Module 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following parameters is
used to indicate the ability of a drug to produce the desired therapeutic effect relative to a toxic effect?

o Potency
o Intrinsic activity
o Therapeutic index
o Efficacy
o Bioavailability

A

Therapeutic index

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2
Q

The hormone Cortisol secreted by the adrenals is capable of targeting
intranuclear receptors secondary to its ability to:

o Recruit intracellular kinases
o Undergo autophosphorylation
o Diffuse through lipid membranes
o Interact with G-proteins
o Interact with adenylyl cyclise

A

Interact with G-proteins

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3
Q

A 43-year-old man who was recently
fired from a well-paying job decides to commit suicide and ingests 20 tablets 2gr phenobarbital. He was discovered at home deeply sedated with diminished breathing, low body temperature, and skin reddening. He was appropriately diagnosed with barbiturate overdose. The patient is given bicarbonate to alkalinize his urine. How does alkalinization of urine with bicarbonate help to overcome the toxic effects of
Phenobarbital in this situation?

o It increases glomerular filtration
o It decreases proximal tubular
secretion
o It decreases distal tubular
reabsorption
o It enhances drug metabolism
o It decreases untoward side
effects

A

It decreases untoward side
effects

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3
Q

Cimetidine and Ketoconazole are
considered as _______. This
pharmacologic property predisposes
patient taking other drugs concomitantly with any agents to toxicity.

o tubular secretion inhibitors
o enzyme inhibitors
o enzyme inducers
o chemical antagonists

A

chemical antagonists

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4
Q

How does ephedrine differ from
epinephrine?

o Ephedrine can be given orally
and has a shorter duration of
action than epinephrine.
o Ephedrine can be given orally
and has the same duration of
action as that of epinephrine.
o Ephedrine can be given orally
and has longer duration of action
than epinephrine.
o Ephedrine can not be given orally
and has longer duration of action
than epinephrine.
o Ephedrine cannot be given orally
and has a shorter duration of
action than epinephrine

A

Ephedrine can be given orally
and has longer duration of action than epinephrine.

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5
Q

A 60 year old male hypotensive male
patient who is having difficulty on his
diuretic and clonidine program. How
should clonidine be discontinued?

o Clonidine should be discontinued
abruptly once the blood pressure
is normal.
o Clonidine should be discontinued
slowly to avoid possible rebound
hypertension. o Clonidine should be discontinued after his diuretic therapy.
o Clonidine should be discontinued
before giving a diuretic.
o Clonidine should be discontinued before giving nifedipine.

A

Clonidine should be discontinued slowly to avoid possible rebound hypertension.

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6
Q

A molecule that binds to a receptor is called :

o ligand
o chelate
o antagonist
o reverse agonist
o mixed agonist-antagonist

A

ligand

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7
Q

A drug when suddenly stopped
causes the symptoms to come back in exaggerated fashion. This is known as:

o withdrawal
o dependence
o rebound
o tolerance
o idiosyncratic reaction

A

rebound

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8
Q

Neuroleptic drugs are also called:

o minor tranquilizers
o anti-schizophrenic drugs
o antipsychotic drugs
o all of the above
o only B and C are correct

A

all of the above

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8
Q

Most of the neurotransmitters are
hydrophyllic, thus they need ____ for
cell penetration and produce their
necessary actions.

o micelles
o chelates
o receptors
o protein carriers
o binding proteins

A

receptors

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9
Q

Which is TRUE about physical
dependence on drugs?
1. patient feels distressed after stopping the drug
2. reduced effect with repeated doses of the drug
3. need for higher doses to get the desired effect

o 1 only
o 2 only
o 1 and 3
o 1 and 2

A

1 and 3

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10
Q

A drug is administered in the form of
an inactive pro-drug. The pro-drug
increases the expression of a
cytochrome P-450 that converts the pro- drug to its active form. With chronic, long-term administration of the pro-drug, which of the following will be observed?

o The potency will decrease
o The potency will increase
o The efficacy will decrease
o The efficacy will increase
o no change in both potency and
efficacy

A

The potency will decrease

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11
Q

Which of the following is an action of
a non-competitive antagonist?

o Alters the mechanism of action of
an agonist
o Alters the potency of an agonist
o Shifts the dose–response curve
of an agonist to the right
o Decreases the maximum
response to an agonist
o Binds to the same site on the
receptor as the agonist

