MODULE 3 Flashcards by Gabrielle Sodusta

Which phase of the medication use process
involves reviewing a patient’s medical history,
current medications, and laboratory values to
make an appropriate drug therapy plan?
A. Prescribing
B. Administration
C. Dispensing
D. Monitoring

Prescribing

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Refers to an error that occurred resulting to
prolonged hospitalization
A. CAT F
B. CAT E
C. CAT G
D. CAT H

CAT F

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A patient with a known allergy to penicillin should
avoid which of the following antibiotic classes?
A. Fluoroquinolones
B. Macrolides
C. Cephalosporins
D. Aminoglycosides

Cephalosporins

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Which of the following drug classes is commonly used to lower cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease?

A. Beta-blockers
B. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
C. Statins
D. Benzodiazepines

Statins

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Which of the following antiplatelet medications is
often prescribed to reduce the risk of thrombotic
events in patients with acute coronary syndromes?
A. Warfarin
B. Aspirin
C. Furosemide
D. Metoprolol

Aspirin

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Which drug class is commonly used to treat
angina by relaxing coronary arteries and improving
blood flow to the heart?
A. Beta-blockers
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Angiotensin receptor blockers

Calcium channel blockers

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Which class of medications is commonly used as
a rescue inhaler for acute bronchospasm in patients
with asthma or COPD?
A. Antihistamines
B. Corticosteroids
C. Long-acting beta-agonists (LABAs)
D. Short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs)

Short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs)

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A patient with tuberculosis (TB) is prescribed a
multidrug regimen. Which medication is a first-line
agent typically used in the treatment of TB?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Ethambutol
C. Rifampin
D. Linezolid

Rifampin

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Which class of oral antidiabetic medications
stimulates the pancreas to release more insulin and
is associated with an increased risk of
hypoglycemia?
A. Biguanides
B. Thiazolidinediones (TZDs)
C. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4)
inhibitors
D. Sulfonylureas

Sulfonylureas

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A patient with diabetes is prescribed a
medication that decreases glucose absorption from
the intestines and lowers postprandial blood glucose
levels. Which medication class does this describe?
A. Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
B. Sodium-glucose cotransporter-2
(SGLT2) inhibitors
C. Glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1)
agonists
D. Meglitinides

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

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Black, tarry stool may indicate lower
gastrointestinal bleeding. Fat malabsorption
(steatorrhea) usually leads to dark brown stool.
A. Both are correct.
B. Only the 2nd statement is correct.
C. Both are wrong.
D. Only the 1st statement is correct.

Both are wrong

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Gout is caused by deposition of monosodium
urate crystals in joints and soft tissues. Chronic
hyperuricemia may lead to gout.
A. Both are correct.
B. Only the 2nd statement is correct.
C. Only the 1st statement is correct.
D. Both are wrong.

Both are correct.

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In this condition the entire thyroid gland might be
overactive and produce too much hormone. This
problem is also called diffuse toxic goiter (enlarged
thyroid gland).
A. Grave’s disease
B. Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
C. Iatrogenic goiter
D. Thyrotoxicosis

Grave’s disease

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Asthma Symptoms more than twice a week, but
no more than once in a single day
A. Mild intermittent
B. Moderate persistent
C. Severe persistent
D. Mild persistent

Mild persistent

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Classic symptoms of meningitis usually include
A. Dry skin, dehydration, cold sores
B. Fever, headache, stiff neck
C. Backache, hallucinations, indigestion
D. Rash, inner ear pain, itching

Fever, headache, stiff neck

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The first symptom of Parkinson’s disease is/are?
A. Postural instability
B. Tremors
C. Bradykinesia
D. All are correct
E. Rigidity

Tremors

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the measurement of specific drugs and/or their
breakdown products (metabolites) at timed intervals
to maintain a relatively constant concentration of the
medication in the blood.
A. Volume of Distribution
B. Therapeutic Drug Monitoring
C. NOTE
D. Clinical Pharmacokinetics

Therapeutic Drug Monitoring

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Involves identifying and measuring cost of
different treatment options and comparing it with their benefits

A. Cost-Benefit Analysis
B. Cost-Utility Analysis
C. Cost-Minimization Analysis
D. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis

Cost-Minimization Analysis

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All Physical examination techniques follow the
IAPP pattern except for abdomen. In percussion, we
use our hands to feel for tenderness or presence of
masses.
A. Both are correct.
B. Only the 2nd statement is correct.
C. Both are wrong.
D. Only the 1st statement is correct.

