Module 9 (part of test 4) Flashcards

(85 cards)

1
Q

Leukemia is characterized according to cell ______ and ______

A
type
maturation (age)
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2
Q

What Leukemia is most common in children?

A

Acute Leukemia

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3
Q

Which Leukemia has a large number of MATURE WBC’s?

A

Chronic

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4
Q

Acute Leukemia has a large number of ______ WBC’s?

A

immature

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5
Q

What is the 7th most common malignancy?

A

Lymphoma

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6
Q

What are the 3 types of Lymphomas?

A

Hodgkins
Non-Hodgkins
Burkitt’s

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7
Q

Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma is a disorder of the _____ and _____ cells?

A

T

B

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8
Q

Burkitt’s Lymphoma is an aggressive _____ Cell proliferation?

A

B

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9
Q

A patient with Burkitt’s may have what on their mandible?

A

osteolytic lesions

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10
Q

If we are seeing a patient with a WBC disorder we need a ________ and possibly ______ before treatment?

A

MD consult

premedication

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11
Q

What is the most common causes of urticaria in adults and in kids?

A

Adults- drugs

Kids- food

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12
Q

What are the 3 most common causes of anaphylactic death?

A

bee sting
wasp sting
penicillin

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13
Q

Allergic reactions result from a _______ reaction to a _______?

A

immune

antigen (non-infectious)

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14
Q

What cells process the presence of an antigen?

A

T-lymphocytes

Macrophages

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15
Q

What cells recognize the antigen and are the primary lymphocyte in humoral immunity?

A

B-lymphocytes

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16
Q

B-cels make what 2 things?

A

Plasma cells

Memory B-cells

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17
Q

Plasma cells make?

A

antibodies (immunoglobulins)

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18
Q

What type of hypersensitivity involves the humoral immunity and occurs soon after the 2nd contact/exposure?

A

Type 1

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19
Q

Type 1 Hypersensitivity is _____ mediated?

A

IgE

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20
Q

What is the most serious type 1 allergic response?

A

anaphylaxis

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21
Q

What 2 substances in L/A could a patient be allergic to?

A

Parabens

Sulfites

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22
Q

What medication generally doesn’t cause a true allergic reaction?

A

Codeine

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23
Q

What was the 1st generation Antagonist medication used in the treatment of allergic reactions?

A

Benadryl

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24
Q

What was the 2nd generation Antagonist medication used in the treatment of allergic reactions?

A

Allegra, Claritin, Zyrtek

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25
Flonase, Nasonex, and Rhinocort are examples of?
Intranasal Glucocorticoids
26
What immune system is referred to as "delayed"
Cellular
27
What cells play the central role in cellular immunity?
T-lymphocytes
28
T-cells produce?
cytokines and memory t-cells
29
The ______ is the largest organ. It weighs ____ lbs and is located in the ______Quadrant?
liver 3 UR
30
A compromised liver means a decreased synthesis of _________ factors?
coagulation
31
What are 3 causes of hepatitis?
virus Acetaminophen Alcohol
32
Hepatitis A is transmitted through what route?
fecal - oral
33
Does Hepatitis A have a carrier state?
No
34
Is there a vaccine for Hepatitis A?
yes- harrivax
35
How is Hepatitis B transmitted?
Blood (direct/indirect contact)
36
_________transmission of Hepatitis B is NOT important
airborne
37
Hepatitis B has a ____ onset and _______duration compared to Hepatitis A
slower | longer
38
A Hepatitis B immunoglobulin shot can be administered how long after exposure?
24-48 hrs
39
Is there a Hepatitis C vaccine?
no
40
What is the most chronic blood borne infection in the U.S.
Hepatitis C
41
Hepatitis _____ only occurs in the presence of Hepatitis B?
D
42
Hepatitis ______ only occurs in the presence of Hepatitis C?
G
43
Icteric means? and is due to?
Jaundice | billirubin buildup
44
What precedes the onset of jaundice?
Pre-icteric phase (prodromal)
45
The post-icteric phase is _________ and can last how long?
convalescent | 6 mo
46
_______ _________ liver is when hepatocytes get engorged with fatty lobules and distend?
Fatty Infiltrate
47
______ _______ is when the liver goes through destructive cellular changes?
alcoholic hepatitis
48
_______ is a progressive fibrosis of the liver and is irreversible?
cirrhosis
49
If surgical procedures are necessary for hepatitis patients we need to have ______ ability evaluated?
clotting
50
_______ is an alcohol sensitizing drug which increases the effects of a hangover?
Antabuse
51
What drug works like antabuse but is safer?
Temposil
52
How much hydrochloric acid do we produce a day?
2 liters
53
A well defined break in the GI mucosa is called a?
peptic ulcer
54
Most ulcers are located in the?
duodenum/stomach
55
1st degree relatives have a _____risk of GI ulcers?
3 fold
56
What is the main cause of GI diseases?
Overproduction of Acid
57
What is the 2nd cause of GI diseases?
H-pylori bacteria
58
Stomach discomfort occurs how long after eating?
90min-3hrs
59
What are 3 common drugs used in the treatment of H-pylori bacillus GI disorders?
Amoxicillin Biaxin Zantac
60
Pepto-bismol, Tums, Zantac, and Tagamet are OTC drugs that _____ of gastric secretions?
raise PH
61
What OTC GI medication interfered with lidocaine and valium typically used in dental treatment?
Tagamet
62
We need to avoid _____ and ______ OTC drugs when someone is taking GI medications?
Aspirin | NSAIDS
63
Antacids may impair the absorption of what 2 antibiotics?
Tetracycline | Erythromycin
64
What are 2 common oral complications with GI disorders?
``` Oral Candidiasis ( due to antibiotics) Enamel Erosion (due to vomiting) ```
65
What GI disease is Serious and sometimes fatal and occurs from prolonged antibiotic use?
PC- pseudomembranous colitis
66
Pseudomembranous Colitis is an overgrowth of?
Clostridium Difficile
67
Broad Spectrum antibiotics cause _____ after taking them for 4-10 days?
diarrhea
68
You should discontinue broad spectrum antibiotic use and switch to ____ or _____ with GI disorders?
Flagyl | Vancomycin
69
Plavix alters ______ function?
platelet
70
What is the most common inherited bleeding disorder?
Von Willebrand's
71
Hemophilia A is a deficiency / defect of factor?
8
72
Hemophilia B is also known as ____ and is a deficiency of factor _____?
Christmas Disease | 9
73
What medications do we recommend for dental management in patients with bleeding disorders?
Acetaminophen with/out Codeine
74
`Aspirin therapy results can last how long after the patient stops taking it?
9 days
75
Anemia is associated with _____ of RBC's
number
76
A normal RBC is ___% hemoglobin?
33
77
The _____ is the sensor that determines the level of oxygenation of RBCs
Kidney
78
Low oxygenation in RBCs tells the kidney to produce?
erythropoietin
79
What is the most common Anemia?
iron deficiency
80
Pernicious Anemia is a lack of ________ factor which is secreted from the _____ Cells?
intrinsic | parietal
81
What is a genetic anemia most commonly found in African Americans?
Sickle Cell
82
Radiographically the bone appears with ______ trabeculae arranged in a ______ pattern like a "_____ ____" in sickle cell patients?
widened horizontally step ladder
83
Patients with sickle cell disease need an oxygen saturation of _____%
95
84
Sickle cell patients _____ use Nitrous?
can
85
Nitrous levels need to be at ______% oxygen for sickle cell patients?
50 or higher