A

Alters the mechanism of action of an agonist

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12
Q

Which of the following is considered
an IV anesthetic?

o fentanyl
o naloxone
o mepiridine
o naltrexone
o succinylcholine

A

succinylcholine

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13
Q

Which of the following BEST
describes a general anesthetic agent?

o An agent that depresses the
central nervous system
irreversibly to produce a loss of
consciousness, analgesia) and
muscle relaxation.
o An agent that stimulates the
central nervous system, thus
making it possible for a physician
to perform various types of
surgeries.
o An agent used to produce
regional analgesia in a patient.
o An agent that depresses the
central nervous system reversibly
to produce a loss of consciousness, analgesia, and muscle relaxation

A

An agent that depresses the
central nervous system reversibly
to produce a loss of
consciousness, analgesia, and
muscle relaxation

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13
Q

TRUE about Ultra short acting
BARBITURATES:
1. administered intravenously in order to induce anesthesia
2. used to counteract the
convulsions associated with some
chemical substances (for example,
tetanus toxin)
3. high degree of lipid
solubility

o 1 only
o 2 only
o 1, 2 and 3
o 1 and 3
o 1 and 2

A

1, 2 and 3

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14
Q

Sedative-hypnotics can be used to
provide analgesia to patients. Which of the following statements BEST
describes the analgesia produced by
sedative-hypnotics?

o Patients who have been given
extremely large doses of
barbiturates are unresponsive to
pain.
o Patients who are administered
intravenous doses of sedative- hypnotics are unable to feel any
painful stimuli.
o Patients who are given sedative- hypnotics seem to be more
tolerant of pain than those
patients who are not given these
drugs.
o Patients who are given any
amount of sedative-hypnotics are
unable to feel pain, but they are
also unable to maintain
consciousness for long periods

A

Patients who are given any
amount of sedative-hypnotics are unable to feel pain, but they are also unable to maintain consciousness for long period

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14
Q

TRUE about Nitrous oxide:

o gas supplied in blue metal
cylinders
o relatively weak in terms of
producing anesthesia and muscle
relaxation
o allergic reactions are common
with its use, thus antihistamines
are given concomitantly with it
o A and B
o B and C

A

A and B

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15
Q

Diazepam can be used in the
treatment of the following conditions, EXCEPT:

o alcohol withdrawal syndrome
o skeletal muscle relaxation
o pre-anesthetic medication to
reduce anxiety
o antiseizure agent in patients with
tetanus
o no exception

A

no exception

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15
Q

Which statement BEST describes
the mechanism of action of sedative- hypnotics?

o They inhibit the flow of potassium
and sodium ions across the semi
permeable membranes of the
nerves.
o They inhibit the depolarization of
the nerve fibers and thus produce
calm or sleep
o They depress the reticular
activating system (RAS).
o They inhibit the transmission of
electrical impulses from the brain
by interfering with the passage of
certain ions through the nerve
fibers
o A and C are correct

A

They inhibit the transmission of electrical impulses from the brain by interfering with the passage of certain ions through the nerve fibers

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16
Q

Anticonvulsants/antiseizure drugs act by _________________.

o Depressing the cerebral cortex of
the brain, thereby lowering the
threshold of the CNS to
convulsive stimuli.
o Stimulating the cerebral cortex of
the brain, thereby raising the
threshold of the CNS to
convulsive stimuli.
o Depressing the cerebral cortex of
the brain, thereby raising the
threshold of the CNS to
convulsive stimuli.
o Depressing the cerebral cortex of
the brain, thereby deadening the
part of the brain that is
responsible for the seizures
o Stimulating the cerebellum to
promote respiration and depress
the level of the patient’s
consciousness

A

Depressing the cerebral cortex of
the brain, thereby raising the
threshold of the CNS to
convulsive stimuli.

