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NPLEX I > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Mot common cause of UTI

A

E. coli

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2
Q

Most common cause of infant meningitis

A

E. coli

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3
Q

What infection is caught from raw milk and is especially dangerous for pregnant women and newborns?

A

Listeria

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4
Q

What is the route of transmission of Yersinia pestis?

A

Rat-flea-man

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5
Q

What bacteria is associated with buboes?

A

Yersinia pestis

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6
Q

What bacteria causes severe gastroenteritis and can be caught from shellfish? (3)

A

Yersinia enterocolitica
Vibrio parahemolyticus
Samonella typhi

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7
Q

What bacteria causes pneumonia in immunocompromised patients?

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

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8
Q

What red colored organism causes UTI in debilitated patients?

A

Serratia

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9
Q

Which of the following is not a lactose fermenter: Proteus, E. coli, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Serratia

A

Proteus

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10
Q

Which bacteria that produces urease is often associated with UTIs especially after catheterization?

A

Proteus

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11
Q

What species causes typhoid fever?

A

Salmonella typhi

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12
Q

What species causes typhus?

A

Rickettsia prowazeki

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13
Q

Which organism can exist chronically in the gallbladder?

A

Salmonella tyhpii

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14
Q

What organism causes rose colored spots on the abdomen, high fever and possible perforation of the abdomen?

A

Salmonella typhii

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15
Q

What organism, having many animal reservoirs, produces endotoxin and is a common cause of food poisoning in the US?

A

Salmonella enterides

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16
Q

Salmonella choleosius causes what 3 things?

A

pneumonia, osteomyelitis, meningitis

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17
Q

What causes bacillary dysentery?

A

Shigella dysenteriae

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18
Q

What gram pos cocci is catalase positive?

A

Staph aureus

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19
Q

What gram pos cocci is catalase negative?

A

Strep pneumoniae

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20
Q

Compare salmonella and staph food poisoning in terms of incubation period

A

Staph: 4-8 hours incubation, due to exotoxin production
Strep: 10-28 hours because the cells have to die in order to release the exotoxin

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21
Q

What organism causes boils, carbuncles and impetigo?

A

Staph aureus

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22
Q

Two possible organism involved in impetigo are:

A

staph aureus, streptococcus pyogenes (Group A beta-hemolytic)

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23
Q

What type of toxin is responsible for the scalded skin syndrome of staph aureus infection?

A

Exfoliatin

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24
Q

T/F: Staph aureus can be killed with penicillin

A

False: it secretes penicillinase which destroys penicillin

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25
Q

What organism is associated with toxic shock syndrome?

A

Staph aureus

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26
Q

The catalase test is diagnostic for what organism?

A

staph aureus

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27
Q

What organism has hemolysis as a diagnostic feature?

A

steptococcus

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28
Q

What organism is responsible for scarlet fever?

A

Strep pyogenes

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29
Q

What is an important sequelae to know of concerning strep ?

A

Rheumatic fever

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30
Q

Glomerulonephritis can follow what infection?

A

Strep

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31
Q

In what type of Strep infection is the capsule pathogenic?

A

Strep. pneumoniae

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32
Q

How does gonorrhea usually present in males?

A

urethritis, purulent discharge

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33
Q

How dies gonorrhea present in females and what are the complications?

A

usu asymptomatic, complications are PID or salpingitis

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34
Q

What STD grows on a Thayer-Martin agar in CO2?

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

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35
Q

Which STD is oxidase positive?

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

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36
Q

Patient comes in with fever, N/V stiff neck and petechiae. What is likely diagnosis?

A

Neisseria meningitidis infection

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37
Q

What disease can you get from home canned products?

A

Clostridium botulinum

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38
Q

Infection with clostridium botulinum is associated with what type of paralysis?

A

flaccid, top-down

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39
Q

What causes gas gangrene?

A

Clostridium perfringens

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40
Q

People who handle livestock are susceptible to what kind of infection?

A

Bacillus anthracis

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41
Q

What is a complication of diphtheria?

A

Respiratory paralysis and death

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42
Q

What infection has a grey pseudomembrane in the throat?

A

Corynebacterium diptheriae

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43
Q

Clostridium tetani causes what kind of paralysis?

A

spastic paralysis

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44
Q

Rice water stool is associated with what infection?

