MODULE 6 Flashcards by Gabrielle Sodusta

Fever is an example of which line of defense?

a. First line of defense
b. Second line of defense
c. Third line of defense
d. Adaptive immunity

Second line of defense

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Inflammation is a characteristic of which line of
defense?

a. First line of defense
b. Second line of defense
c. Third line of defense
d. Adaptive immunity

Second line of defense

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Which line of defense involves specific immune
responses tailored to specific pathogen?

a. First line of defense
b. Second line of defense
c. Third line of defense
d. Innate immunity

Third line of defense

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Antibodies are produced by which line of defense?

a. First line of defense
b. Second line of defense
c. Third line of defense
d. Innate immunity

Third line of defense

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An outbreak of a disease occurring over a wide geographic area and affecting a large proportion of the population is called a:

a. Pandemic
b. Epidemic
c. Endemic
d. Outbreak

Pandemic

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The proportion of individuals with a particular disease in a given population at a specific point in time is known as:

a. Prevalence
b. Incidence
c. Mortality rate
d. Epidemic

Prevalence

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The number of new cases of a disease in a population
during a specific time period is referred to as:

a. Prevalence
b. Incidence
c. Mortality rate
d. Epidemic

Incidence

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Immunity acquired by transplacental or mother to
fetus during pregnancy

a. Naturally active acquired immunity
b. Naturally passive acquired immunity
c. Artificially active acquired immunity
d. Artificially passive acquired immunity

Naturally passive acquired immunity

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Immunity acquired given by tetanus toxoid

a. Naturally active acquired immunity
b. Naturally passive acquired immunity
c. Artificially active acquired immunity
d. Artificially passive acquired immunity

Artificially active acquired immunity

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Immunity acquired given by human rabies
immunoglobulin

a. Naturally active acquired immunity
b. Naturally passive acquired immunity
c. Artificially active acquired immunity
d. Artificially passive acquired immunity

Artificially passive acquired immunity

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Which microorganism is responsible for causing
typhoid fever, characterized by high fever, abdominal
pain, and diarrhea?

a. Salmonella typhi
b. Clostridium difficile
c. Escherichia coli (E.coli)
d. Rotavirus

Salmonella typhi

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Which microorganism is responsible for causing
syphilis, a bacterial infection that progress through
stages if left untreated?

a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b. Chlamydia trachomatis
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Treponema pallidum

Treponema pallidum

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Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) primarily affects the immune system but can also lead to various complications, including:

a. Chlamydia
b. Genital herpes
c. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
d. Pneumocystis pneumonia

Pneumocystis pneumonia

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The disease “Chagas disease” is caused by a
protozoan parasite called:

a. Trypanosoma cruzi
b. Leishmania donovani
c. Plasmodium falciparum
d. Trichomonas vaginalis

Trypanosoma cruzi

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The protozoan parasite responsible for causing
malaria

a. Leishmania donovani
b. Trichomonas vaginalis
c. Acanthamoeba spp.
d. Plasmodium falciparum

Plasmodium falciparum

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Who is known as the father of microbiology?

a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Robert Koch
d. Edward Jenner

Anton van Leeuwenhoek

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Which scientist is credited with the invention of the
microscope and the first observation of microorganisms?

a. Robert Hooke
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Alexander Flemming
d. Edward Jenner

Robert Hooke

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Who developed the germ theory of disease
demonstrating that microorganisms are responsible
for many infectious diseases?

a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Robert Koch
d. Edward Jenner

Robert Koch

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Which microbiologist is known for developing the first
vaccine against smallpox?

a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Robert Koch
d. Edward Jenner

Edward Jenner

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Who is famous for the discovery of penicillin, the first
antibiotic?

a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Robert Koch
d. Alexander Flemming

Alexander Flemming

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Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves the
formation of immune complexes and deposition in
tissues?

a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Туре III
d. Type IV

Туре III

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Hemolytic anemia caused by mismatched blood
transfusion is an example of which type of
hypersensitivity?

a. Type l
b. Type lI
c. Туре III
d. Type IV

Type lI

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Delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH) reactions are
associated with which type of hypersensitivity?

a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

Type IV

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Which of the following is considered the first line of
defense in the immune system?

a. Antibodies
b. T cells
c. Skin and mucous membranes
d. B cells

Skin and mucous membranes

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The Philippine Health Insurance Corporation (PhilHealth). a. R.A. 11223 b. R.A. 9165 c. R.A. 10351 d. R.A. 10354 e. R.A. 7875

R.A. 7875

Schedule of IPV/OPV vaccine Is Dose. a. At birth to 2 weeks 1st dose b. 6th to 8th weeks c. 14th weeks to 6 months d. 12 months to 18 years of age catch up immunization.