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17
Q

Which adverse effect(s) is/are
associated with the use of phenytoin?

o Nystagmus.
o Ataxia.
o Slurred speech.
o All the above
o Only A and B

A

All the above

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18
Q

Atypical antipsychotic drugs:

o reduce the likelihood of
extrapyramidal side effects
o used for treatment resistance in older agents (antipsychotics)
o Risperidone is an example of a drug in this class
o all of the above
o only A and B are correct

A

all of the above

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19
Q

Lithium carbonate should not be administered to patients who are taking diuretics , because diuretics tend to:

o Increase excretion of lithium therapeutic failure
o Cause accumulation of lithium toxicity
o Diarrhea and hypokalemia
o A and B are correct
o B and C are correct

A

Cause accumulation of lithium toxicity

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20
Select from the following choices the correct definition of the term antianxiety agent. o A drug used to improve the depressed mood of a patient. o A drug used to calm a patient o A drug which will reduce certain symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. o A drug which will remove a patient’s fear o B and D are correct
B and D are correct
21
From the statements below, select the statement which best describes the advantage(s) of antianxiety agents over drugs which were previously used to calm orsedate patients. o Antianxiety agents do not cause excessive loss of alertness. o Antianxiety agents can be safely taken while driving or operating machinery. o Overdosage of antianxiety agents rarely results in death to the patient. o Both A and C. o Both B and C
Both A and C
22
Which of the following statement/s best describe/s the use(s) of antidepressant agents. o The treatment of depression that results because of chemical imbalances in the body. o The treatment of depression that is not a result of chemical imbalances in the body. o The treatment of patients who are experiencing periods of overwhelming stress. o The treatment of acute and chronic psychoses. o B and D are correct
The treatment of depression that results because of chemical imbalances in the body
23
When taking Aminophylline orally, the patient should be caution __________. o Not to take the medication with alcohol. o Take the medication with food. o Discontinue the medication immediately if any slight nervousness is detected. o Not to drive while taking the medication o Both B and C are correct
Not to drive while taking the medication
24
The main clinical use of the drug Dextroamphetamine sulfate is: o To suppress a patient's appetite. o To increase a patient's ability to concentrate. o To treat narcolepsy. o To stimulate respiration o To suppress cry, irritating cough
To treat narcolepsy
25
Narcotic agents produce an effect on a patient’s respiratory system. From the list of descriptions below, select the best description of the specific effect produced by the narcotic agents. o Narcotic agents stimulate a patient’s respiratory system. o Narcotic agents depress a patient’s respiratory system. o Narcotic agents decrease the levels of carbon dioxide in the blood. o Narcotic agents depress the respiratory rate only in small doses o Both B and C are correct
Both B and C are correct
26
Tolerance develops easily with the use of Narcotic Analgesics. Which of the following BEST describes Tolerance? o The ability of the body to adapt to the presence of foreign substances that result in the requirement for progressively larger doses of the drug to obtain the same effect. o The ability of the body to adapt to the presence of foreign substances that result in the requirement for progressively smaller doses of the drug to obtain the same effect. o The ability of the body to adapt to the presence of foreign substances that result in the requirement for changing the route of administration of the drug. o The ability of the body to adapt to the presence of foreign substances that result in the requirement for changing the dosage form of the drug o A and C are correct
A and C are correct
27
The primary indication/s for the use of Methadone is/are: o moderate to severe pain o treat withdrawal symptoms of narcotics in tapering fashion o neurolept analgesia o A and B are correct o B and C are correct
B and C are correct
28
Fentanyl , a narcotic analgesic 80 times more potent than morphine can be used in general anesthesia. Its main disadvantage is/are: 1. hepatotoxicity 2. respiratory depression 3. metabolic acidosis o 1 only o 2 only o 1, 2 and 3 o 1 and 3 o 1 and 2
2 only
29
Aside from being the drug of choice for pain associated with myocardial infarction, Morphine can also be given for the treatment of: o hard to treat glaucoma o acute pulmonary edema o status asthmaticus o all of the above o only B and C are correct
all of the above
30