Both are wrong

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Outcomes of Pharmaceutical care, except
A. Preventing of disease or symptoms
B. Cure of a disease
C. Elimination or reduction of symptoms
D. Arrest or slowing of a disease process
E. Research on disease

Research on disease

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What is the primary goal of integrative medicine
A. Minimizing disease progression
B. Prevention and Wellness
C. Minimizing illness
D. Maximizing capacity for healing

Maximizing capacity for healing

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What is the most obvious involvement of
Pharmacists in Complementary and Alternative
Medicine?
A. Offer sound, impartial advice about CAM
B. Sale of CAM
C. Ensure that stocks of CAM products are
obtained from a reputable source
D. Manufacture of CAM products

Sale of CAM

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Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the declaration of the policy of the Republic Act No. 8423?

A. TAMA of 1997 is to improve the quality and delivery of health care services to the Filipino people.
B. TAMA of 1997 is to integrate traditional and alternative health care into the national health care delivery system.
C. TAMA of 1997 is to promote the use of traditional, alternative, preventive, and curative health care modalities
D. TAMA of 1997 is to seek legally workable basis by which indigenous societies would own their knowledge of traditional medicine

TAMA of 1997 is to promote the use of traditional, alternative, preventive, and curative health care modalities

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The comprehensive body of knowledge, skills,
and healthcare practices, which may not always
align with modern scientific principles but are
acknowledged by communities.
A. Alternative Health Care Modalities
B. Integrative Medicine
C. Traditional Medicine
D. Traditional and Alternative Health Care

Traditional Medicine

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Which of the following does not belong to Alternative Medical Systems domain of Complementary and Alternative Medicine? A. Acupuncture, Massage, Use of herbs B. Ayurveda, TCM, Oriental Medicine C. Naturopathy, Homeopathy D. None of the above

None of the above

The legal basis for the declaration of November as Traditional and Health and Alternative Health Care Month. A. GCG Memorandum Circular 2012-10 B. GCG Memorandum Circular 2012-12 C. Proclamation No. 698, Series of 2004 D. Proclamation No. 968, Series of 2004

Proclamation No. 698, Series of 2004

In Ayurveda, which of the following energy force is responsible for the control of digestion and metabolism? A. Pitta dosha B. Kappa dosha C. Vata dosha D. Both A and C

Pitta dosha

The most common form of energy medicine which assists the recipient in tapping into their own healing process. A. Healing Touch B. Magnetic Therapy C. Therapeutic Touch D. Energy Therapy

Therapeutic Touch

Which of the following medicinal plants approved by the DOH is used in CAM to eliminate intestinal parasites? A. Senna alata B. Quisqualis indica C. Ehretia microphylla D. Peperomia pellucida

Quisqualis indica

An alternative health care modality developed by Dr. Aaron Beck belongs to which domains of Complementary and Alternative Medicine? A. Alternative Medical Systems B. Mind-Body Interventions C. Manipulative and Body-based Methods D. Energy Therapy

Mind-Body Interventions

The fraction 26/208 is equal to; a. 12.5% b. 0.125 c. 1/8 d. AOTA e. NOTA

AOTA

The quantity 0.25 g is equal to except; a. 250000 mcg b. 25cg c. 2,500 mg d. 2.5 dg e. NOTA

2,500 mg

The signa "tab iss p.c. tid x 1 wk." is translated as... a. take 1 ½ tablet three times a day before meals for 1 week b. take 1 ½ tablet three times a day before meals once a week c. take 1 tablet three times a day after meals for 1 week d. take 1 ½ tablet three times a day after meals for 1 week e. take 1 ½ tablet three times a day after meals once a week

take 1 ½ tablet three times a day after meals for 1 week

What will be the concentration in %w/w of 20% w/v NaCl solution if the sp.gr. of the solution is 1.3 a. 3% b. 25.79% c. 25.97% d. 15.39% e. 1.54%

