Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Step 1 Flash Cards > Neuro Day 2 > Flashcards

Neuro Day 2 Flashcards

(70 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

communicating hydrocephalus

A
  • due to decreased CSF absorption by arachnoid granulations, which can lead to increased intracranial pressure, papilledema and herniation
  • ex: arachnoid scarring post-meningitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

NPH

A
  • no increase in subarachnoid space volume
  • expansion of ventricles distorts the fibers of the corona radiata and leads to clinical triad of urinary incontinence, ataxia and cognitive dysfunction
  • urinary incontinence 2/2 stretching of descending cortical fibers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

noncommunicating hydrocephalus

A

caused by structural blockage of CSF circulation within the ventricular system (stenosis of the aqueduct of Sylvius)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

spinal cord - lower extent

A

goes to L2, so do a LP between L3-L5 to keep the spinal cord alive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

dorsal column orientation

A

organized the way you are, legs in the middle, arms on the outside
- decussates in the medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

descending lateral corticospital tract orientation

A

Legs are Lateral, head is medial

- decussates at the caudal medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ascending lateral spinothalamic tract orientation

A

Legs are Lateral, head is medial

- decussates in the anterior white commissure and ascends contralaterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

polio and spinal muscular atrophy SC lesion

A
  • affects anterior horns –> flaccid paralysis

LMN lesions only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ALS SC lesion, pathogenesis and treatment

A
  • combined UMN and LMN lesions
  • affects the anterior horn and lateral corticospinal tract
  • can be caused by a defect of copper-zinc superoxide dismutase
  • commonly presents with fasciculations,
  • riluzole treatment modestly increases survival by increasing presynaptic GABA release
  • usually die from aspiration pneumonia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ASA stroke SC lesion

A
  • affects everything except the dorsal columns
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

tabes dorsalis SC lesion

A
  • affects dorsal columns and roots
  • impaired proprioception –> sensory ataxia and poor coordination
  • absence of DTRs and + Romberg
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Vit B12 or E deficiency

A
  • subacute combined degeneration
  • demyelination of dorsal columns, lateral corticospinal tracts and spinocerebellar tracts
  • ataxic gait, paresthesias, impaired position and vibratory sense and affects voluntary movement of limbs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

spinal muscular atrophy (Werdnig-Hoffman Disease)

A
  • congenital degeneration of anterior horns of spinal cord –> LMN lesion
  • “floppy baby” with marked hypoxia and tongue fasciculations
  • infantile type has median age of death at 7 months
  • autosomal recessive inheritance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

friedreich ataxia

A
  • AR trinucleotide repeat (GAA) on chromosome 9
  • gene that encodes frataxin, leads to impairment of mitochondrial functioning
  • degeneration of muscle spinal cord tracts leads to muscle weakness and loss of DTRs, vibratory sense and proprioception
  • staggering gait, frequent falling, nystagmus, dysarthria, pes cavus (foot abnormality), and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (cause of death)
  • presents in childhood with kyphoscoliosis
  • 10% get diabetes
  • “frat” brother who is always stumbling, staggering and falling, but has a big heart
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Brown Sequard syndrome

A
  • loss of contralateral pain and temp

- loss of ipsilateral position and vibration 1-2 levels below the lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Horner syndrome

A
  • ptosis, anhydrosis and miosis
  • associated with a SC lesion above T1
  • due to Pancoast tumor, Brown-Sequard syndrome, late-stage syringomyelia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

landmark dermatomes

A

T4 nipple, T10 umbilicus, L1 inguinal ligament, S234 keeps the penis off the floor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

clinical reflexes

A 
S1,2 - achilles - buckle my shoe
L3,4 - patellar - kick the door
T5,6 - biceps - pick up sticks
T7,8 - triceps - lay they straight
L1,2 - cremasteric - testicles move
S3,4 - anal wink
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

parinaud syndrome

A
  • paralysis of conjugate vertical gaze due to lesion in superior colliculi
  • can be due to germinoma (most common pineal tumor)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

which colliculi are which

A

ears are below your eyes

  • superior - vision (conjugate vertical gaze center)
  • inferior - auditory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CN I - olfactory - S

