Module 9 (part of test 4) Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Module 9 (part of test 4) Deck (85):
1

Leukemia is characterized according to cell ______ and ______

type
maturation (age)

2

What Leukemia is most common in children?

Acute Leukemia

3

Which Leukemia has a large number of MATURE WBC's?

Chronic

4

Acute Leukemia has a large number of ______ WBC's?

immature

5

What is the 7th most common malignancy?

Lymphoma

6

What are the 3 types of Lymphomas?

Hodgkins
Non-Hodgkins
Burkitt's

7

Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma is a disorder of the _____ and _____ cells?

T
B

8

Burkitt's Lymphoma is an aggressive _____ Cell proliferation?

B

9

A patient with Burkitt's may have what on their mandible?

osteolytic lesions

10

If we are seeing a patient with a WBC disorder we need a ________ and possibly ______ before treatment?

MD consult
premedication

11

What is the most common causes of urticaria in adults and in kids?

Adults- drugs
Kids- food

12

What are the 3 most common causes of anaphylactic death?

bee sting
wasp sting
penicillin

13

Allergic reactions result from a _______ reaction to a _______?

immune
antigen (non-infectious)

14

What cells process the presence of an antigen?

T-lymphocytes
Macrophages

15

What cells recognize the antigen and are the primary lymphocyte in humoral immunity?

B-lymphocytes

16

B-cels make what 2 things?

Plasma cells
Memory B-cells

17

Plasma cells make?

antibodies (immunoglobulins)

18

What type of hypersensitivity involves the humoral immunity and occurs soon after the 2nd contact/exposure?

Type 1

19

Type 1 Hypersensitivity is _____ mediated?

IgE

20

What is the most serious type 1 allergic response?

anaphylaxis

21

What 2 substances in L/A could a patient be allergic to?

Parabens
Sulfites

22

What medication generally doesn't cause a true allergic reaction?

Codeine

23

What was the 1st generation Antagonist medication used in the treatment of allergic reactions?

Benadryl

24

What was the 2nd generation Antagonist medication used in the treatment of allergic reactions?

Allegra, Claritin, Zyrtek

25

Flonase, Nasonex, and Rhinocort are examples of?

Intranasal Glucocorticoids

26

What immune system is referred to as "delayed"

Cellular

27

What cells play the central role in cellular immunity?

T-lymphocytes

28

T-cells produce?

cytokines and memory t-cells

29

The ______ is the largest organ. It weighs ____ lbs and is located in the ______Quadrant?

liver
3
UR

30

A compromised liver means a decreased synthesis of _________ factors?

coagulation

31

What are 3 causes of hepatitis?

virus
Acetaminophen
Alcohol

32

Hepatitis A is transmitted through what route?

fecal - oral

33

Does Hepatitis A have a carrier state?

No

34

Is there a vaccine for Hepatitis A?

yes- harrivax

35

How is Hepatitis B transmitted?

Blood (direct/indirect contact)

36

_________transmission of Hepatitis B is NOT important

airborne

37

Hepatitis B has a ____ onset and _______duration compared to Hepatitis A

slower
longer

38

A Hepatitis B immunoglobulin shot can be administered how long after exposure?

24-48 hrs

39

Is there a Hepatitis C vaccine?

no

40

What is the most chronic blood borne infection in the U.S.

Hepatitis C

41

Hepatitis _____ only occurs in the presence of Hepatitis B?

D

42

Hepatitis ______ only occurs in the presence of Hepatitis C?

G

43

Icteric means? and is due to?

Jaundice
billirubin buildup

44

What precedes the onset of jaundice?

Pre-icteric phase (prodromal)

45

The post-icteric phase is _________ and can last how long?

convalescent
6 mo

46

_______ _________ liver is when hepatocytes get engorged with fatty lobules and distend?

Fatty Infiltrate

47

______ _______ is when the liver goes through destructive cellular changes?

alcoholic hepatitis

48

_______ is a progressive fibrosis of the liver and is irreversible?

cirrhosis

49

If surgical procedures are necessary for hepatitis patients we need to have ______ ability evaluated?

clotting

50

_______ is an alcohol sensitizing drug which increases the effects of a hangover?

Antabuse

51

What drug works like antabuse but is safer?

Temposil

52

How much hydrochloric acid do we produce a day?

2 liters

53

A well defined break in the GI mucosa is called a?

peptic ulcer

54

Most ulcers are located in the?

duodenum/stomach

55

1st degree relatives have a _____risk of GI ulcers?

3 fold

56

What is the main cause of GI diseases?

Overproduction of Acid

57

What is the 2nd cause of GI diseases?

H-pylori bacteria

58

Stomach discomfort occurs how long after eating?

90min-3hrs

59

What are 3 common drugs used in the treatment of H-pylori bacillus GI disorders?

Amoxicillin
Biaxin
Zantac

60

Pepto-bismol, Tums, Zantac, and Tagamet are OTC drugs that _____ of gastric secretions?

raise PH

61

What OTC GI medication interfered with lidocaine and valium typically used in dental treatment?

Tagamet

62

We need to avoid _____ and ______ OTC drugs when someone is taking GI medications?

Aspirin
NSAIDS

63

Antacids may impair the absorption of what 2 antibiotics?

Tetracycline
Erythromycin

64

What are 2 common oral complications with GI disorders?

Oral Candidiasis ( due to antibiotics)
Enamel Erosion (due to vomiting)

65

What GI disease is Serious and sometimes fatal and occurs from prolonged antibiotic use?

PC- pseudomembranous colitis

66

Pseudomembranous Colitis is an overgrowth of?

Clostridium Difficile

67

Broad Spectrum antibiotics cause _____ after taking them for 4-10 days?

diarrhea

68

You should discontinue broad spectrum antibiotic use and switch to ____ or _____ with GI disorders?

Flagyl
Vancomycin

69

Plavix alters ______ function?

platelet

70

What is the most common inherited bleeding disorder?

Von Willebrand's

71

Hemophilia A is a deficiency / defect of factor?

8

72

Hemophilia B is also known as ____ and is a deficiency of factor _____?

Christmas Disease
9

73

What medications do we recommend for dental management in patients with bleeding disorders?

Acetaminophen with/out Codeine

74

`Aspirin therapy results can last how long after the patient stops taking it?

9 days

75

Anemia is associated with _____ of RBC's

number

76

A normal RBC is ___% hemoglobin?

33

77

The _____ is the sensor that determines the level of oxygenation of RBCs

Kidney

78

Low oxygenation in RBCs tells the kidney to produce?

erythropoietin

79

What is the most common Anemia?

iron deficiency

80

Pernicious Anemia is a lack of ________ factor which is secreted from the _____ Cells?

intrinsic
parietal

81

What is a genetic anemia most commonly found in African Americans?

Sickle Cell

82

Radiographically the bone appears with ______ trabeculae arranged in a ______ pattern like a "_____ ____" in sickle cell patients?

widened
horizontally
step ladder

83

Patients with sickle cell disease need an oxygen saturation of _____%

95

84

Sickle cell patients _____ use Nitrous?

can

85

Nitrous levels need to be at ______% oxygen for sickle cell patients?

50 or higher