MODULE 1 Flashcards by Gabrielle Sodusta

Which of the following scientists created the framework that became the modern periodic table?

A. Antoine Laurent Lavoisier
B. Dmitri Mendeleev®
C. Gilbert Lewis
D. J.J. Thomson

Dmitri Mendeleev

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Which of the following scientists is the father of chemistry

a. Dmitri Mendeleev
b. John Dalton
c. Antoine Laurent Lavoiser
d. Ernest Rutherford

Antoine Laurent Lavoiser

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Which law states that when two elements combine with each other to form more than one compound,the weights of one element that combine with a fixed weight of the other are in ratio of small whole numbers?

a. Law of Multiple Proportions
b. Periodic Law
c. Law of Definite Proportions
d. Avogadro’s Law

Law of multiple proportions

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Which of the following scientists discovered protons?

a. James Chadwick
b. Ernest Rutherford
c. Linus Pauling
d. Joseph Proust

Ernest Rutherford

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Which law states samples of a compound will always contain the same proportion of elements by mass

a. Law of Multiple Proportions
b. Periodic Law
c. Law of Definite Proportions
d. Avogadro’s La

Law of Definite Proportions

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The chemical formula of perchlorate ion

a. ClO-
b. C1O3-
c. CIO4-
d. ClO2-

ClO4

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Which of the following is the biggest element?

a. Calcium
b. Bromine
c. Potassium
d. Arsenic

Potassium

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Which of the following elements has the highest electronegativity?

a. Chlorine
b. lodine
c. Fluorine
d. Astatine

Fluorine

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Which of the following is a Ketone?

a. RCOOR
b. ROR
c. RCOR
d. ROH

RCOR

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Which of the following is an Arrhenius base?

a. CO2-2
b. HCI
c. CH3C00-
d. Mg(OH2)

Mg (OH2)

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Which theories states that any species that can donate a proton, H+ is an acid?

a. Bronsted-Lowry Theory
b. Lewis Theory
c. Arrhenius Theory
d. Electron Donor Theory

Bronsted-Lowry Theory

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Copper leads to which of the following toxicity?

a. Osteomalacia
b. Parakeratosis
c. Argyria
d. Wilson’s Disease

Wilson’s Disease

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Cadmium leads to which of the following toxicity?

a. Baritosis
b. Itai-itai Poisoning
c. Wilson’s Disease
d. Parakeratosis

Itai-itai Poisoning

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Which of the following is the antidote for copper poisoning?

a. Saline solution
b. Penicillamine
c. BAL
d. Magnesium sulfate

Penicillamine

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Which of the following is the antidote for Iron toxicity?

a. Penicillamine
b. Copper sulfate
c. Deferoxamine
d. Saline solution

Deferoxamine

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What is the chemical name for Epsom Salt?

a. Sodium chloride
b. Potassium fluoride
c. Calcium carbonate
d. Magnesium sulfate

Magnesium sulfate

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Which of the following is the most abundant extracellular anion?

a. Chloride Ion
b. Potassium Ion
c. Sodium Io
d. Magnesium Ion

Chloride Ion

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Which of the following is the second most abundant intracellular cation?

a. Calcium ion
b. Magnesium ion
c. Sodium ion
d. Potassium ion

Magnesium ion

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What is the chemical name of Green Vitriol?

a. Ferrous Sulfate Heptahydrate
b. Zinc Sulfate Heptahydrate
c. Magnesium Sulfate Heptahydrate
d. Copper Sulfate Pentahydrate

Ferrous Sulfate Heptahydrate

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What is the Chemical formula of White Vitriol

a. CuSO4.5H2O
b. MgSO4.7H2O
c. ZnSO4.7H2O
d. FeSO4.7H2O

ZnSO4.7H2O

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What is the color of Helium tank/containers?

a. Green
b. Brown
c. Red
d. Yellow

Brown

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What metal is present in Insulin?

a. Magnesium
b. Manganese
c. Zinc
d. Nickel

Zinc

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What is the chemical name of White lotion?