A

vibrio cholera

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45
Q

What organism is associated with hot tubs and can cause folliculitis?

A

pseudomonas

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46
Q

What is a common cause of Otitis media in children, and can cause meningitis and pneumonia?

A

Haemophilus influenza

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47
Q

What causes chancroid?

A

hemophilus ducreyi

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48
Q

Which STD has a painful ragged ulcer?

A

Hemophilus ducreyi

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49
Q

What can be diagnosed with clue cells seen on a smear?

A

Gardnerella infx

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50
Q

What organism grows around Staph aureus on an agar plate?

A

Haemophilus influenza

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51
Q

What causes whooping cough?

A

Bordatella pertussis

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52
Q

Rabbit fever is caused by what organism?

A

Francisella tularensis

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53
Q

How is tularemia spread?

A

infected tick bites

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54
Q

What disease is walled off in the body by granulomas?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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55
Q

What is the skin test for TB called?

A

Mantoux skin test

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56
Q

What is the TB immunization called?

A

BCG

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57
Q

How is Brucella transmitted?

A

raw milk

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58
Q

How is TB transmitted?

A

respiratory droplets

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59
Q

What kind of immune response does the body have to TB?

A

cell mediated, no antibodies

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60
Q

What is TB infection that has spread into the blood called?

A

Miliary TB

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61
Q

What are the 2 types of leprosy?

A

Lepromatous leprosy and Tuberculoid leprosy

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62
Q

Which type of leprosy is less infectious and has less bacteria present during infection?

A

Tuberculoid leprosy

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63
Q

Which type of leprosy is more infectious and has more bacteria present in the body during infection?

A

Lepromatous leprosy

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64
Q

What organism is cultured in armadillos?

A

Mycobacterium leprae

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65
Q

The chancre, a bulls eye lesion, is associated with what disease?

A

Treponema pallidum (syphillis)

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66
Q

When is syphillis infectious?

A

primary and secondary infections

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67
Q

What kind of organism causes lyme disease and syphillis?

A

spirochete bacteriae

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68
Q

The mucocutaneous lesion of syphilis is found in which phase?

A

secondary phase

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69
Q

The gummas of syphilis appear in what stage of syphilis?

A

tertiary

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70
Q

What is Hutchinsons triad and what is it caused by?

A

Congential syphilis, causes impaired vision, notched teeth and impaired hearing

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71
Q

Yaws is caused by what?

A

Treponema pertenue

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72
Q

What are some of the lab tests for syphilis?

A

VDRL, FTA-Abs, RPR

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73
Q

What does treponema vincentii cause?

A

Trench mouth

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74
Q

In what stage is syphilis most infectious?

A

secondary stage

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75
Q

What organism causes Glue ear?

A

Hemophilus influenze

76
Q

What organism has a blue-green pigment and is associated with skin and especially burn infections?

A

Pseudomonas aeriginosa

77
Q

Condylomata late are associated with what disease?

A

secondary , mucocutaneous lesion of syphilis

78
Q

What is the vector for lyme disease?

A

deer tick

79
Q

What disease has a spreading circular lesion called Erythema migrans?

A

Lyme disease

80
Q

Lyme disease closely parallels what other disease in it’s primary, secondary and tertiary symptoms?

A

syphilis

81
Q

What organism causes infectious jaundice?

A

Leptospira interrogans

82
Q

What causes rat bite fever?

A

Spirillum

83
Q

What organism contracted from raw milk causes body diarrhea and can mimic appendicitis?

A

Campylobacter fetus jejuni

84
Q

What organism is implicated in causing peptic ulcers?

A

Helicobacter pylori/jejuni

85
Q

What causes walking pneumonia?

A

Mycobacterium pneumonia

86
Q

What is so special about mycoplasma species?

A

no cell wall and therefore are resistant to penicillin

87
Q

What sexually transmitted organism requires cholesterol and urea?

A

ureaplasma

88
Q

Ureaplasma causes what kind of infection?

A

non-gonococcal urethritis

89
Q

What species or organisms are transmitted by arthropods?

A

Rickettsiae

90
Q

What causes epidemic typhus?

A

Rickettsiae prowazeki

91
Q

What causes endemic typhus?

A

Rickettsiae typhi

92
Q

Rickettsiae type affects which type of cells?