A38-year-old farmer is brought to the ER by his wife with symptoms of sudden difficulty breathing, sweatiness, and anxiety. He was spraying insecticide when this happened. It has been 25 minutes since the symptoms started. The patient is emergently intubated and given atropine and another medication that acts to reactivate acetylcholinesterase. What medication is it? o Physostigmine o Propranolol o Pralidoxime o Phenylephrine o Pancuronium
Pralidoxime
31
A 66-year-old woman with a long history of heavy smoking presents to her doctor with complaints of shortness of breath and chronic coughing that has been present for about 2 years and has been worsening in frequency. The doctor decides to prescribe a bronchodilator agent that has minimal cardiac side effects, since the patient also has an extensive cardiac history. Which medication did the doctor likely prescribe? o Albuterol o Prazosin o Atenolol o Ipratropium o Pseudoephedrine
Ipratropium
32
Phenylephrine is used to treat patients with nasal mucosa stuffiness because it causes vaso-constriction by: o Blocking nicotinic cholinoceptors o Blocking b-adrenoceptors o Stimulating a -adrenoceptors o Stimulating muscarinic cholinoceptors o C and D are correct
Stimulating a -adrenoceptors
33
Emergency treatment of acute heart failure is best managed with which of the following agents? This agent can increase cardiac output and decrease peripheral resistance o Metaproterenol o Phenylephrine o Dobutamine o Norepinephrine o Isoproterenol
Dobutamine
34
Which of the following drugs is used to diagnose myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disease characterized by muscle weakness caused by circulating antibodies that block acetylcholine receptors at the postsynaptic neuromuscular junction? o Atropine o Neostigmine o Bethanechol o Edrophonium o Pralidoxim
Neostigmine
35
A 60-year-old man develops congestive heart failure (CHF) after suffering his second myocardial infarction. The doctor decided to place him on diuretic therapy . On follow-up, the patient is found to have hypokalemia, which is most likely due to furosemide use. Which of the following agents can help resolve hypokalemia while at the same time treat CHF? o Allopurinol o Hydrochlorothiazide o Spironolactone o Acetazolamide o Ethacrynic acid
Spironolactone
35
Dantrolene is the drug of choice to treat malignant hyperthermia caused by succinylcholine because dantrolene: o Blocks Ca2 release from sarcoplasmic reticulum o Induces contraction of skeletal muscle o Increases the rate of succinylcholine metabolism o Inhibits succinylcholine binding to nicotinic receptors o Acts centrally to reduce fever
Induces contraction of skeletal muscle
36
A 57-year-old man with a history of heavy alcohol use is being admitted for a first episode of congestive heart failure (CHF), which likely resulted from untreated alcoholic cardiomyopathy. The cardiologist decides to start the patient on diuretic therapy. Which class of diuretics is preferred in this scenario? o Loop diuretics, because they exert their action at the distal convoluted tubule o Loop diuretics, because the thick ascending limb is an area of high capacity for NaCl reabsorption o Thiazide diuretics, because they exert their action at the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle o Thiazide diuretics, because they increase cardiac output o Thiazide diuretics, because they increase peripheral vascular resistance
Loop diuretics, because the thick ascending limb is an area of high capacity for NaCl reabsorption
37
A 65-year-old retiree develops progressive vision loss with heaviness behind his eyes. He was diagnose with glaucoma. To prevent further progression of the disease and to alleviate current symptoms, the physician starts the patient on acetazolamide therapy. What is the mechanism of action of this medication? o Potentiates carbonic anhydrase in all parts of the body o Reduces reabsorption of bicarbonate o Increases excretion of hydrogen o Increases rate of formation of bicarbonate in the aqueous humor o Increases uptake of sodium in the proximal tubule
Reduces reabsorption of bicarbonate
38
The most abundant metabolite of Norepinephrine and Epinephrine is Vanillylmandelic acid. This can be recovered in the patient’s: o serum o plasma o urine o A and B are correct o B and C are correct
urine
38
A patient is admitted into the emergency room and manifests ventricular tachycardia with complains of palpitations and shortness of breath following severe acute myocardial infarction (MI).This arrhythmia is life threatening and must be controlled immediately. Which of the following drugs would be best to quickly control the condition? o Dobutamine o Digitalis o Quinidine o Lidocaine o Atropine
Lidocaine
39
A 50-year-old factory worker with a history of medication-controlled hypertension complains of a painful, swollen big toe on the left foot. You suspect gout and check his uric acid levels, which are elevated. Upon reviewing his medications , you realize that one of them may be the cause of his current symptoms. Which medication might that be? o Acetazolamide o Furosemide o Spironolactone o Hydrochlorothiazide o Mannitol