6th to 8th weeks

Schedule of Rotavirus vaccine. a. At birth to 2 weeks 1st dose b. 4th to 8th weeks 2nd dose c. 6 weeks to 12 months d. 12 months to 18 years of age catch up immunization.

6 weeks to 12 months

Schedule of influenza vaccine a. Yearly b. 4th to 8th weeks 2nd dose c. 6 weeks to 6 months d. 12 months to 18 years of age catch up immunization

12 months to 18 years of age catch up immunization

Schedule of Measles vaccine. a. 9 months to 12 months b. 4th to 8th weeks 2nd dose c. 6 weeks to 6 months d. 12 months to 18 years of age catch up immunization.

9 months to 12 months

What is the mode of injections of BCG? a. Intramuscular b. Intravenous c. Intradermal d. Subcutaneous

Intradermal

What is Republic Act no. 11223? a. Universal health care law b. Sin tax reform act of 2012 c. The Responsible Parenthood and Reproductive health act of 2012 d. National Health insurance act e. Graphic health warnings act

Universal health care law

What is Republic Act no. 10351? a. Universal health care law b. Sin tax reform act of 2012 c. The Responsible Parenthood and Reproductive health act of 2012 d. National Health insurance act e. Graphic health warnings act

Sin tax reform act of 2012

What is Republic Act 10354? a. Universal Health Care Law b. Sin Tax Reform Act of 2012 c. The Responsible Parenthood and Reproductive Health Act 2012 d. National Health Insurance Act e. Graphic Health Warnings Act

The Responsible Parenthood and Reproductive Health Act 2012

What is Republic Act 7875? a. Universal Health Care Law b. Sin Tax Reform Act of 2012 c. The Responsible Parenthood and Reproductive Health Act 2012 d. National Health Insurance Act e. Graphic Health Warnings Act

National Health Insurance Act

What is Republic Act No. 10152? a. Mandatory Infants and Children Health Immunization Act of 2011. b. Sin Tax Reform Act of 2012 c. The Responsible Parenthood and Reproductive Health Act 2012 d. National Health Insurance Act e. Graphic Health Warnings Act

Mandatory Infants and Children Health Immunization Act of 2011

What is the tests (glycated hemoglobin) to assess long-term blood glucose control? a. Healthy Eating b. Weight Management c. Medication Adherence d. Regular Blood Glucose Monitoring e. HbAlc Monitoring

HbAlc Monitoring

Case 1. The Community Province A, out 100,000 population, 1000 are immunocompromised and arerisk of Kaposi Sarcoma due to the fact that they are HIV patients in the year 2024 due to failure in the Reproductive Health Program. Thus, 800 were positive of Kaposi Sarcoma. Among HIV-positive individuals, it appears that men who have sex with other men are more likely to get Kaposi sarcoma at 80%, whereas, men who have protected sex (unexposed) with men at 20%. The new cases of 250 after 2024, whereas, 750 cases within the 5-year program from 2019-2024. And finally, 300 deaths due to Kaposi sarcoma. What is the Morbidity Rate? a. 0.25% b. 4 c. 0.8% d. 0.3% e. 0.75%

0.8%

Case 1. The Community Province A, out 100,000 population, 1000 are immunocompromised and arerisk of Kaposi Sarcoma due to the fact that they are HIV patients in the year 2024 due to failure in the Reproductive Health Program. Thus, 800 were positive of Kaposi Sarcoma. Among HIV-positive individuals, it appears that men who have sex with other men are more likely to get Kaposi sarcoma at 80%, whereas, men who have protected sex (unexposed) with men at 20%. The new cases of 250 after 2024, whereas, 750 cases within the 5-year program from 2019-2024. And finally, 300 deaths due to Kaposi sarcoma. What is the Mortality Rate? a. 0.25% b. 4 c. 0.8% d. 0.3% e. 0.75%

