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Flashcards in Microbiology Deck (187)
1

Mot common cause of UTI

E. coli

2

Most common cause of infant meningitis

E. coli

3

What infection is caught from raw milk and is especially dangerous for pregnant women and newborns?

Listeria

4

What is the route of transmission of Yersinia pestis?

Rat-flea-man

5

What bacteria is associated with buboes?

Yersinia pestis

6

What bacteria causes severe gastroenteritis and can be caught from shellfish? (3)

Yersinia enterocolitica
Vibrio parahemolyticus
Samonella typhi

7

What bacteria causes pneumonia in immunocompromised patients?

Klebsiella pneumoniae

8

What red colored organism causes UTI in debilitated patients?

Serratia

9

Which of the following is not a lactose fermenter: Proteus, E. coli, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Serratia

Proteus

10

Which bacteria that produces urease is often associated with UTIs especially after catheterization?

Proteus

11

What species causes typhoid fever?

Salmonella typhi

12

What species causes typhus?

Rickettsia prowazeki

13

Which organism can exist chronically in the gallbladder?

Salmonella tyhpii

14

What organism causes rose colored spots on the abdomen, high fever and possible perforation of the abdomen?

Salmonella typhii

15

What organism, having many animal reservoirs, produces endotoxin and is a common cause of food poisoning in the US?

Salmonella enterides

16

Salmonella choleosius causes what 3 things?

pneumonia, osteomyelitis, meningitis

17

What causes bacillary dysentery?

Shigella dysenteriae

18

What gram pos cocci is catalase positive?

Staph aureus

19

What gram pos cocci is catalase negative?

Strep pneumoniae

20

Compare salmonella and staph food poisoning in terms of incubation period

Staph: 4-8 hours incubation, due to exotoxin production
Strep: 10-28 hours because the cells have to die in order to release the exotoxin

21

What organism causes boils, carbuncles and impetigo?

Staph aureus

22

Two possible organism involved in impetigo are:

staph aureus, streptococcus pyogenes (Group A beta-hemolytic)

23

What type of toxin is responsible for the scalded skin syndrome of staph aureus infection?

Exfoliatin

24

T/F: Staph aureus can be killed with penicillin

False: it secretes penicillinase which destroys penicillin

25

What organism is associated with toxic shock syndrome?

Staph aureus

26

The catalase test is diagnostic for what organism?

staph aureus

27

What organism has hemolysis as a diagnostic feature?

steptococcus

28

What organism is responsible for scarlet fever?

Strep pyogenes

29

What is an important sequelae to know of concerning strep ?

Rheumatic fever

30

Glomerulonephritis can follow what infection?

Strep

31

In what type of Strep infection is the capsule pathogenic?

Strep. pneumoniae

32

How does gonorrhea usually present in males?

urethritis, purulent discharge

33

How dies gonorrhea present in females and what are the complications?

usu asymptomatic, complications are PID or salpingitis

34

What STD grows on a Thayer-Martin agar in CO2?

Neisseria gonorrhea

35

Which STD is oxidase positive?

Neisseria gonorrhea

36

Patient comes in with fever, N/V stiff neck and petechiae. What is likely diagnosis?

Neisseria meningitidis infection

37

What disease can you get from home canned products?

Clostridium botulinum

38

Infection with clostridium botulinum is associated with what type of paralysis?

flaccid, top-down

39

What causes gas gangrene?

Clostridium perfringens

40

People who handle livestock are susceptible to what kind of infection?

Bacillus anthracis

41

What is a complication of diphtheria?

Respiratory paralysis and death

42

What infection has a grey pseudomembrane in the throat?

Corynebacterium diptheriae

43

Clostridium tetani causes what kind of paralysis?

spastic paralysis

44

Rice water stool is associated with what infection?

vibrio cholera

45

What organism is associated with hot tubs and can cause folliculitis?

pseudomonas

46

What is a common cause of Otitis media in children, and can cause meningitis and pneumonia?

Haemophilus influenza

47

What causes chancroid?

hemophilus ducreyi

48

Which STD has a painful ragged ulcer?

Hemophilus ducreyi

49

What can be diagnosed with clue cells seen on a smear?

Gardnerella infx

50

What organism grows around Staph aureus on an agar plate?

Haemophilus influenza

51

What causes whooping cough?

Bordatella pertussis

52

Rabbit fever is caused by what organism?

Francisella tularensis

53

How is tularemia spread?

infected tick bites

54

What disease is walled off in the body by granulomas?

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

55

What is the skin test for TB called?

Mantoux skin test

56

What is the TB immunization called?

BCG

57

How is Brucella transmitted?

raw milk

58

How is TB transmitted?

respiratory droplets

59

What kind of immune response does the body have to TB?

cell mediated, no antibodies

60

What is TB infection that has spread into the blood called?

Miliary TB

61

What are the 2 types of leprosy?

Lepromatous leprosy and Tuberculoid leprosy

62

Which type of leprosy is less infectious and has less bacteria present during infection?