15.39%

The concentration 1:4000 is equivalent to the following, except; a. 0.025% b. 0.25mg/ml c. 250 ppm d. 25 mg% e. NOTA

NOTA

How many tumblers can be obtained from 1 gallon? a. 63 tumblers b. 31 tumblers c. 32 tumblers d. 16 tumblers e. 15 tumblers

15 tumblers

Calculate the dose for a patient that measures 6'3" and weighs 70 lb if the dose is 15 mg/m²; a. 21.9 mg b. 1.95 mg c. 19.42 mg d. 25.2 mg e. 18.15 mg

19.42 mg

Potency of measles virus vaccine is expressed in a. PFU b. TCID50 c. FFU d. EL.U e. NOTA

TCID50

A biologic contains 100 LF units of diphtheria toxoid in each 5 ml of product. If a pediatric patient is to receive 5 Lf units, how many ml of product would be administered. a. 0.25 ml b. 0.05 ml c. 0.5 ml d. 0.0n5 ml e. NOTA

0.25 ml

If a 2 ml vial contains 80 units of onabotulinumtoxinA (BOTOX) and 0.1 ml is injected into 10 sites during a procedure, how many units of drug was administered? a. 20 units b. 40 units c. 60 units d. 80 units e. NOTA

40 units

Calculate the equivalent tonic effect to NaCl represented by the ingredients in a 5% dextrose solution and determine whether the solution is; a. isotonic b. hypotonic c. hypertonic

isotonic

Using Young's Rule, compute for the child dose of acetaminophen in a day: Adult dose: 500 mg q4h Child's weight: 45 lb Child's age: 8 years old a. 200 mg b. 900 mg c. 1,125 mg d. 1, 200 mg e. NOTA

1, 200 mg

How many ml of water will be added to a 20% NaCl solution to prepare 1 pint of NSS? a. 45.17 ml b. 451.71ml c. 21.29ml d. 212.9ml e. NOTA

451.71ml

In what proportion should a 10%, 7% Sulfur ointments and yellow ointment be mixed to prepare a 5% Sulfur ointment; a. 10:7:1 b. 7:3:3 c. 5:5:7 d. 4:4:11 e. NOTA

5:5:7

The total amount in a given formulation of Dexamethasone ophthalmic ointment is 35 g. What factor are you going to use to solve for the quantity needed to prepare 50 dozens of a 3.5 gram- tube of the ophthalmic ointment. a. 20 b. 35 c. 60 d. 70 e. 3.5

If there is an order for a particular Dangerous Drug (DD) with a preparation of 10 mg/2 mL ampule, how many mL would be needed if the dose is 0.05 mg/Kg/dose? The patient is 110 lbs. a. 1 mL b. 0.05 mL c. 0.25 mL d. 0.5 mL

0.5 mL

The temperature 4.44°C is equal to a. 40° F b. 5°C c. 279 K d. a and c e. NOTA

40° F

What is the %v/v of a solution of 800g liquid (spec. gravity = 0.8) in water to make 4000mL? a. 20% b. 40% c. 25% d. 80%

25%

Which of the following is incorrect pairing? a. 0.009% NSS: hypotonic solution b. 9.0% NSS: isotonic solution c. 0.9% NSS: isotonic solution d. 0.09% NSS: hypotonic solution

9.0% NSS: isotonic solution

Arrange the ff administration instructions from MOST to LEAST frequent: a. q4h, hs, bid b. bid, hs, q4h c. q8h, bid, hs d. hs, q4h, bid

q8h, bid, hs

If a drug inhaler contains 20 mg of the active drug, how many inhalation doses can be delivered, if each inhalation dose contains 90 micrograms? a. 1,800 doses b. 22 doses c. 180 doses d. 222 doses

222 doses

How many grams of 1% hydrocortisone cream must be mixed with 0.5% hydrocortisone cream if one wishes to prepare 80 g of a 0.6% w/w preparation? a. 12 g b. 16 g c. 20 g d. 24 g e. 36 g

16 g

Which of the following is/are NOT the technical aspects of pharmaceutical services? A. Counseling B. Medicine Supply Management C. Both A and B D. None of the above