a. Hydrogen sulfide
b. Magnesium stearate
c. Cadmium sulfide
d. Zinc Sulfide

Zinc Sulfide

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What is the metal present in cofactor of enzymes flavin dependent enzymes?

a. Iodine
b. Fluorine
c. Molybdenum
d. Zinc

Molybdenum

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What can cause lobster appearance? a. Boric Acid b. Cadmium Sulfide c. Hydrated Zinc Silicate d. Potassium nitrate

Boric Acid

What is the common name of calcium sulfate? a. Epsom salt b. Lover’s ink c. Plaster of Paris d. Green vitriol

Plaster of Paris

What is the percentage of hydrogen peroxide as antiseptic? a. 12% b. 3% c. 6% d. 9%

Which of the following is a urinary acidifier? a. Sodium carbonate c. Ammonium Chloride b. Sodium acetate d. Potassium bicarbonate

Ammonium Chloride

What is the concentration of iodine in Povidone Iodine? a. 10% b. 5% c. 3% d. 2%

Which of the following is used as a suspending agent in calamine lotion? a. Kaolin b. Bentonite c. Pumice d. Zinc Sulfate

Bentonite

Which of the following elements produces a Crimson red flame during a flame test? a. Calcium b. Lithium c. Barium d. Strontium

Strontium

Which of the following elements produces a green flame during a flame test? a. Barium b. Calcium c. Sodium d. Arsenic

Barium

Which of the following group of cations does not have a common precipitating agent? a. Chloride Insoluble group b. Base insoluble group c. Soluble group d. Acid insoluble group

Soluble group

Which of the following elements is used for its depressant action? a. Calcium b. Lithium c. Potassium d. Sodium

Lithium

Which antiviral drug was formerly used to treat Parkinsonism? a. Acyclovir b. Zidovudine c. Amantadine d. Abacavir

Amantadine

What is the lightest of all elements? a. Oxygen b. Hydrogen c. Lithium d. Aluminum

Hydrogen

What is the antidote for Iodine toxicity? a. Epsom salt b. Starch c. Saline solution d. BAL

Starch

Which of the following block protease enzyme to stop viral replication? a. Saquinavir b. Amantadine c. Acyclovir d. Zanamivir

Saquinavir

During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur? a. G1 Phase b. G2 Phase c. M Phase d. S Phase

S Phase

What is the mechanism of action of Ifosfamide? a. Alkylation of DNA b. Intercalation c. Inhibit Topoisomerase I d. Inhibit microtubule assembly

Alkylation of DNA

Which phase of the cell cycle is inhibited by antitumor antibiotics? a. G1 Phase b. G2 Phase c. M Phase d. S Phase

S Phase

Which of the following drugs causes cardiotoxicity? a. Bleomycin b. Doxorubicin c. Methotrexate d. Ifosfamide

Doxorubicin

What is the mechanism of action of 5-fluorouracil? a. Inhibit dihydrofolate reductase b. Inhibit Topoisomerase I enzyme c. Inhibit thymidylate synthase d. Prevent microtubule assembly

Inhibit thymidylate synthase

Which phase of the cell cycle is inhibited by ifosfamide? a. G1 Phase b. G2 Phase c. M Phase d. S Phase

G1 Phase

Which of the following is a folic acid analog? a. Ifosfamide b. Methotrexate c. Carmustine d. Paclitaxel

Methotrexate

Which of the following anticancer drugs causes Hand-Foot Syndrome? a. Methotrexate b. 5-Fluorouracil c. Cisplatin d. Busulfan

5-Fluorouracil

Which of the following is true regarding chloral hydrate? a. Chloral hydrate stimulates the CNS b. Chloral hydrate blocks the depressant effect of ethanol c. Chloral hydrate is synergistic with ethanol d. Chloral promotes excretion of ethanol

Chloral hydrate is synergistic with ethanol

Which of the following causes extrapyramidal symptoms? a. Olanzapine b. Aripiprazole c. Ziprasidone d. Haloperidol