0.3%

Case 1. The Community Province A, out 100,000 population, 1000 are immunocompromised and arerisk of Kaposi Sarcoma due to the fact that they are HIV patients in the year 2024 due to failure in the Reproductive Health Program. Thus, 800 were positive of Kaposi Sarcoma. Among HIV-positive individuals, it appears that men who have sex with other men are more likely to get Kaposi sarcoma at 80%, whereas, men who have protected sex (unexposed) with men at 20%. The new cases of 250 after 2024, whereas, 750 cases within the 5-year program from 2019-2024. And finally, 300 deaths due to Kaposi sarcoma. What is the Cumulative Incidence? a. 0.25% b. 4 c. 0.8% d. 0.3% e. 0.75%

0.25%

Case 1. The Community Province A, out 100,000 population, 1000 are immunocompromised and arerisk of Kaposi Sarcoma due to the fact that they are HIV patients in the year 2024 due to failure in the Reproductive Health Program. Thus, 800 were positive of Kaposi Sarcoma. Among HIV-positive individuals, it appears that men who have sex with other men are more likely to get Kaposi sarcoma at 80%, whereas, men who have protected sex (unexposed) with men at 20%. The new cases of 250 after 2024, whereas, 750 cases within the 5-year program from 2019-2024. And finally, 300 deaths due to Kaposi sarcoma. What is the Point of Prevalence? a. 0.25% a. 4 b. 0.8% c. 0.3% d. 0.75%

0.75%

What issues contributes to a better understanding of people's work except: a. Illness b. Health Care c. Health d. Disease

Disease

These are the Glossary of Basic Sociological Concept except: a. Agency b. Self-Efficiency c. Socialization d. Norm

Self-Efficiency

He was the theorist who studied 'Social Fact? a. Karl Marx b. Max Weber c. Emile Durkheim d. Nota

Emile Durkheim

The 5 stages of change except: a. Socialization a. Contemplation b. Action c. Maintenance

Socialization

Who is the current DOH secretary? a. Maria Rosario Yerseire. b. Francisco Duque MI c. Teodoro Herbosa d. Hscinsilde Valle

Teodoro Herbosa

Operation Strategy on Kalusugang Pankalahatan is otherwise known as: a. A.O. 2010-0034 b. A.0. 2010-0036 c. A.O. 2014-0046 d. A.O. 2014-0036

A.O. 2010-0036

Key characteristics of a good delivery except: a. Quality b. Accountability c. Coverage d. All of the above

All of the above

It is the immediate output of the inputs into the health system? a. Health Workforce b. Health Information System c. Health Service Delivery d. Medicine and Technology

Health Service Delivery

Accountability involves except: a. Receipt of relevant information b. Enforcement c. Governance d. Delegation

Governance

Which conference was responsible in formulating National Policies and Regulation in 1978? a. ALMA ATA conference b. ALMA ALA conference c. ALMA Mäter conference d. ALTA ATA conference

ALMA ATA conference

Which of the following is/ are true when the product of the concentrations of any pair of ions is ‹ or = to the SP value? I. Precipitation will take place II. No precipitation will take place III. Solution is supersaturated IV. Solution is saturated V. Solution is unsaturated a. I & II only b. I, IV & V only c. I, III & IV only d. II, IV & V only e. II & V only

II, IV & V only

The end point of the titration using this type of indicator is when the color of the silver halide ppt changes abruptly because of the adsorbed indicator ions a. Eosin Y TS b. Ferric Alum c. Potassium Chromate d. EDTA e. NOTA

Eosin Y TS

It is used in direct and residual titrations employing standard NHSCN solution. a. Ferric alum b. Ferric thiocyanate c. Tetrabromophenolphthalein d. Silver nitrate e. Eosin Y TS

Ferric alum

When ferric alum reacts with the SCN-containing titrant, what is formed? a. Both D & E b. Ammonium thiocyanate c. Faint pink color d. White complex e. Ferric thiocyanate

Ferric thiocyanate

In the Assay of Sodium Lauryl Sulfate for Sodium Chloride content, what is the purpose of adding nitric acid? a. Prevent Ferric alum hydrolysis b. Indicator c. Excess acid d. For neutralization e. NOTA

Prevent Ferric alum hydrolysis

In the Assay of Sodium Chloride, what is the use of adding AgNO3 to the analyte? a. To facilitate precipitation b. To prevent hydrolysis of analyte c. Indicator d. Both B & C e. AOTA