Counseling

These are drugs that are NOT safe for use and are habit-forming drugs that require the supervision of a licensed practitioner. A. Legend Drugs B. Prescription Drugs C. Both A and B D. None of the above

Both A and B

Which of the following is/are NOT the outcome/s of pharmaceutical care? A. Cure of Patient’s Disease B. Elimination of patient’s symptomatology C. Both A and B D. None of the above

None of the above

The following are the responsibilities of a Registered Pharmacist, EXCEPT: A. Must maintain a high level of practice competence B. Planning and conducting a patient’s course of treatment C. Provide pharmaceutical care D. Practice the value of confidentiality

Planning and conducting a patient’s course of treatment

This is a special prescription issued by the Dangerous Drug Board for practitioners to prescribe both regulated & prohibited drugs. A. Yellow prescription B. DDB Form 1-72 C. Both A and B D. None of the above

Both A and B

These are drugs that are not habit-forming and can be bought off-the-shelf in stores. A. OTC B. Legend Drugs C. Both A and B D. None of the above

OTC

Only Physicians having an S3 license can prescribe both prohibited and regulated drugs. Retail Pharmacies that do not require a license from the Dangerous Drugs Board to sell dangerous drugs in any form. (Invalid question supposed to be S2 license) A. 1st Statement is true. 2nd Statement is false. B. 1st Statement is false. 2nd Statement is true. C. Both statements are true D. Neither statements are true.

1st Statement is true. 2nd Statement is false.

Main requirements for Medication Review: A. Data and access to information, resources, and logistics, collaborative efforts B. Data access and Collaborative efforts C. Resources and Collaborative efforts D. Collaborative efforts and Access to information

Data and access to information, resources, and logistics, collaborative efforts

Impact of medication review, EXCEPT: A. Clinical Outcomes B. Humanistic Outcomes C. Social Outcomes D. Economic Outcomes

Social Outcomes

It is a px-centered systematic approach wherein the Clinical Pharmacist will design a written format to ensure a proper drug use, achieve a definite outcome, and improve px care through assuring safety, effectiveness, and cost-effectiveness. A. Pharmaceutical Care Plan B. Medication Review C. Medication Adherence D. None of the above

Pharmaceutical Care Plan

The following are true in the role of being a Clinical Pharmacist, EXCEPT: I. The Clinical Pharmacist should serve as a resource regarding all aspects of medical procedures and be accessible as a point of contact. II. Clinical pharmacists should assist the therapeutic decision-making and advice on patient safety issues III. They should be involved in all patient care areas especially in therapeutic decision making. IV. They should assure continuity care. A. I only B. II only C. I & II only D. None of the above E. All of the above

I only

It is a role of the pharmacist as an effective source of factual medication information despite having contradicting and confusing information encountered in their line of duty. A. Life-long learner B. Entrepreneur C. Communicator D. Decision-maker E. Care-giver

Decision-maker

This branch of pharmacy assures the integrity of the medicine supply chain and ensures proper storage of medicines. A. Industrial Pharmacist B. Dispensing Pharmacist C. Clinical Pharmacist D. Nuclear Pharmacist E. None of the above

Dispensing Pharmacist

This role of being a pharmacist is to promote and innovate its field of profession by improving certain aspects of standard operating procedures or undergoing studies to help improve quality healthcare services A. Decision-maker B. Communicator C. Researcher D. Care-giver E. Life-long learner

Researcher

The following components of the mission/philosophy of pharmaceutical practice except: I. Health promotion II. Preventing harm in operating or surgical errors III. Identifying and managing health-related problems IV. Delegating responsible use of unlimited health-care resources A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 2 and 4 only E. None of the above

2 and 4 only

It is a quality of being a pharmacist to not only be knowledgeable about the pharmaceutical aspect but also convey that information in a way patients and customers can understand A. Decision-maker B. Researcher C. Care-giver D. Life-long learner E. Communicator

Communicator

The following are roles of a dispensing pharmacist except: I. Assisting patients to help them understand the correct timing of doses, foods, or other medicines to avoid when taking a dose II. Monitor and verifying adverse medicine events III. Assures reliability and safety of the medicine supply IV. Can be consulted for health-related problems A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. None of the above E. All of the above