Haloperidol

Which of the following drugs share similar structure with phenobarbital? a. Mephensin b. Chloral hydrate c. Chlorpromazine d. Glutethimide

Glutethimide

Which of the following benzodiazepines has a duration of action of 3-8 hrs? a. Temazepam b. Diazepam c. Alprazolam d. Oxazepam

Oxazepam

Which drug is used as a nerve poisons and have been used in warfare and bioterrorism and as agricultural insecticides a. Ipratropium b. Organophosphates c. Bethanecol d. Benztropine

Organophosphates

Which of the following is an Indirect irreversible cholinergic agonist a. Bethanecol b. Ecothiopate c. Atropine d. Neostigmine

Ecothiopate

Which of the following is an Indirect reversible cholinergic agonist a. Bethanecol b. Ecothiopate c. Atropine d. Neostigmine

Neostigmine

Which of the following blocks muscarinic receptors a. Succinylcholine b. Pancuronium c. Pilocarpine d. Atropine

Atropine

Which of the following is the first beta blocker a. Propranolol b. Dichloroisoproterenol c. Metoprolol d. Atenolol

Dichloroisoproterenol

Which of the ff. is a selective beta blocker a. Solatol b. Penbutolol c. Timolol d. Atenolol

Atenolol

Naphthoxylactic acid is a major metabolite of which of the ff. Drugs a. Prazosin b. Propranolol c. Dobutamine d. Terbutaline

Propranolol

What is the mechanism of action of amantadine a. Prevent uncoating b. Inhibit DNA Polymerase c. Reverse transcriptase inhibitor d. Protease inhibitor

Prevent uncoating

What is the MOA of Acyclovir a. Prevent uncoating b. Inhibit DNA Polymerase c. Reverse transcriptase inhibitor d. Protease inhibitor

Inhibit DNA Polymerase

Identify the type of bond exist between the pointed area a. Van Der Waals forces of attraction b. Ionic bonding c. Dipole-dipole attraction d. Dipole-induced dipole attraction (Absolute negative and positive)

Ionic bonding

EVALUATE the adrenergic drug a. Drug A can be degraded by COMT b. Drug A cannot be degraded by COMT c. Drug A can be degraded by MAO d. Drug has more affinity to alpha receptors

Drug A can be degraded by COMT

Identify the type of bond exist between the pointed area a. Van Der Waals forces of attraction b. Ionic bonding c. Dipole-dipole attraction d. Dipole-induced dipole attraction (3 wavy lines)

Van Der Waals forces of attraction

Which of the ff. is the least stable against MAO

Which of the following benzodiazepines has the shortest duration of action?

with OH group

Which of the following type of alcohol has the highest CNS depressant activity

tertiary alcohol

Which of the following phenothiazines has more anticholinergic activity

Which of the following is a secondary alcohol?

How many neutrons in a barium atom? A. 137 B. 56 C. 193 D. 81

What is the mass number of the following element? A. 13 B. 27 C. 14 D. 40

How many protons are in sodium atom? A. 23 B. 11 C. 12 D. 34

THE ARE KNOWN AS FAST ACETYLATORS A. ASIANS & ESKIMOS B. ASIANS & CAUCASIANS C. ESKIMOS & CAUCASIANS D. NONE OF THE ABOVE

ASIANS & ESKIMOS

A PROCESS THAT CAN CHEMICALLY/PHYSICALLY DESTROY MOST VEGETATIVE MICROBES OR VIRUSES BUT CANNOT KILL SPORES A. SANITAZATION B. DECONTAMINATION C. ANTISEPSIS D. DISINFECTION E. STERILIZATION

DISINFECTION

UTILIZED IN STERILIZATION OF HEAT SENSITIVE MEDICAL EQUIPMENT AND PHARMACEUTICALS A. ETHYLENE OXIDE B. GLUTARALDEHYDE C. HEXACHLOROPHENE D. BOTH A AND B E. BOTH B AND C