Furosemide
40
A 76-year-old man has suffered from atrial fibrillation for many years. This condition has been under good control with amiodarone and diltiazem until recently, when he started experiencing palpitations. Her cardiologist decided to start the patient on digoxin therapy. Digoxin works by which of the following mechanism? o It decreases intracellular sodium and increases intracellular potassium o It lowers intracellular calcium o It decreases stroke volume and cardiac output o It diminishes elimination of sodium and water o It increases vagal activity and decreases sympathetic tone
It increases vagal activity and decreases sympathetic tone
40
A woman who is undergoing a endocrine work-up to diagnose the cause of a large multi-nodular goiter develops atrial fibrillation. T3 and T4 were both elevated and TSH was markedly low . Which of the following would be best to treat this arrhythmia o Verapamil o Propranolol o Digitalis o Bretylium o Tocainide
Digitalis
41
A 54-year-old woman is diagnosed with congestive heart failure (CHF). She was prescribed with captopril. This agent is considered effective in decreasing mortality rates in this group of patients. Which of the following effects is caused by this drug? o It has a high affinity for angiotensin II receptors o It promotes increased peripheral vascular resistance o It decreases cardiac output and increases afterload o It causes vasodilation and induces natriuresis o It increases preload
It has a high affinity for angiotensin II receptor
42
The action of neuromuscular junction-blocking drugs is enhanced when given with this pair of drugs. Thus, they should NOT be given with these agent (neuromuscular junction-blocking drugs). o tetracyclines and lidocaine o aminoglycosides and isoflurane o chloramphenicol and amiodarone o amoxicillin and cimetidine o verapamil and enalapril
verapamil and enalapril
43
TRUE about DOPAMINE, except: o activates peripheral b1 - adrenoceptors increase heart rate and contractility o it inhibits norepinephrine release o reduces arterial resistance in the splanchnic vessels o lowers renal blood flow lowering of the blood pressure o no exception
it inhibits norepinephrine release
44
The following drug/s is/are considered sympatholytics-> lower BP> essential drugs for the treatment of hypertension. o hydralazine o methyldopa o clonidine o A and B are correct o B and C are correct
B and C are correct
45
In Pheochromocytoma, increased amounts of catecholamines are produced due to presence of tumors in the adrenals. Blood pressure increases as a result. This condition can be managed by surgical incision of the tumor. However, BP can be lowered with this/these drug/s before the actual surgical procedure. o labetalol o phentolamine o nitroprusside o minoxidil o B and C are correct
B and C are correct
46
Ester anesthetics are notorious in causing allergic reactions due to the formation of this substance: o penicilloic acid o GABA o para aminobenzoic acid o butyrylcholine o gamma butyrolactone
para aminobenzoic acid
47
Following a prolonged first labor, an alert nurse notices persistent bleeding in the post-partum patient with no vaginal or cervical laceration, and her uterine fundus feels very soft. The patient’s heart rate is mildly elevated, and her blood pressure is 105/55 mm Hg. Which of the following would be the best choice to increase the uterine tone and stop the bleeding? o Acetaminophen o Buspirone o Methylergonovine o Methysergide o Vasopressin
Methylergonovine
48
The patient complains to his doctor mild to moderate epigastric pain of 1 week duration. He explains that he has been taking aspirin for many years and 3 glasses of coffee in a day to keep him awake while at work and to relieve pain related to his low back injury. The doctor suspects gastritis and prescribes a trial of medication that might be helpful to this patient. What medication did the physician most likely prescribe? o Doxylamine o Desloratadine o Cetrizine o Famotidine o Buspiron
Famotidine
49
A 4th year Pharmacy student has been taking over-the-counter (OTC) diphenhydramine for her allergy rhinitis most of her life. Lately, however, she has had more frequent symptoms, so she increased the dose of the medication. She now asks her friend, who is a medical student, to explain to her how exactly this agent makes her more sleepy lately. What is the most likely answer regarding diphenhydramine? o It blocks H1 -receptors in the brain o It modulates the release of dopamine and serotonin triggering drowsiness o It acts peripherally, since it does not cross the blood–brain barrier o It exerts its effects via muscarinic–cholinergic agonist activity o It contains tryptophan, which produces sedation
It blocks H1 -receptors in the brain
50
An overdose of benzodiazepines can be reversed with this drug: o naloxone o methadone o buproprion o flumazenil o hyoscine
flumazenil
51