All of the above

A quality of a pharmacist is to pursue knowledge and expose oneself to new and updated information within the profession to promote better patient healthcare service A. Researcher B. Life-long learner C. Agents for positive change D. Teacher E. Leader

Life-long learner

The mission of pharmacy practice is to ___ to health ____ and to help patients with _____ problems to make the best use of their medicines A. Adhere, improvement, health B. Contribution, innovations, health C. Adhere, improvement, emotional D. Contribute, improvement, health E. Promote, advancements, medical

Contribute, improvement, health

Marketing of Drugs and medical devices by private and Public organization: A. Pharmaceutical Management B. Pharmaceutical Marketing C. Pharmaceutical Administration D. Pharmaceutical Economics

Pharmaceutical Marketing

FOUR P's oF MARKETING: A. PRODUCT, PLACE, PRICE AND PEOPLE B. PRODUCT, PLACE, PRICE AND PROMOTION C. PRODUCT, PLACE, PRICE, AND PERFORMANCE D. PEOPLE, PRODUCT, PLACE AND PRICE

PRODUCT, PLACE, PRICE AND PROMOTION

The cycle of management: A. Planning, Organizing, Motivation, Control. B. Planning, Organizing, Motivation, Challenge. C. Planning, Organizing, Mechanism, Control. D. Control, Motivation, Organization, Planning

Planning, Organizing, Motivation, Control.

Competitive Advantage are attributed to a variety of factors except: A. Cost Structure B. Quality of Product offering C. Customer Service D. AOTA E. NOTA

NOTA

Set of characteristics and benefits the company choses to stimulate the desired target market except: A. Marketing plan B. Marketing Mix C. Market value D. AOTA E. NOTA

Market value

Good marketing plan includes the following except: A. Financial Goal B. Positioning Strategy C. Brand Strategy D. NOTA E. AOTA

NOTA

Acronym of Smart: A. Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant and Time bound B. Specific, Measurable, Acceptable, Relevant, and Time-bound C. Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Reliable, and Time-bound D. Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Reliable, and Time-Table

Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant and Time bound

THREE KEY AREAS TO EXECUTE THE RIGHT ACTIVITIES A. Managing a company business B. Establishing strategies C. Assessment of company strength D. AOTA E. NOTA

AOTA

Acronym for SWOT: A. Strength, Work ethics, Opportunities, Threats B. Strength, Weakness, Opposite, Threats C. Strength, Work ethics, Opportunities, Threaten D. Strength, Weakness, Opportunities, Threats

Strength, Weakness, Opportunities, Threats

ONE OF THE THREE PHASES OF VALUE CREATION: A. 1st Phase - Sales Force B. 2nd Phase - Determine specific Product Feature C. 3rd Phase - Choosing the value segment, target and positioning D. AOTA E. NOTA

2nd Phase - Determine specific Product Feature

Substances in this schedule have no currently accepted medical use, a lack of accepted safety for use under medical supervision, and a high potential for abuse. A. Schedule 1 B. Schedule 2 C. Schedule 3 D. Schedule 4 E. Schedule 5

Schedule 1

Aims to understand how and why drugs/ medicines are used as they are; and to improve drug use to the best possible health outcomes. A. Drug Usage Evaluation B. Drug Information Service C. Medication Administration D. Drug Utilization Review

Drug Utilization Review

The Patient Medical Chart documents the health information of all patients. It also serves as a mechanism for communication among health care professionals and is a hospital non-legal document of the patient's health care information A. Only 1st statement is false B. 1st statement is true. 2nd statement is false C. Neither of the statements are false D. Neither of the statements are true

Neither of the statements are true

Complete Floor Stock System wherein omission of rarely used for particularly expensive drugs from the floor stock but dispensed when prescribed. Individual Prescription Order system is usually used by the small/private hospitals A. 1st statement is wrong. 2nd statement is correct. B. 1st statement is correct. 2nd statement is wrong C. Neither of the statements are wrong. D. Neither of the statements are correct.