To facilitate precipitation

Residual Acidimetric Titration is where the sample which is a _---is treated with an amount of standard _---- known to be in excess of a chemically equivalent amount, and that excess is titrated with a standard a. Acid; Acid; Base b. Acid; Base; Acid c. Base; Acid; Base d. Base; Base; Acid e. Base; Acid; Acid

Base; Acid; Base

What type of titration is involved in the Assay of Sodium Bicarbonate? a. Direct Acidimetric Titration b. Direct Alkalimetric Titration c. Residual Acidimetric Titration d. Residual Alkalimetric Titration e. NOTA

Direct Acidimetric Titration

According to the_, the reaction rate is proportional to the product of the reactants' molecular concentrations. A. Law of Mass Conservation B. Law of Mass Action C. Dissociation constant D. Common lon Effect E. NOTA

Law of Mass Action

According to the Solubility Product Principle, when the equilibrium is established, the supernatant liquid is a/an__ solution. A. Unsaturated B. Desaturated C. Supersaturate D. Saturated E. Precipitated

Saturated

Solubility product us expressed in terms of: a. Equivalents/Liter b. Milliequivalent/Milliliter c. Moles d. Milliequivalent weight e. NOTA

NOTA

The following indicators give Yellow color in acid, except: a. Malachite Green b. Phenol Red c. Cresol Red d. Methyl Orange

Methyl Orange

The number of mg of KOH necessary to neutralize thefree acids in 1 g of sample oil (oil, fat, wax, resin, balsam, or similar organic substance) of complex composition a. Acid value b. Saponification value c. Iodine value d. Ester value e. Hydroxyl value

Acid value

Number of mg of KOH needed to saponify the free esters and neutralize the free acids in 1 g of sample a. Acetyl value of fatty acids b. Saponification value c. Iodine value d. Ester value e. Hydroxyl value

Saponification value

Number of g iodine absorbed under specified conditions by 100 g of sample a. Acetyl value of fatty acids b. Saponification value c. Iodine value d. Ester value e. Hydroxyl value

Iodine value

Number of milligrams of KOH equivalent to the hydroxyl content of 1 g of substance a. Acetyl value of fatty acids b. Saponification value c. Iodine value d. Ester value e. Hydroxyl value

Hydroxyl value

CaCO3 + HNO3 ⇆ Ca(NO3)2 + H2C03 1 equivalent of HNO3 = ___ mol of Ca(NO3)2 = ___ _mol of CaCO3 a. 1;1 b. 1; 0.5 c. 0.5; 1 d. 0.5; 0.5 e. NOTA

0.5; 0.5

CaCO3 + HNO3 ⇆ Ca(NO3)2 + H2C03 ___ mol of CaCO3 = ____equivalent/s of HNO3 a. 0.5;1 b. 1; 0.5 c. 2;1 d. 1;1 e. 1;2

1;2

Act of measuring the volume of the titrant used. a. Standardization b. Titration c. Normality d. Molarity

Titration

The theoretical point at which equivalent amounts of analyte and titrant have reacted a. Stoichiometric point b. Endpoint c. Equivalence point d. B & C e. A & C

A & C

Weight of a substance chemical equivalent to 1 ml of a standard solution a. Normality b. Molarity c. Titer d. Molality e. Equivalent

Titer

It is a chemical process in which a proton donor reacts with a proton acceptor a. Neutralization b. Acid-Base titration c. Precipitation d. A & B e. None of the above

A & B

How much of potassium dichromate was used in the assay if 30 ml of 0.098N sodium thiosulfate was consumed in the assay? a. 0.14 g b. 0.15 g c. 0.16 g d. 1.1 g e. NOTA

0.14 g

A crude drug was found to have a 2.5% AIA. The weight of the residue after treatment of HCl was 0.4560 g. What was the weight of the crude drug used? a. 12.44 g b. 14.28 g c. 18.24 g d. 21.05 g e. NOTA

18.24 g

What document contains a compiled step-by-step instructions to help workers carry out routine operations? a. SOP b. MSDS c. COA d. Monograph e. A & C

SOP

What document outlines a chemical’s properties, including physical and chemical characteristics, as well as health, safety, fire, and environmental hazards? a. SOP b. MSDS c. COA d. Monograph e. A & C

