MODULE 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Arrange the following: From most to least
dipole characteristics
I. Debye forces
II. London forces
III. Keesom forces
A. II, I, III
B. III, I, II
C. I, II, III
D. III, II, I

A

III, I, II

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1
Q

Which of the following terms is used to describe the solubility of a substance if 800 mg of the solute can be dissolved in 95 mL water
A. Slightly soluble
B. Soluble
C. Sparingly soluble
D. Practically insoluble

A

Slightly soluble

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2
Q

Lacrimal fluid has an isotonicity values
corresponding to that of NaCl solution with
the strength of
A. 0.1%
B. 9.0%
C. 1.0%
D. 0.9%

A

0.9%

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3
Q

The buffer equation is also known as
A. Noyes-whitney equation
B. Arrhenius
C. Henderson-Hasselbalch
D. Van’t hoff

A

Henderson-Hasselbalch

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4
Q

Convert 37.5 degrees Celsius to Fahrenheit
A. 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit
B. 99.5 degrees Fahrenheit
C. 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit
D. 100.3 degrees Fahrenheit

A

99.5 degrees Fahrenheit

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5
Q

Crystal symmetry of Urea
A. Cubic
B. Tetragonal
C. Hexagonal
D. Rhombic

A

Tetragonal

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6
Q

Compute for the E-value of Zinc Chloride
(MW = 135.9) with an Liso of 5.1.
A. 0.46
B. 0.64
C. 453
D. 1.22

A

0.64

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7
Q

Determine the heat required to increase the internal energy and to perform work.
A. Specific heat
B. Heat potential
C. Entropy
D. Enthalpy

A

Enthalpy

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8
Q

Which of the following is a colligative property?
A. Osmotic pressure
B. Boiling point
C. Freezing point
D. Vapor pressure

A

Osmotic pressure

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9
Q

Which of the following statements about the rate of dissolution of a solid API into an aqueous biological environment is true?

A. Increasing the particle size decreases the dissolution rate resulting in a quicker onset of action
B. Increasing the particle size increases the dissolution rate resulting in a quicker onset of action
C. Increasing the particle size increases the dissolution rate resulting in a slower onset of action
D. Increasing the particle size decreases the dissolution rate resulting in a slower onset of action

A

Increasing the particle size decreases the dissolution rate resulting in a quicker onset of action

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10
Q

Official method of the USP for determining specific gravity

A. Floatation method
B. Baume method
C. Westphal balance
D. Pycnometer method

A

Pycnometer method

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11
Q

Mesh number

A. Number of square openings per linear inch
B. Number of square inches per linear opening
C. Number of linear openings per square inch
D. Number of linear inches per square openings

A

Number of square openings per
linear inch

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12
Q

Contact angle exhibited by complete nonwetting

A. 0 degree
B. 90 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 360 degrees

A

180 degrees

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12
Q

Isometric (isochoric)
A. Constant heat
B. Constant temperature
C. Constant volume
D. Constant pressure

A

Constant volume

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13
Q

n optical microscopy, this is the longest tangent line that can be measured in a particle

A. Martin diameter
B. Feret diameter
C. Projected area diameter
D. Longest diameter

A

Feret diameter

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14
Q

An autonomic particle counter that uses electric resistance to determine the size of the particle

A. HIAC Royco
B. Coulter counter
C. Gelman
D. Abbe

A

Coulter counter

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14
Q

Range of HLB value in the Griffin scale for anti-foaming agents
A. 1-3
B. 3-8
C. 8-16
D. 16-18

A

1-3

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15
Q

Flow system that shows a yield value
A. Plastic
B. Pseudoplastic
C. Dilatant
D. Newtonian

A

Plastic

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16
Q

Select the INCORRECT statement about Surfactants.
A. Wetting agents aid in attaining intimate contact between solid particles and liquids.
B. Detergents reduce the surface tension and aid in wetting the surface and the dirt.
C. Surface-active agents with HLB values 3-6 are greatly lipophilic and produce water-in-oil emulsion.
D. The usual range of HLB values for surfactants used as solubilizing agents is between 1-3.

A

The usual range of HLB values for surfactants used as solubilizing agents is between 1-3.

