * CML
35
Polycythemia vera * Type of disorder * Definition * RBCs (increased/decreased) * WBCs (increased/decreased) * Platelets (increased/decreased) * Philadelphia chromosome (+/-) * JAK2 mutations(+/-)
* Type of disorder * Chronic myeloproliferative disorder * Definition * Hematocrit \> 55%, somatic (non-hereditary) mutation in JAK2 gene. * 2° polycythemia is via natural or artificial increases in EPO levels. * Presentation * Often presents as intense itching after hot shower. * Rare but classic symptom is erythromelalgia (severe, burning pain and reddish or bluish coloration) due to episodic blood clots in vessels of the extremities [A]. * RBCs * Increased * WBCs * Increased * Platelets * Increased * Philadelphia chromosome * (-) * JAK2 mutations * (+)
36
Essential thrombocytosis * Type of disorder * Definition * RBCs (increased/decreased) * WBCs (increased/decreased) * Platelets (increased/decreased) * Philadelphia chromosome (+/-) * JAK2 mutations(+/-)
* Type of disorder * Chronic myeloproliferative disorder * Definition * Similar to polycythemia vera, but specific for overproduction of abnormal platelets --\>Ž bleeding, thrombosis. * Bone marrow contains enlarged megakaryocytes [B]. * RBCs * No effect * WBCs * No effect * Platelets * Increased * Philadelphia chromosome * (-) * JAK2 mutations * (+) (30-50%)
37
Myelofibrosis * Type of disorder * Definition * RBCs (increased/decreased) * WBCs (increased/decreased) * Platelets (increased/decreased) * Philadelphia chromosome (+/-) * JAK2 mutations(+/-)
* Type of disorder * Chronic myeloproliferative disorder * Definition * Fibrotic obliteration of bone marrow [C]. * **_Teardrop_** RBCs and immature forms of the myeloid line. * **“Bone marrow is _crying_ because it’s fibrosed.”** * RBCs * Decreased * WBCs * Variable * Platelets * Variable * Philadelphia chromosome * (-) * JAK2 mutations * (+) (30-50%)
38
CML * Type of disorder * Definition * Treatment * RBCs (increased/decreased) * WBCs (increased/decreased) * Platelets (increased/decreased) * Philadelphia chromosome (+/-) * JAK2 mutations(+/-)
* Type of disorder * Chronic myeloproliferative disorder * Definition * bcr-abl transformation leads to increased cell division and inhibition of apoptosis. * Treatment * Imatinib (Gleevec). * RBCs * Decreased * WBCs * Increased * Platelets * Increased * Philadelphia chromosome * (+) * JAK2 mutations * (-)
39
Polycythemia * For each * Plasma volume (increased/decreased) * RBC mass (increased/decreased) * O2 saturation (increased/decreased) * EPO levels (increased/decreased) * Associations * Relative * Appropriate absolute * Inappropriate absolute * Polycythemia vera
* Relative * _Plasma volume_: Decreased * _RBC mass_: No effect * _O2 saturation_: No effect * _EPO levels_: No effect * _Associations_: decreased plasma volume (dehydration, burns). * Appropriate absolute * _Plasma volume_: No effect * _RBC mass_: Increased * _O2 saturation_: Decreased * _EPO levels_: Increased * _Associations_: Lung disease, congenital heart disease, high altitude. * Inappropriate absolute * _Plasma volume_: No effect * _RBC mass_: Increased * _O2 saturation_: No effect * _EPO levels_: Increased * _Associations_: Renal cell carcinoma, Wilms tumor, cyst, hepatocellular carcinoma, hydronephrosis. * Due to ectopic EPO. * Polycythemia vera * _Plasma volume_: Increased * _RBC mass_: Really increased * _O2 saturation_: No effect * _EPO levels_: Decreased * _Associations_: Due to negative feedback.