A

endothelial cells

93
Q

What is the vector for Rickettsiae prowazeki?

A

louse

94
Q

What is the vector for Rickettsiae typhi?

A

flea

95
Q

What is the only rickettsial disease with no vector?

A

Q fever- Coxiella burnetti

96
Q

What are some symptoms of typhus?

A

macular rash, high fever, acute bacteremia

97
Q

What is the organism responsible for Rocky Mountain fever?

A

Ricketssiae Ricketsii

98
Q

How if the Rock Mountain fever transmitted?

A

ticks

99
Q

What STD is associated with chronic conjunctivitis and blindness?

A

chlamydia trachomatis

100
Q

What disease is associated with standing water, e.g. in air-conditioning systems?

A

legionella pneumophilla

101
Q

What disease is associated with birds?

A

Chlamydia psittici

102
Q

What does chlamydia cause?

A

Conjunctivits, urethritis, cervicitis, salpingitis, lymphgranuloma venerum

103
Q

What is the most common cause of epididymitis in men?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

104
Q

Parrot fever is the common name for what infection?

A

Chlamydia psittici

105
Q

What fungus-like bacteria can mimic TB?

A

Norcadia

106
Q

What causes lumpy jaw?

A

Actinomyces

107
Q

What is the name for trench fever?

A

Rochalimaea quintana

108
Q

What is the common name for coccidiodes immitis?

A

valley fever

109
Q

How do yeast reproduce?

A

budding

110
Q

How do molds reproduce?

A

by forming tubular structures

111
Q

What fungi is associated with bat and bird feces?

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

112
Q

What large capsulated yeast is commonly found in pigeon droppings?

A

cryptococcus neoformans

113
Q

What causes status asthmaticus?

A

aspergillus

114
Q

What is the medical name for ring worm?

A

Tinea corporis

115
Q

How is tinea diagnosed?

A

KOH wet mount

116
Q

What is jock itch?

A

Tinea cruris

117
Q

What opportunistic yeast commonly affects immunocompromised patients?

A

candida albicans

118
Q

What causes amoebic dysentery?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

119
Q

What causes beaver fever?

A

Giardia lamblia

120
Q

Which of the following is NOT a cause of bloody diarrhea: Shigella dysenteriae, Campylobacter jejuni, Giardia lambda, Entamoeba histolytica

A

Giardia lamblia

121
Q

Which parasite interferes with fat absorption?

A

Giardia lamblia

122
Q

T/F: Trichomonas has no cysts

A

True

123
Q

Pneumocystitis carnii is a problem for what type of patient?

A

immunocompromised

124
Q

Who is at risk for toxoplasmosis gone infection?

A

pregnant women (fetus)

125
Q

What parasite is associated with cats?

A

Toxoplasmosis gondii

126
Q

What is the common name for Ascaris lumbricoides?

A

Human roundworm

127
Q

What is the common name for Necato americanus?

A

Hookworm

128
Q

What parasite causes spoon nails, anemia and stunted growth?

A

Hookworm

129
Q

What parasite can be contracted from pork or bear meat?

A

Trichinella spiralis

130
Q

What is the vector for malaria?

A

mosquito

131
Q

What does plasmodium species of parasites cause?

A

malaria

132
Q

What parasite is associated with dog and cat feces?

A

Toxocara canis or catis

133
Q

How is filariasis transmitted?

A

Mosquito

134
Q

What causes elephantiasis?

A

filariasis

135
Q

Schistosomata is associated with what reservoir?

A

snails

136
Q

Taenia is associated with which animals?

A

pigs, cows

137
Q

What kind of parasite is taenia?

A

Beef tapeworm

138
Q

Clonorchis is what kind of parasite?

A

liver fluke

139
Q

Diphyllobothrium datum is what kind of parasite?

A

fish tapeworm

140
Q

What kind of parasite is a schistosome?

A

a blood fluke

141
Q

What are the 2 central lymphoid tissues?

A

thymus gland and bone marrow

142
Q

What are the 3 peripheral lymphoid tissues?

A

lymph nodes, peyers patches, spleen

143
Q

The role of B lymphocytes is categorized as what kind of immunity?

A

humoral

144
Q

What is produced with humoral immunity?

A

Antibodies

145
Q

The role of T lymphocytes is categorized as what kind of immunity?