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17
Q

The gram-molecular volume of gas at STP is equal to:

A. 1.0 L
B. 2.24 L
C. 22.4 L
D. 22.4 mL

A

22.4 L

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18
Q

Section of Quality Control Division
A. Microbiological section
B. Plant Inspection section
C. Specification & Assay
D. AOTA

A

AOTA

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19
Q

Consists of the products which have been bottled, stripped, packed, but not yet labeled

A. In-process section
B. Dispensing pharmacist
C. Inventory control
D. Production control

A

In-process section

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19
Q

Responsibility of an organization to determine the systems, facilities, & written procedures:

A. Technological element
B. Aesthetic element
C. Quality Control
D. Quality Assurance

A

Quality Assurance

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19
Q

Variations between suppliers of the same substance for:

A. Materials
B. Machines
C. Methods
D. Man

A

Materials

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20
Aging & Improper care is one cause of variation of: A. Materials B. Machines C. Methods D. Man
Man
21
Non-compliance to cGMP can result in the following: A. Quality variation B. Contamination C. Mix-ups and errors D. AOTA
AOTA
22
Kills all living organism including spores & viruses: A. Steam under pressure B. Bacterial filtration C. Chemical sterilization D. NOTA
Steam under pressure
23
The Inspection & Checking section of QC is responsible for: A. Sampling of raw materials B. Chemical Assaying C. Testing sterility of products D. Doing pyrogen test
Sampling of raw materials
24
Quarantined materials delivered in the warehouse are: A. Subject to test & assay B. Rejected C. Releasable to production department D. In-process products
Subject to test & assay
25
Aggregates of powders which adhere or bond to each other to form larger particles: A. Powders B. Microcapsules C. Pellets D. Granules
Granules
26
Caused by poor mixing of the granulation: A. Weight variation B. Double impression C. Sticking D. Chipping
Weight variation
27
The ff. excipients impart satisfactory compression characteristics to the tablet formulation except: A. Glidant B. Disintegrant C. Lubricant D. Anti-adherents
Disintegrant
28
Which of the ff. additives in parenterals reduce the pain of injection in areas with nerve endings? A. Buffers B. Tonicity adjusters C. Chelating agents D. NOTA
Tonicity adjusters
29
Weight variation test is carried out in: A. 10 tabs B. 20 tabs C. 30 tabs D. 40 tabs
20 tabs
29
Method of tablet manufacture for easily compressible or adhesive ingredients is: A. Direct compression B. Dry method C. Wet method D. Slugging
Direct compression
30
A type of tablet coating which is a modified form of film coating differing only in the size of the particles to be coated and the method used: A. Compression coating B. Enteric coating C. Marumerization D. Microencapsulation
Microencapsulation
31
Improperly sealed ampoules should be tested for: A. Particulate matter B. Pyrogen C. Bacteria D. Leak
Leak
32
The most inert grade of stainless steel used for high grade products: A. SS 304 B. SS 316 C. SS 3004 D. SS 3016
SS 316
32
The method for the preparation of compressed tablet wherein the granulation is formed by compacting large masses of the mixture & subsequently crushing and sizing these pieces into smaller granules A. Dry granulation B. Wet granulation C. Direct compression D. AOTA
Dry granulation
33
Poorly manufactured tablets with extended on the edge or periphery, this defect is called: A. Mottling B. Picking C. Capping D. Whiskering
Whiskering
34
Which of the following package types is tamper evident by design? A. Plastic bottles B. Aerosol container C.Ointment jars D.Sealed boxes/cartons
Aerosol container
35
Which of the following regulation is responsible for classifying drugs into two-OTC medicines and prescription drugs? A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1952 B. The Federal Food, Drug, And Cosmetic Act of 1938 C. Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970 D.None of the above
Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1952
36
Which type of segregation occurs when the finer, lighter particles remain suspended in air longer and do not settle as quickly as the larger or denser particles? A.Segregation B.Fluidization C.Sifting D.Dusting
Dusting
37
Which of the following method of particle size determination is done by measuring terminal settling velocity of particles through a liquid medium and is computed by Stoke's Law? A. Microscopy B. Sedimentation rate C. Laser holography D. Cascade Impaction E. Light Scattering
Sedimentation rate
38
Which of the following distinctive looking capsules has both ends tapered? A. Snap fit B. Coni-snap C. Spansules D. Pulvules E. Kapseals
Spansules
39
What is the smallest capsule size? A.5 B. 3 C.1 D.0 E. 000
5
40