Neither of the statements are wrong

An FDA approved drug which is recommended as being essential for good patient care with a well-established usage. Once it is accepted it may be prescribed by all members of the attending and house staffs. A. Investigational Drug B. Specialized Formulary Drug C. Formulary Drug D. None of the above

Formulary Drug

What is not TRUE about compounding? A. Used for patient who cannot be treated with an FDA-approved medication, such as a patient who has an allergy to a certain dye and needs a medication to be made without B. Most compounded drugs are not FDA approved. C. Compounded drugs are used to cater the needs of a specific medication used by a patient. D. Compounded drugs have the same safety, quality, and effectiveness assurances as approved drugs.

Compounded drugs have the same safety, quality, and effectiveness assurances as approved drugs.

A prescription was given by an out-patient to the hospital pharmacist on duty. The prescription was indecipherable and illegible. As a pharmacist, what would be the BEST solution? A. Guess the medication/s being prescribed and dispense. B. Tell the patient the medication/s prescribed is/are out of stock/s. C. Call the prescribing physician to confirm and request for a new legible prescription before dispensing D. Call the prescribing physician for the patient's diagnosis to prescribe the medication and dispense.

Call the prescribing physician to confirm and request for a new legible prescription before dispensing

A 60 year-old male patient submits a 24-hour urine for creatinine clearance analysis. The volume of the sample submitted is 1580 mL. The urine creatinine is 140 mg/dL, and the plasma creatinine is 0.9 mg/dL. A. 104.22 B. 157.43 C. 170.68 D. 138.90

170.68

Interpret the result of the 60 year old patient (refer to question number 8) A. High creatinine level B. Normal creatinine level C. Low creatinine level D. NOTA

High creatinine level NORMAL RANGE: Adult female: 85-125mL/min Adult male: 97-137mL/min

Compute for the infusion rate: D5Lr: 1 Liter to be infused for 12 hrs with a drop factor of 15 A. 20.83 gtt/min B. 23.01 gtt/min C. 20.03 gtt/min D. 20.01 gtt/min

20.83 gtt/min

What is the role of pharmacists in medical informatics? A. Analyzing patient demographics B. Ensuring medication safety and efficacy through information systems C. Conducting surgical procedures D. Managing hospital finances

Ensuring medication safety and efficacy through information systems

How does CDSS contribute to evidence-based practice in pharmacy? A. By relying solely on healthcare provider experience B. By automatically administering medications C. By providing clinical guidelines and recommendations D. By restricting access to patient data.

By providing clinical guidelines and recommendations

Example of a tertiary source A. Conference proceedings B. Review of articles C. Hospital Formulary D. Artifacts

Hospital Formulary

Which of the following is NOT considered a source of evidence in evidence-based medicine? A. Randomized controlled trials B. Expert opinions C. Case reports D. Meta-analyses

Expert opinions

A researcher wants to investigate the effectiveness of a new medication for hypertension compared to standard therapy. Which component of the PICO framework does this represent? A. Patient B. Intervention C. Comparison D. Outcome

Intervention

Which is/are true for the 2nd step of the modified systematic approach I. This is historically the most difficult step because you must act as a detective. II. It's best to inquire how the requestor would like the information delivered at this step. A. Only the 1st statement is correct B. Both are wrong C. Both are correct D. Only the 2nd statement is correct

Only the 1st statement is correct

A clinician wants to know if the use of acupuncture is more effective than traditional pain medications for treating lower back pain in elderly patients. What component of the PICO framework would represent the traditional pain medications? A. Patient B. Intervention C. Comparison D. Outcome

Comparison

A concise statement describing the symptom, problem, condition, diagnosis, or another factor that is the reason for the encounter A. MHx B. HPI C. FHx D. CC

A 20 year old woman has a family history of breast cancer with both her mother dying of the disease at 29 and her sister being diagnosed with the disease at 31. What is the implication of this for this patient? A. There is a significantly increased risk of this person developing breast cancer B. There is no significance of such a history C. There is no benefit in enrolling such a patient into a screening program D. There is no significance of such a history E. There is no benefit in offering genetic counseling & screening

There is a significantly increased risk of this person developing breast cancer

It is the most common method of documentation used by providers to input notes into patients' medical records A. SOAP B. CORE C. FARM D. PRIM

SOAP