BOTH A AND B

SHOULD BE GIVEN WITH CAUTION TO PATIENT WITH GOUT A. AMINOSALICYLIC ACID B. RIFAMPIN C. ISONIAZID D. ETHAMBUTOL E. PYRAZINAMIDE

PYRAZINAMIDE

THEORY WHICH POSTULATES THAT A RECEPTOR WILL ALWAYS BE IN A STATE OF EQUILIBRIUM BETWEEN ACTIVE AND INACTIVE STATES A. MACROMOLECULAR PERTURBATION THEORY B. ACTIVATION-AGGREGATION THEORY C. RATE THEORY D. OCCUPANCY THEORY E. INDUCED-FIT THEORY

ACTIVATION-AGGREGATION THEORY

PROVIDES 2ND PASS METABOLISM FOR DRUGS LEAVING THE LIVER A. LIVER B. GI MUCOSA C. LUNGS D. NASAL PASSAGES

LUNGS

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ANTI-TB AND ANTI-LEPROSY DRUG/S CANNOT PENETRATE THE CEREBROSPINAL FLUID A. CLOFAZIMINE B. STREPTOMYCIN C. DAPSONE D. BOTH A AND B E. BOTH B AND C

BOTH A AND B

WHAT HAPPENS WHEN ALCOHOL CHAIN LENGTH INCREASES? A. ANTIMICROBIAL ACTIVITY INCREASES B. ALCOHOL CAN EASILY GO THROUGH THE MICROBIAL MEMBRANE C. INCRAESE VAN DER WAALS INTERACTION D. ALL OF THE GIVEN CHOICES

ALL OF THE GIVEN CHOICES

RATE AND RATIO DETERMINES THE RECEPTOR’S BIOLOGICAL RESPONSE. A. ACTIVATION - AGGREGATION THEORY B. MACROMOLECULAR PERTURBATION C. INDUCED-FIT THEORY D. OCCUPANCY THEORY E. RATE THEORY

MACROMOLECULAR PERTURBATION

CHLORAMPHENICOL IS THE DRUG OF CHOICE FOR TYPHOID FEVER. MUPIRUCIN IS STRICTLY FOR EXTERNAL APPLICATION ONLY A. STATEMENT 1 IS CORRECT. STATEMENT 2 IS INCORRECT B. STATEMENT 1 IS INCORRECT. STATEMENT 2 IS CORRECT C. BOTH STATEMENTS ARE CORRECT D. BOTH STATEMENT ARE INCORRECT

BOTH STATEMENT ARE CORRECT

RESPONSE CEASES WHEN THE DRUG DISSOCIATES FROM THE RECEPTOR A. ACTIVATION - AGGREGATION THEORY B. MACROMOLECULAR PERTURBATION C. INDUCED-FIT THEORY D. OCCUPANCY THEORY E. RATE THEORY

OCCUPANCY THEORY

MDR TB IS RESISTANT TO WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DRUGS? A. ETHAMBUTOL & ETHIONAMIDE B. ISONIAZID & RIFAMPIN C. RIFAMPICIN & PYRAZINAMIDE D. STREPTOMYCIN & AMINOSALICYLIC ACID E. PYRAZINAMIDE & ISONIAZID

ISONIAZID & RIFAMPIN

ANTAGONIST INDUCED A NON SPECIFIC CONFORMATIONAL CHANGE THAT FAIL TO PRODUCE A RESPONSE A. ACTIVATION - AGGREGATION THEORY B. MACROMOLECULAR PERTURBATION C. INDUCED-FIT THEORY D. OCCUPANCY THEORY E. RATE THEORY

INDUCED-FIT THEORY

ACTIVATION IS PROPORTIONAL TO THE TOTAL NUMBER OF ENCOUNTERS OF A DRUG WITH ITS RECEPTORS A. ACTIVATION - AGGREGATION THEORY B. MACROMOLECULAR PERTURBATION C. INDUCED-FIT THEORY D. OCCUPANCY THEORY E. RATE THEORY