Which of the following ingredients is used in the preparation of sugar-free chewable tablets? A. Xylitol B. Lactose C. Mannitol D. Dextrose E. Sucrose
Xylitol
41
Which of the following film coating problems refers to flaking of larger amounts of film fragments from the tablet surface? A. Picking B. Peeling C. Orange Peel Effect D. Mottling E. Bridging
Peeling
42
Aquaphor is an example of what type of ointment base? A. Hydrocarbon base B. Absorption base C. Water soluble base D.Water removable base
Absorption base
42
What is the concentration of water in glycerogelatins? A. 15% B. 40% C. 35% D. 10%
35%
43
Which of the following is added to the base of the suppository to prolong drug release? A. Citric acid B. Beeswax C. Alginic acid D. Yellow wax
Alginic acid
44
Which of the following refers to eutectic mixtures of mono-, di-, and triglycerides derived from natural vegetable oils, each type having slightly different properties? A. Fattibase B. Suppocire OSI C. Wecobee W D. Witepsol H15
Suppocire OSI
45
What is the relative term of solubility of a compound if 1 gram is dissolved in 150 ml solvent? A. Soluble B. Sparingly soluble C. Slightly soluble D. Insoluble E. Very soluble
Slightly soluble
46
Which mixing category is frequently encountered when highly viscous fluids are being processed? A. Bulk transport B. Turbulent mixing C. Laminar mixing D. Molecular diffusion
Laminar mixing
47
What is the activity of an emulsifying agent with an HLB value of 8-18? A. Antifoaming B. Wetting agent C. Emulsifier D.Detergents E. Solubilizers
Emulsifier
48
Which of the following methods of size reduction is also known as jet milling or micronizing? A. Dry milling B. Micropulverization C. Fluid energy grinding D. Spray drying
Fluid energy grinding
48
Which of the following is used for patients who have suffered a heavy loss of fluid and electrolyte? A. Irrigating solution B. Replacement therapy C. Maintenance therapy D. Enteral nutrition
Replacement therapy
49
What inert gas is used in the airspace during packaging of injectable products? A. Oxygen B. Nitrogen C. Helium D. Carbon dioxide
Nitrogen
50
Formaldehyde is an example of what type of ingredient in biological products? A. Stabilizer B. Residual inactivating ingredient C. Residual cell culture D.Adjuvant
Residual inactivating ingredient
51
What animal is used to prepare heterologous sera? A. Snake B. Mice C. Pig D. Monkey E. Horse
Horse
52
What is the active ingredient in vitrasert implant? A. Histrelin B. Ganciclovir C. Goserelin D. Leuprodile
Ganciclovir
52
Which of the following is indicated for initiation and/or continuation of cervical ripening in patients at or near term when there is medical or obstetrical indication for labor induction? A. Progestasert system B. Dinoprostone vaginal insert C. Estring D. Crinone gel
Dinoprostone vaginal insert
53
Which of the following consist of a flexible impermeable diaphragm surrounded by a sealed layer containing an osmotic agent that is enclosed within a semipermeable membrane? A. Films B. Mucoadhesive system C. Osmotic pump D. Medicated gums
Osmotic pump
54
Initial application for certificate of medical device registration for class B will have a validity of how many years? A.1 year B.3 years C.5 years D.10 years
5 years
55
Which of the following is NOT included in the documentary requirements for application of notification and registration? A. Notarized application form B. Copy of letter of Authorization C. A government-issued certificate attesting to the status of the manufacturer with regard to the competence and reliability of the personnel and facilities. D. None of the above
None of the above
56
All the following are cosmetic products, EXCEPT: A. Chemical Peeling Products B. Make-Up Powders C. Skin Wash Products D. Hair Dyes E. None of the above
Chemical Peeling Products
56
Cosmeceutical refers to cosmetic products that have medicinal or drug-like benefits. Cosmeceutical is a legal term recognized by the FDA. A.Only statement 1 is correct B.Only statement 2 is correct C.Both statements are correct D.Neither of the statement is correct
Only statement 1 is correct
57
All the following are examples of chemical sunscreens, EXCEPT: A. Avobenzone B. Homosalate C. Zinc Oxide D. Oxybenzone
Zinc Oxide
57
A type of hair dye which adheres to the outside of hair fibers and partially penetrate the cuticle layers, making the hair dye longer lasting. A.Temporary B.Demi-permanent C.Semi-permanent D.Permanent
Semi-permanent
57
What is referred to as fairy dust and is added to a formula at a low level for the primary purpose of getting to put the ingredient name on the label? A.Functional ingredients B.Aesthetic modifiers C.Claim ingredients D.Drug actives
Claim ingredients
58
CIR stands for: A.Cosmetic Ingredient Repository B.Cosmetic Ingredient Review C. Cosmetic Ingredient Regulation D.Cosmetic Ingredient Rules
Cosmetic Ingredient Review
59
Which of the following is referred to as the negative list? A. ACD Annex VI B. ACD Annex VII C. ACD Annex II D. ACD Annex IV