Tuberculoid leprosy

63

Which type of leprosy is more infectious and has more bacteria present in the body during infection?

Lepromatous leprosy

64

What organism is cultured in armadillos?

Mycobacterium leprae

65

The chancre, a bulls eye lesion, is associated with what disease?

Treponema pallidum (syphillis)

66

When is syphillis infectious?

primary and secondary infections

67

What kind of organism causes lyme disease and syphillis?

spirochete bacteriae

68

The mucocutaneous lesion of syphilis is found in which phase?

secondary phase

69

The gummas of syphilis appear in what stage of syphilis?

tertiary

70

What is Hutchinsons triad and what is it caused by?

Congential syphilis, causes impaired vision, notched teeth and impaired hearing

71

Yaws is caused by what?

Treponema pertenue

72

What are some of the lab tests for syphilis?

VDRL, FTA-Abs, RPR

73

What does treponema vincentii cause?

Trench mouth

74

In what stage is syphilis most infectious?

secondary stage

75

What organism causes Glue ear?

Hemophilus influenze

76

What organism has a blue-green pigment and is associated with skin and especially burn infections?

Pseudomonas aeriginosa

77

Condylomata late are associated with what disease?

secondary , mucocutaneous lesion of syphilis

78

What is the vector for lyme disease?

deer tick

79

What disease has a spreading circular lesion called Erythema migrans?

Lyme disease

80

Lyme disease closely parallels what other disease in it's primary, secondary and tertiary symptoms?

syphilis

81

What organism causes infectious jaundice?

Leptospira interrogans

82

What causes rat bite fever?

Spirillum

83

What organism contracted from raw milk causes body diarrhea and can mimic appendicitis?

Campylobacter fetus jejuni

84

What organism is implicated in causing peptic ulcers?

Helicobacter pylori/jejuni

85

What causes walking pneumonia?

Mycobacterium pneumonia

86

What is so special about mycoplasma species?

no cell wall and therefore are resistant to penicillin

87

What sexually transmitted organism requires cholesterol and urea?

ureaplasma

88

Ureaplasma causes what kind of infection?

non-gonococcal urethritis

89

What species or organisms are transmitted by arthropods?

Rickettsiae

90

What causes epidemic typhus?

Rickettsiae prowazeki

91

What causes endemic typhus?

Rickettsiae typhi

92

Rickettsiae type affects which type of cells?

endothelial cells

93

What is the vector for Rickettsiae prowazeki?

louse

94

What is the vector for Rickettsiae typhi?

flea

95

What is the only rickettsial disease with no vector?

Q fever- Coxiella burnetti

96

What are some symptoms of typhus?

macular rash, high fever, acute bacteremia

97

What is the organism responsible for Rocky Mountain fever?

Ricketssiae Ricketsii

98

How if the Rock Mountain fever transmitted?

ticks

99

What STD is associated with chronic conjunctivitis and blindness?

chlamydia trachomatis

100

What disease is associated with standing water, e.g. in air-conditioning systems?

legionella pneumophilla

101

What disease is associated with birds?

Chlamydia psittici

102

What does chlamydia cause?

Conjunctivits, urethritis, cervicitis, salpingitis, lymphgranuloma venerum

103

What is the most common cause of epididymitis in men?

Chlamydia trachomatis

104

Parrot fever is the common name for what infection?

Chlamydia psittici

105

What fungus-like bacteria can mimic TB?

Norcadia

106

What causes lumpy jaw?

Actinomyces

107

What is the name for trench fever?

Rochalimaea quintana

108

What is the common name for coccidiodes immitis?

valley fever

109

How do yeast reproduce?

budding

110

How do molds reproduce?

by forming tubular structures

111

What fungi is associated with bat and bird feces?

Histoplasma capsulatum

112

What large capsulated yeast is commonly found in pigeon droppings?

cryptococcus neoformans

113

What causes status asthmaticus?

aspergillus

114

What is the medical name for ring worm?

Tinea corporis

115

How is tinea diagnosed?

KOH wet mount

116

What is jock itch?

Tinea cruris

117

What opportunistic yeast commonly affects immunocompromised patients?

candida albicans

118

What causes amoebic dysentery?

Entamoeba histolytica

119

What causes beaver fever?

Giardia lamblia

120

Which of the following is NOT a cause of bloody diarrhea: Shigella dysenteriae, Campylobacter jejuni, Giardia lambda, Entamoeba histolytica

Giardia lamblia

121

Which parasite interferes with fat absorption?

Giardia lamblia

122

T/F: Trichomonas has no cysts

True

123

Pneumocystitis carnii is a problem for what type of patient?

immunocompromised

124

Who is at risk for toxoplasmosis gone infection?

pregnant women (fetus)

125

What parasite is associated with cats?

Toxoplasmosis gondii

126

What is the common name for Ascaris lumbricoides?

Human roundworm

127

What is the common name for Necato americanus?

