Module 10 (part of test 4) Flashcards

(85 cards)

1
Q

Penicillins have a ___ _____ _____ structure?

A

beta-lactam ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Penicillins interfere with?

A

bacterial cell wall synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Narrow spectrum antibiotics are effective agains what bacteria?

A

gram -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Gram + bacteria have an increased _____ in their cell wall?

A

peptidoglycan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Penicillin resistant bacteria produce?

A

B-lactanase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is added to penicillin to restore its effectiveness against resistant strains?

A

Clavulanate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Amoxicillin + Clavulanate = _________

A

Augmentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the prototype natural penicillin?

A

Penicillin-G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

NAme 1 Narrow spectrum NATURAL penicillin?

A

Penicillin-V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

You should take narrow spectrum antibiotics with ______ to protect your GI and with ______ to protect your esophagus?

A

yogurt

water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Amoxicillin and Trimox are examples of?

A

broad spectrum antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What drug has a broader range than penicillins and has similar actions?

A

cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the 1st Generation cephalosporin?

A

Keflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the name of the 2nd Generation cephalosporin and what is the difference from the 1st generation?

A

Ceclor

affects gram - also

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the name of the 3rd Generation Cephalosporin? What makes it special?

A

Rocephin
Used in conjunction with L/A
Is a broad gram (-)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What Cephalosporin is used in the treatment of MRSA?

A

Maxipime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cephalosporins affect _____ bacteria, NOT _____

A

aerobic

anaerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What medication is good for the treatment of dental infections?

A

penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What medication is effective STRICTLY fro Anaerobic bacteria?

A

Nitroimadazoles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What nitroimadazole is used widely in dentistry?

A

Flagyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

We should avoid giving out ______ when a patient is on Flagyl?

A

alcohol mouthrinses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What broad spectrum medication inhibits DNA replication?

A

Quinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are 2 Quinolones used as outpatient antibiotics?

A

Lipro

Levaquin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What medication is given to patients who are allergic to penicillin?

A

Z-pack (erythromycin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What medications are bacteriostatic and similar to erythromycin?
Macrolides
26
Name 2 types of Macrolides?
Zirhromax | Biaxin
27
What Macrolide is used in the treatment of Periodontal Disease?
Zithromax
28
What medication inhibits the production and secretion of collagenase by the PMN's
Tetracyclines
29
What medication is indicated for CHRONIC periodontal disease?
Doxycycline (20mg) * Periostat *
30
What is the name of the topical doxycycline?
Atridox
31
Why is doxycycline so good in the treatment of Periodontal Disease?
has a high affinity for gingival crevicular fluid
32
Kids age ______ and under shouldn't take tetracycline?
8
33
What affect does Demerol have when given to kids?
excitability | reverse side effect
34
Analgesia means?
pain reduction/relief
35
Is pressure still felt with analgesia?
yes
36
Anesthesia means?
Lack of sensation (L/A)
37
______ usually accompanies anesthesia?
Analgesia
38
Stage 1 = _________ | The patient ______ conscious during this stage?
Analgesia | Is
39
What terminates stage 1?
Loss of consciousness
40
What medication used in dentistry maintains stage 1?
Nitrous
41
Stage 2 = _______/________ | This stage initiates _____ but can have involuntary movements?
delirium/excitement | unconsciousness
42
Stage 3 = ________ ________
surgical anesthesia
43
Stage 4 = _________ ______
respiratory paralysis
44
General Anesthesia is ______ lack of awareness?
total
45
Most drugs work on what part of the brain?
cerebral cortex
46
Local anesthesia works by blocking nerve impulses at _____ _______ by blocking _____ ______?
cellular level | sodium channels
47
What is the most common form of sedation?
IV
48
What are 2 common agents used in the induction phase of general anesthesia?
Pentothal | Propofol
49
What paralytic drug is used when patients get intubated or are very combative?
Succinylcholine
50
What is the most common type of psychosis?
Schizophrenia
51
How did "older" typical antipsychotics work?
blocked dopamine receptor sites
52
Name 1 "older" antipsychotic drug?
Thorazine
53
What atypical antipsychotic is used in the 1st line of therapy for Schizo/Bipolar patients?
Risperdal
54
Name 2 common atypical antipsychotics?
Abilify | Clozaril
55
What are 2 common side effects of antipsychotic medications?
Parkinson movements | Tardive Dyskinesia
56
Anticholinergics produce symptoms of ______, _______ and _______ dentally?
xerostomia root caries oral candidiasis
57
Depression Diagnosis is based on?
5 symptoms or more...every day.... for 2 wks
58
What are 3 classes of anti-depressants?
MAOI's TCA's SSRI's
59
MAO inhibitors inhibit ______ _____ so it wont break down catecholamines?
Monoamine Oxidase
60
What is the most potent antidepressant?
MAOI's
61
Name 2 common MAO inhibitors?
Nardil | Marplan
62
What antidepressant inhibits the re-uptake of NE/Serotonin?
TCA
63
What dental condition do TCA's help relieve?
Nocturnal bruxism
64
What are 2 commonly used TCA's?
Elavil | Tofranil
65
TCA's have been replaced by?
SSRI
66
What antidepressant inhibits ONLY serotonin re-uptake?
SSRI
67
What was the prototype SSRI?
Prozac
68
What are 3 commonly prescribed SSRI's?
Paxil Zoloft Wellbutrin
69
ADHD is due to increased release of ____ and ______?
NE | Dopamine
70
What is the GOLD STANDARD mood stabilizer?
Lithium
71
What is an example of a Somatoform Disorder?
Anorexia
72
What type of drug is widely prescribed for anxiety?
Benzodiazepines
73
Can we use L/A with epi if a patient is on Benzodiazepines?
yes
74
What is the prototype Benzodiazepine?
Valium
75
Which Benzodiazepine has an antagonist? What is the name of the antagonist?
Versed | Romazicon
76
Valium _________ anesthesia while Versed is used in _______ sedation?
induces | preoperative
77
Name 3 oral Benzodiazepines?
Valium Xanax Librium
78
What is the Benzodiazepine used as a date rape drug?
Rohypnol "roofies"
79
Ambien and Lunesta are what type of drug? What class?
Benzo-like (used for insomnia) | Class IV- Rx needed
80
Name 3 Barbiturates used to induce anesthesia?
Pentholal Pentobarbital Phenobarbital
81
What sedative/hypnotic did Michael Jackson die of?
Propofol
82
Propofol has a ______ induction time and a ______ duration?
rapid (40sec) | short (5-10min)
83
What Non-Bartbiturate did Anna Nicole Smith OD on?
Noctec
84
Noctec has a _____ onset time and a _______ duration?
long (30-60min) | long (4-6hr)
85
What Non-Barbiturate sedative/hypnotic is safer because it has an antagonist? What is the name of the antagonist?
Miltown | Narcan/Maxicon