ACD Annex II
60
This is part of the ASEAN Cosmetic Directive Technical Documents, EXCEPT: A. ASEAN Microbial Limit B. ASEAN Heavy Metal Limit C. ASEAN Botanical Safety Assessment Guidance Document D. ASEAN Guidelines on GMP for Traditional Medicines / Health Supplements
ASEAN Guidelines on GMP for Traditional Medicines / Health Supplements
61
Cannabis sativa is considered a banned ingredient in cosmetic products based on RA 9165. Cell, tissues, or products of human origin are allowed to be a part of cosmetic products in the Philippines. A. Only statement 1 is correct B. Only statement 2 is correct C. Both statements are correct D. Neither of the statement is correct
Only statement 1 is correct
62
Which of the following is found on the label of products that has been observed to have serious adverse events and potential safety hazards? A.Precaution B.Contraindication C.Warning D.Hazard
Warning
62
Which of the following refers to an audit that may be triggered by consumer complaints or results found on samples found in the market? A.Internal Audit B.Ad-hoc Audit C.Routine Audit D.None of the above
Ad-hoc Audit
63
Which of the following test is required only for raw materials of botanical origin? A. Physical specifications B. Mutagenicity C. Pesticide level D. Absence of Annex II ingredients beyond unavoidable traces E. None of the above
Pesticide level
64
Done to ensure that the product is notified and compliant to current labelling requirements and guidelines. A.Post-evaluation B.Product verification C.Advertisement monitoring D.Consumer/product complaint
Product verification
64
The following are activities under PMS, EXCEPT: A.Product Verification B.Issuance of FDA Advisory C.Post-evaluation D.Notification Application E.None of the above
Notification Application
65
“The Philippine Pharmacy Act” was approved and signed into Law by President Benigno Aquino III on: A. July 23, 2016 B. May 23, 2016 C. July 21, 2016 D. May 21, 2016
July 21, 2016
66
This order gives comprehensive guidelines on the registration of Pharmaceutical Products to be consistent with RA 6675 A. AO 220 B. AO 42 C. AO 67 D. AO 90 E. AO 56
AO 67
67
It is a drug which contains no amount of, or a different active ingredient or less than 80% of the active ingredient it purports to possess, as distinguished from an adulterated drug including reduction or less of efficacy due to expiration: A. Counterfeit drug B. New drug C. Investigational drug D. Tried and tested drug E. Ethical drugs
Counterfeit drug
68
Revised rules and regulations to implement Dispensing Requirements under the Generics Act of 1988: A. AO 63 B. AO 62 C. AO 42 D. AO 55 E. AO 56
AO 63
69
The Universally Accessible Cheaper and Quality Medicines Act of 2008 is known as RA: A. RA 9257 B. RA 9502 C. RA 9165 D. RA 9205 E. RA 9527
RA 9502
70
RA 9502 is an act providing for cheaper and quality medicines, amending the Intellectual Property Code also known as: A. RA 8205 B. RA 8293 C. RA 8203 D. RA 8295
RA 8293
71
RA 9994, The Expanded Senior Citizens Act of 2010 was signed and enacted into law by President Gloria Macapagal Arroyo on: A. February 10, 2010 B. July 27, 2009 C. February 15, 2010 D. July 15, 2009
February 15, 2010
72
Grounds for suspension of LTO of Drug Establishment: A. Lapses for record keeping of invoices B. Sale of antibiotics without batch certification C. Selling of misbranded drugs D. Serious repeated or rampant violation of existing laws E. Lapses in record keeping of CPR
Lapses for record keeping of invoices
73
Absence of Pharmacist in a drugstore on three inspections by BFAD inspector is a ground: A. Cancellation of the prof license of the said pharmacist B. Suspension of the LTO C. Revocation of the LTO D. Permanent Closure E. Temporary Closure
Temporary Closure
74
It means a system of words or other systems arbitrary used to represent words: A. Code B. Secret keys C. Secret clues D. Cipher E. Coding
Code
75
The Code of Ethics for the Pharmaceutical Profession was promulgated by the Board of Pharmaceutical Examiners on: A. February 28, 1924 B. February 8, 1924 C. February 18, 1924 D. NOTA
February 28, 1924
76
The book kept for the purpose of recording the sale of violent poisons should be preserved for a period of: A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 4 years D. 5 years E. 3 years
5 years
77
The amount of shabu subjected to life imprisonment to death and fine ranging from 500,000 pesos to 10M pesos. A. 500 g B. 10 g C. 50 g D. 40 g E. 20 g
50 g
78
Duration of the conduct of examination in determining the genuineness and authenticity of the product by Bureau A. 10 working days B. 20 working days C. 16 working days D. Within 24 hours
20 working days
79
A drug product prescribed which is not registered with BFAD is considered a type of A. Impossible Rx B. Violative Rx C. Erroneous Rx D. Coded Rx E. Registered Rx
Impossible Rx
80
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82
83
84
85