MSDS

Temperature maintained for Dissolution Testing of tablets a. 37 ± 2 b. 37 ± 0.2 °C c. 37 ± 5 °C d. 37 ± 0.5 °C e. 35 ± 5 °C

37 ± 0.5 °C

USP Apparatus 1 is also known as ___________ a. Rotating Basket b. Rotating Paddle c. Reciprocating Cylinder d. Flow-through Cell e. Reciprocating Disk

Rotating Basket

It works on the principle of creating a negative pressure in a closed chamber which inflates the dosage form due to pressure a. Pellicle formation b. Preservative content c. Viscosity Test d. Leakage Test e. Redispersibility Test

Leakage Test

Which among the following can be used to test dosage forms such ointments, creams, and transdermal products? a. Paddle over disk b. Flow-through cell c. Diffusion cell d. Rotating bottle e. NOTA

Diffusion cell

It is the measure by how much the speed of light is reduced as it travels through a specific solvent a. Specific gravity b. Refractive index c. Optical activity d. Angle of repose e. Chirality

Refractive index

Acceptable limit for Primary Moisture Content of Granules and Powders a. 0.5% - 1% b. NMT 0.8% c. NMT 1% d. 25 grams e. 31-35%

31-35%

It is the ratio of the mass of an untapped powder sample and its volume, including the contribution of the interparticulate void volume a. Tapped density b. Bulk density c. Tapped volume d. Bulk volume e. Angle of repose

Bulk density

Tablet Friability Acceptable Criteria for new formulations of tablets a. NMT 1% weight loss b. NMT 0.8% weight loss c. NMT 0.1% weight loss d. NMT 8% weight loss e. NOTA

NMT 0.8% weight loss

The higher the value of the Compressibility Index, the better is the sample’s compressibility characteristic. The lower the Hausner Ratio is, the poorer is the sample’s compressibility characteristic. a. Only statement 1 is correct b. Only statement 2 is correct c. Both statements are correct d. Both statements are incorrect

Both statements are incorrect

Digitalis: Pigeon :: Oxytocin injection:__________ a. Cat b. Chicken c. Albino Rabbit d. Rabbit e. Albino Rat

Chicken

Process of identifying the ideal solvent system that can efficiently separate the components of an analyte a. Solvent polarity b. Retention Factor c. Capillary Action d. Solvent Optimization e. NOTA

Solvent Optimization

In figure 1, what is the Rf value of constituent A? a. 0.5 b. 2 c. 0.4 d. 0.3 e. NOTA

0.4

If the SP is more polar, what constituent is less polar? a. Constituent A b. Constituent B

Constituent B

Which is not a weak adsorbent? a. Sucrose b. Starch c. Talc d. Sodium carbonate e. Magnesium carbonate

Magnesium carbonate

It is the ratio of retention time of the analyte in the column to the retention time of a non-retained compound a. Void time b. Retention factor c. Hold-up time d. Both A & C e. NOTA

Retention factor

Wavelength in the Far IR region a. 200 - 380 nm b. 380 - 780 nm c. 15 - 300 nm d. 3 - 15 nm e. NOTA

NOTA

"The energy of radiation absorbed or emitted is directly proportional to the frequency of the radiation." a. Bragg's Law b. Beer's Law c. Beer-Lambert's Law d. Lambert's Law e. Plank's Theory

Plank's Theory

The peak having the highest relative abundance a. Parent ion peak b. Molecular ion peak c. Base peak d. Both A & B e. Both A & C

Base peak

A portion of the UV-Vis spectrophotometer that is composed of an entrance slit, a dispersion device and an exit slit a. Light source b. Optics c. Monochromator d. Detector e. Nebulizer

Monochromator

Also known as the blue shift a. Bathochromic shift b. Hypsochromic shift c. Hyperchromic effect d. Hypochromic effect e. NOTA

Hypsochromic shift

Absorption of radiant energy in the IR Region is associated with ________ of atoms within molecules a. Proton spinning b. Electron energy transitions c. Vibrational transitions d. Mass-to-charge ratio e. NOTA

Vibrational transitions

Which has the highest value of wavenumber range? a. Far IR b. Middle IR c. Near IR d. Both B & C e. Both A &

Near IR

It measures scattered light a. Turbidimetry b. Nephelometry c. Turbidity d. Clarity e. NOTA

Nephelometry