A

Cell mediated

146
Q

What type of chemical activates components of the immune system i.e.. activates macrophages, PMNs, etc?

A

cytokines/ lymphokines

147
Q

What is the function of basophils?

A

release histamine and other chemicals that act on blood vessels

148
Q

What is the function of neutrophils?

A

recognize foreign antigens and destroy the through phagocytosis

149
Q

What is the function of eosinophils?

A

destroy parasitic organisms

150
Q

What is the function of monocytes/ macrophages?

A

engulf foreign antigens and cell debris and process antigen and present it

151
Q

What is the function of B lymphocytes?

A

independently able to indentify foreign antigens and differentiate into antibody producing plasma and memory cells

152
Q

What chemical produced by the body stimulates B lymphocytes?

A

IL-2

153
Q

What is the role of T lymphocytes?

A

T helper cells induce B lymphocytes. T suppressor cells recognize and kill virus-infected cells

154
Q

What is the function of natural killer cells?

A

cell that bond to and lyse other cells especially virally-infected cells

155
Q

What is the principal immunoglobulin in exocrine secretions (e.g. breast milk, respiratory and intestinal mucus, saliva, tears)?

A

IgA

156
Q

What immunoglobulin can move across the placenta thus becoming an important immunoglobulin for newborns?

A

IgG

157
Q

What is the main immunoglobulin in serum?

A

IgG

158
Q

What immunoglobulin activates complement and is important in opsonization?

A

IgG

159
Q

What immunoglobulin attaches to mast cells in the respiratory and intestinal tracts and plays a role in allergic responses?

A

IgE

160
Q

What immunoglobulin is the first to form in response to an infection?

A

IgM

161
Q

What immunoglobulin controls the A, B, O blood group antibody response?

A

IgM

162
Q

Antigens present on all nucleated cells in the body that identify a cell as self are called what?

A

HLA

163
Q

What is a hapten?

A

substance that normally does not act as an antigen

164
Q

Complement is activated in what kind of immune response?

A

B-cell mediated immune response

165
Q

What kind of proteins are involved in vasodilation, chemotaxis, opsonization of antigens, lysis of cells and blood clotting?

A

complement

166
Q

What is opsonization?

A

coat placed on cells so that they can be recognized

167
Q

What role does interferon play?

A

interferon is released when invading organisms are viral. They inhibit the production of virally infected cells, prevent viral spread, enhance activity of macrophages, NK cells, cytotoxic T cells and inhibit tumor growth

168
Q

Which interleukin permits cells of the immune system to talk to one another and intimate responses?

A

IL 1

169
Q

Which interleukin promotes cellular immunity ie. promote growth and activity of macrophages and B cells?

A

IL 2

170
Q

Which interleukins promote humoral immunity?

A

IL 4, 5, 10

171
Q

Antibodies are produced in what type of immunity?

A

humoral

172
Q

Hayfever is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type 1

173
Q

IgE is formed in what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

type 1

174
Q

The reaction of antigens and antibodies at cell surfaces is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type 2

175
Q

The reaction to blood transfusions would be what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type 2

176
Q

The reaction os antigen and antibody in extracellular fluid spaces is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type 3

177
Q

A cell mediated or delayed reaction meditated by the interaction of antigen and T lymphocytes and subsequent release of lymphokines is an example of what type of immunity?

A

Type 4

178
Q

Tuberculosis is an example of what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type 4

179
Q

Loss of normal tolerance by the immune system of “self” antigens on the surface of the body’s cells and destruction of normal tissue with autoantibodies is defined as what?

A

autoimmunity

180
Q

What is the name of genital warts?

A

condyloma accuminata

181
Q

What is the name of the virus that causes measles?

A

Rubeola

182
Q

Downey cells or atypical lymphocytes are seen in what infection?

A

Epstein Barr Virus

183
Q

Why does Hep B have a potential carrier state?

A

Viral DNA is integrated in the chromosome of the host cell

184
Q

Pandemics of flu are associated with what?

A

antigenic shift, major changes in viral RNA

185
Q

Which polio vaccines is alive attenuated and given orally?

A

Sabin

186
Q

Which polio vaccine is inactivated, multivalent and injectable?

A

Salk

187
Q

How does polio cause paralysis?

A

destroying motor neurons in anterior horn and medulla

NPLEX I (22 decks)

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