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the mechanism of action of HEPARIN? o Heparin increases activity of antithrombin o Serine proteases of the clotting cascade are deactivated o Heparin catalyzes clotting in vitro o Heparin aids sequestration of lipoproteins o Clotting factor is activated
Heparin increases activity of antithrombin
52
Further studies on a patient complaining of severe abdominal revealed elevated levels of gastrin and evidence of ulcers involving the jejunum, suggest a diagnosis of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which of the following agents would be most useful in the management of this patient? o Famotidine o Lansoprazole o Misoprostol o Propantheline o Pepto Bismol
Lansoprazole
52
A 70 year old diabetic patient developed end stage renal disease and requires once or twice a month red blood cell transfusion for his anemia. His attending physician decided to start him on Erythropoietin injections. As a pharmacist, how would you explain to him the action of the drug? o It increases proliferation of erythroid precursor cells in the bone marrow o It decreases the release of reticulocytes from the bone marrow o It decreases hemoglobin synthesis o It is independent of the amount of iron stored in the body o It participates in the mitochondrial reaction that produces succinyl- CoA
It increases proliferation of erythroid precursor cells in the bone marrow
53
A patient who has a history of atrial fibrillation was prescribed with warfarin. The pharmacy receives a call from the ER informing that the patient was admitted for warfarin toxicity. Which of the following H2 -blockers has the patient likely been taking? o Cimetidine o Ranitidine o Scopolamine o Famotidine o Nizatidine
Cimetidine
54
Zileuton is useful in the treatment of asthma because it : o Inhibits prostaglandin biosynthesis o Inhibits leukotriene synthesis o Inhibits leukotriene receptors o Inhibits 12-lipoxygenase
Inhibits leukotriene synthesis
55
A 50-year-old female patient has fasting glucose levels of 175 mg/dL, and with a glucose tolerance test, you have confirmed the diagnosis of type II diabetes. You begin therapy with metformin, but her fasting glucose levels remain above 100 mg/dL. You decide to change her therapy to glyburide. This drug acts to: o Increase insulin secretion o Decrease glucocorticoid levels o Decrease tissue sensitivity to insulin o Decrease insulin half-life o Increase tissue sensitivity to insulin
Increase insulin secretion
56
A 40 year old woman complains of hot flashes, feelings of weakness, and increased appetite. You observe that she is tachycardic and has a prominent pulse pressure. Results of a test for anti- TSH antibodies are positive. Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient? o Propylthiouracil o Liotrix o Thyrotropin a o Ketoconazole o Levothyroxine
Propylthiouracil
57
The antibiotic/s of choice for Pneumocystis carini infection in a patient with HIV is/are: o cefixime o cefipime o co-trimoxazole o A and C are correct o B and C are correct
co-trimoxazole
58
The selective toxicity with the use of Aminoglycosides can be due to this reason: o humans do not have 30 s subunits o humans do not have 50 s subunits o the inability of the drugs to reach the CNS o they are only active against Gram-negative aerobes o A and C are correct
humans do not have 30 s subunits
59
Mycoplasmas are NOT sensitive to Penicillin and other Cell wall synthesis inhibitors. This is an example of: o resistance acquired by mutation o resistance acquired from R factors o natural resistance o resistance due to altered targets o multidrug efflux pumps actively pumping β-lactams out of the cell
multidrug efflux pumps actively pumping β-lactams out of the cell
60
Cilastin is formulated with Imepenem in the treatment against most microorganisms. This is done to: o inhibition of dehydropeptidases less formation of inactive products o lessen nephrotoxicity o reduce and retard the development of resistance o A and B are correct o B and C are correct
lessen nephrotoxicity
61
TRUE about Fluconazole as an antifungal agent, EXCEPT: o can be given orally or intravenously o lacks the endocrinological side effects seen with ketoconazole o drug of choice for systemic (disseminated) fungal infections o better CSF penetration than ketoconazole o no exception
no exception
62
What is the initial management at home to be done (insert picture) o Decontaminate the patient o Give milk o Let the patient vomit o All of the above
Decontaminate the patient
63
Petroleum distillate like kerosene has the following characteristics that can increase the risk for aspiration. What are these properties? o High surface tension, high viscosity, low volatility o Low viscosity, high volatility, low surface tension o High viscosity, low volatility, high surface tension o Low viscosity, low volatility, high surface tension
Low viscosity, high volatility, low surface tension
64