Hookworm

128

What parasite causes spoon nails, anemia and stunted growth?

Hookworm

129

What parasite can be contracted from pork or bear meat?

Trichinella spiralis

130

What is the vector for malaria?

mosquito

131

What does plasmodium species of parasites cause?

malaria

132

What parasite is associated with dog and cat feces?

Toxocara canis or catis

133

How is filariasis transmitted?

Mosquito

134

What causes elephantiasis?

filariasis

135

Schistosomata is associated with what reservoir?

snails

136

Taenia is associated with which animals?

pigs, cows

137

What kind of parasite is taenia?

Beef tapeworm

138

Clonorchis is what kind of parasite?

liver fluke

139

Diphyllobothrium datum is what kind of parasite?

fish tapeworm

140

What kind of parasite is a schistosome?

a blood fluke

141

What are the 2 central lymphoid tissues?

thymus gland and bone marrow

142

What are the 3 peripheral lymphoid tissues?

lymph nodes, peyers patches, spleen

143

The role of B lymphocytes is categorized as what kind of immunity?

humoral

144

What is produced with humoral immunity?

Antibodies

145

The role of T lymphocytes is categorized as what kind of immunity?

Cell mediated

146

What type of chemical activates components of the immune system i.e.. activates macrophages, PMNs, etc?

cytokines/ lymphokines

147

What is the function of basophils?

release histamine and other chemicals that act on blood vessels

148

What is the function of neutrophils?

recognize foreign antigens and destroy the through phagocytosis

149

What is the function of eosinophils?

destroy parasitic organisms

150

What is the function of monocytes/ macrophages?

engulf foreign antigens and cell debris and process antigen and present it

151

What is the function of B lymphocytes?

independently able to indentify foreign antigens and differentiate into antibody producing plasma and memory cells

152

What chemical produced by the body stimulates B lymphocytes?

IL-2

153

What is the role of T lymphocytes?

T helper cells induce B lymphocytes. T suppressor cells recognize and kill virus-infected cells

154

What is the function of natural killer cells?

cell that bond to and lyse other cells especially virally-infected cells

155

What is the principal immunoglobulin in exocrine secretions (e.g. breast milk, respiratory and intestinal mucus, saliva, tears)?

IgA

156

What immunoglobulin can move across the placenta thus becoming an important immunoglobulin for newborns?

IgG

157

What is the main immunoglobulin in serum?

IgG

158

What immunoglobulin activates complement and is important in opsonization?

IgG

159

What immunoglobulin attaches to mast cells in the respiratory and intestinal tracts and plays a role in allergic responses?

IgE

160

What immunoglobulin is the first to form in response to an infection?

IgM

161

What immunoglobulin controls the A, B, O blood group antibody response?

IgM

162

Antigens present on all nucleated cells in the body that identify a cell as self are called what?

HLA

163

What is a hapten?

substance that normally does not act as an antigen

164

Complement is activated in what kind of immune response?

B-cell mediated immune response

165

What kind of proteins are involved in vasodilation, chemotaxis, opsonization of antigens, lysis of cells and blood clotting?

complement

166

What is opsonization?

coat placed on cells so that they can be recognized

167

What role does interferon play?

interferon is released when invading organisms are viral. They inhibit the production of virally infected cells, prevent viral spread, enhance activity of macrophages, NK cells, cytotoxic T cells and inhibit tumor growth

168

Which interleukin permits cells of the immune system to talk to one another and intimate responses?

IL 1

169

Which interleukin promotes cellular immunity ie. promote growth and activity of macrophages and B cells?

IL 2

170

Which interleukins promote humoral immunity?

IL 4, 5, 10

171

Antibodies are produced in what type of immunity?

humoral

172

Hayfever is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

Type 1

173

IgE is formed in what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

type 1

174

The reaction of antigens and antibodies at cell surfaces is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

Type 2

175

The reaction to blood transfusions would be what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

Type 2

176

The reaction os antigen and antibody in extracellular fluid spaces is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

Type 3

177

A cell mediated or delayed reaction meditated by the interaction of antigen and T lymphocytes and subsequent release of lymphokines is an example of what type of immunity?

Type 4

178

Tuberculosis is an example of what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

Type 4

179

Loss of normal tolerance by the immune system of "self" antigens on the surface of the body's cells and destruction of normal tissue with autoantibodies is defined as what?

autoimmunity

180

What is the name of genital warts?

condyloma accuminata

181

What is the name of the virus that causes measles?

Rubeola

182

Downey cells or atypical lymphocytes are seen in what infection?

Epstein Barr Virus

183

Why does Hep B have a potential carrier state?

Viral DNA is integrated in the chromosome of the host cell

184

Pandemics of flu are associated with what?

antigenic shift, major changes in viral RNA

185

Which polio vaccines is alive attenuated and given orally?

Sabin

186

Which polio vaccine is inactivated, multivalent and injectable?

Salk

187

How does polio cause paralysis?

destroying motor neurons in anterior horn and medulla