RATE THEORY

ACCOUNTS FOR THE ACTIVITY OF INVERSE AGONIST A. ACTIVATION - AGGREGATION THEORY B. MACROMOLECULAR PERTURBATION C. INDUCED-FIT THEORY D. OCCUPANCY THEORY E. RATE THEORY

ACTIVATION - AGGREGATION THEORY

THE FOLLOWING ARE ENZYMES THAT CATALYZE PHASE 1 REACTIONS, EXCEPT A. AMIDASE B. ESTERASE C. ACETYLASE D. DEAMINASE E. ALCOHOL DEHYDROGENASE

ACETYLASE

AN ANTI INFECTIVE THAT ACT BOTH AS KERATOLYTIC AND KERATOGENIC A. BENZOYL PEROXIDE B. THYMOL C. CRESOL D. CHLORHEXIDINE GLUCONATE

BENZOYL PEROXIDE

GREY BABY SYNDROME IS A WELL KNOWN SIDE EFFECT OF THIS DRUG A. MUPIROCIN B. CLINDAMYCIN HCL C. BACITRACIN D. CHLORAMPHENICOL E. VANCOMYCIN HCL

CHLORAMPHENICOL

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING HAS A GOOD RESISTANCE A. PIPERACILLIN B. BENZYLPENICILLIN C. METHICILLIN D. AMOXICILLIN E. TICARCILLIN

AMOXICILLIN

PRODUCT OF THE SUBMERGED FERMENTATION OF PSEUDOMONAS FLUORESCENS A. MUPIROCIN B. CLINDAMYCIN HCL C. BACITRACIN D. CHLORAMPHENICOL E. VANCOMYCIN HCL

MUPIROCIN

THESE ARE COMMON PROBLEMS ENCOUNTERED WHEN TAKING POLYPEPTIDES, EXCEPT A. RENAL TOXICITY B. LACK OF SYSTEMIC ACTIVITY AFTER IV ADMINISTRATION C. HEPATOTOXICITY D. BOTH A & B E. BOTH B & C

BOTH B & C

LORACARBEF A. 1ST GENERATION B. 2ND GENERATION C. 3RD GENERATION D. 4TH GENERATION E. 5TH GENERATION

2ND GEN

CEFAZOLIN A. 1ST GENERATION B. 2ND GENERATION C. 3RD GENERATION D. 4TH GENERATION E. 5TH GENERATION

1ST GENERATION

HAS LESSER SIDE EFFECTS COMPARED TO STREPTOMYCIN A. NEOMYCIN SULFATE B. KANAMYCIN SULFATE C. TOBRAMYCIN D. AMIKACIN

NEOMYCIN SULFATE

LESS OTOTOXIC THEN GENTAMICIN A. KANAMYCIN B. AMIKACIN C. TOBRAMYCIN D. STREPTOMYCIN

AMIKACIN

CEFUROXIME A. 1ST GENERATION B. 2ND GENERATION C. 3RD GENERATION D. 4TH GENERATION E. 5TH GENERATION

2ND GENERATION

CEFTIBUTEN A. 1ST GENERATION B. 2ND GENERATION C. 3RD GENERATION D. 4TH GENERATION E. 5TH GENERATION

3RD GENERATION

CEFTRIAXONE A. 1ST GENERATION B. 2ND GENERATION C. 3RD GENERATION D. 4TH GENERATION E. 5TH GENERATION

3RD GENERATION

SOLUTION OF CLINDAMYCIN THAT CAN LAST UNTIL 32 DAYS WHEN REFRIGERATED A. CLINDAMYCIN PHOSPHATE B. CLINDAMYCIN PALMITATE HCL C. CLINDAMYCIN HCL D. BOTH A & B E. BOTH B & C

CLINDAMYCIN PHOSPHATE

SALT FORM OF THIS DRUG PROLONGS TS DURATION OF ACTION A. PHENOXYMETHYLPENICILLIN B. MEZLOCILLIN SODIUM C. BENZYPENICILLIN D. CARBENICILLIN UNDANYL SODIUM

BENZYPENICILLIN