What are the 3 main organ systems affected by Petroleum Distillates? o CVS, CNS, Gastrointestinal o Pulmonary, CNS, CVS o Gastrointestinal, CVS, Pulmonary o CNS, Hepatic, Pulmonary
Gastrointestinal, CVS, Pulmonary
65
What is the goal of antidotal therapy in opiate poisoning? o Reinstitution of adequate spontaneous ventilation. o Reversal of consciousness. o both o none of the above
both
65
The following are the mechanism of action of INH poisoning o Enhanced excitatory amino acid neurotransmission o Inhibition of GABAergic tone o Adenosine antagonism o Glycine inhibition
Inhibition of GABAergic tone
66
What is the antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity? o Naloxone o Flumazenil o Atropine o Thiamin
Flumazenil
67
What toxin is responsible for PSP poisoning? o Saxitoxin o Tetrodotoxin o Ciguatoxin o Scrombotoxin
Saxitoxin
68
What specific symptom is characteristic for Ciguatera poisoning? o Gastrointestinal signs and symptoms o Hot-Cold Reversal o Paresthesia o Locked in syndrome
Paresthesia
69
It is the study of how the physicochemical properties of drugs, dosage forms & routes of administration affect the rate and extent of drug absorption: o LADMER system o Pharmaceutics o Biopharmaceutics o Pharmacokinetic
Biopharmaceutics
69
What type of mushroom poisoning can cause both gastrointestinal and hepatorenal symptoms? o Gyromitrin o Muscimol o Cyclopeptides o Coprine
Cyclopeptides
70
Antidote used in the treatment of isonicotinic acid intoxication o Flumazenil o Pyridoxine o Naloxone o Thiamin
Naloxone
71
The first step which determines the onset of action, rate of absorption & availability is. o Liberation o distribution o Excretion o absorption
Liberation
72
The integral of drug level over time from zero to infinity is. o Biologic half life o AUC o Bioavailability o Biopharmaceutics
AUC
73
When a substance is half-ionized at a certain pH, its pKa is: o Greater than pH o less than pH o equal to pH o negligible as compared to pH
equal to pH
74
The Noyes-Whitney equation determines: o Particle size measurement o Actual drug solubility o Dissolution constant o Dissolution rate
Dissolution rate
75
Drug entering the body does not instantly distribute between the blood & those other body fluids or tissues which it eventually reaches: o open one-compartment o open two-compartment o multi-million compartment model o central compartment
open one-compartment
76
Rate constants in pharmacokinetics are usually: o zero order o first order o second order o third order
first order
77
This refers to the time in hours necessary to reduce the drug concentration in the blood, plasma, or serum to one- half after equilibrium is reached: o Half-life o clearance o elimination o GET o hepatic clearance
Half-life
77
Which of the following is / are the equation/s of a first- order react (insert photo) o I only o II only o III only o II to IV o I to IV
III only
77
In IV infusion, it is essential to administer this dose in order to immediately reach steady state: o loading dose o maintenance dose o tittered dose o priming dose o A and D
A and D
78
It refers to the net transfer of a drug from the circulating fluids of the body to various tissues & organs: o absorption o distribution o metabolism o excretion
distribution
79
The term used to describe the achievement of sustained drug concentration by simply increasing the dose size or by accidental fast release of drug from a sustained release dosage form: o Dose curve o accumulation o dose dumping o dose dependency
dose dumping
80
The larger amount of total body fluid & the very small amount of fat tissue in infants make it likely that the volume of distribution of hydrophilic compounds is _____ and that lipophilic ones is ____. o Increased/decreased o decreased/increased o increased/increased o decreased/decrease
decreased/increased
81
Drug binding to protein can be considered as a: o reversible process o irreversible process o Linear o Non Linear o saturated
reversible process
82
Free drug concentration is ____ of plasma binding, but is _____ on tissue binding: o independent, dependent o dependent, independent o dependent, dissociative o dissociative, independent
independent, dependent
83
A PK parameter that gives the speed at which a drug enters a compartment, distributes between a central & peripheral compartment and is eliminated from the systemic circulation o half-life o Volume of distribution o rate constant o AUC o Cma
Volume of distribution
84
It is a hypothetical structure which can be used to characterize with reproducibility the behavior & the fate of a drug in biological systems. * Option 1
85
This refers to the anatomical location of the receptors for a drug: o enzymes o protoenzymes o biophase o microsomes
enzymes
86
This is the increase in enzyme content or rate of enzymatic processes resulting in faster metabolism of a compound: o enzyme restriction o enzyme inhibition o enzyme imbibitions o enzyme induction
enzyme induction
87
The major plasma protein involved in the distribution of weak acids is: o albumin o glycine o glycoprotein o erythrocyte
albumin