A

smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CN II - optic - S

A

vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

CN III - oculomotor - M

A
  • eye movement - SR, IR, MR, IO

- pupillary constriction, accomodation, eyelid opening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

CN IV - trochlear - M

A
  • eye movement - SO
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
CN V - trigeminal - B
- mastication (V3), facial sensation, somatosensation from ant 2/3 of tongue
26
CN VI - abducens - M
- eye movement - LR
27
CN VII - facial - B
- facial movement, taste to ant 2/3 of tongue, lacrimation, salivation, eyelid closing, stapedius (hyperacusis with palsy)
28
CN VIII - vestibulocochlear - S
hearing, balance
29
CN IX - glossopharyngeal - B
- taste and somatosensation from post 1/3 of tongue - swallowing, salivation, carotid body chemo and baroreceptors - stylopharyngeus
30
CN X - vagus - B
- taste from epiglottic region - swallowing, soft palate elevation - midline uvula, talking, coughing - thoracoabdominal viscera, monitoring aortic arch chemo/baroreceptors
31
CN XI - accessory - M
- SCM, trap
32
CN XII - hypoglossal - M
- tongue movement
33
corneal and lacrimal reflex
- afferent - CN V1 | - efferent - CN VII
34
pupillary reflex
- afferent - CN II | - efferent - CN III
35
gag reflex
- afferent - CN IX | - efferent CN X
36
vagal nucleus solitarius
- visceral Sensry information (taste, baroreceptors, gut distention)
37
vagal nucleus aMbiguus
- Motor innervation of pharynx, larynx, and upper esophagus
38
vagal dorsal motor nucleus
- sends autonomic (parasympathetic) fibers to heart, lungs, upper GI - bronchoconstriction
39
what goes through the optic canal
CN III, opthalmic artery, central retinal vein
40
what goes through the superior orbital fissure
- CN III, IV, V1, VI, opthalmic vein and sympathetic fibers
41
what goes through the foramen rotundum
- V2
42
what goes through the foramen ovale
- V3
43
what goes through the foramen spinosum
- middle meningeal artery and recurrent branch of V3
44
what goes through internal auditory meatus
- CN VII, VIII
45
what goes through the jugular foramen
- CN IX, X, XI, jugular vein
46
what goes through the hypoglossal canal
CN XII
47
what goes through the foramen magnum
spinal roots of CN XI, brain stem, vertebral artery
48
where are high/low frequency sounds heard best
- low frequency at the apex near the helicotrema (wide and flexible) - high frequency at the base of the cochlea (thin and rigid)
49
conductive hearing loss
Rinne test abnormal (bone > air) | Weber test localizes to the affected ear
50
sensorineural hearing loss
Rinne test is normal Weber test localizes to the normal ear - in sensoriNeural, webber points to Normal
51
noise induced hearing loss
- damage to sterociliated cells in the organ of Corti | - loss of high frequency hearing 1st, sudden extremely loud noises can rupture tympanic membrane
52
facial nerve palsy
- ipsilateral facial paralysis, decreased lacrimation and salivation, hyperacusis and loss of taste sensation to first 2/3 of tongue - idiopathic or associated with Lyme disease, HSV, herpes zoster, sarcoidosis, tumors or DM
53
hyperopia
- eye to short for refractive power of the cornea and lens--> light focused behind the retina
54
myopia
- eye too long for refractive power of the cornea, light focused in front of the retina
55
astigmatism
- abnormal curvature of cornea resulting in different refractive power at different axes
56
presbyopia
decreased focusing ability during accommodation due to sclerosis and decreased elasticity
57
central retinal artery occlusion
acute, painless monocular vision loss - retina cloudy with attenuated vessels and "cherry red" spot at the fovea - often permanent
58
retinal vein occlusion
- blockage of central or branch retinal vein due to compression by nearby arterial atherosclerosis - retinal hemorrhage and edema in affected area
59
diabetic retinopathy
- non-proliferative: damaged capillaries leak, lipis and fluid seep into retina leading to hemorrhages and retinal edema. treat with blood sugar control and macular laser - proliferative: chronic hypoxia results in new blood vessel formation with resultant traction on retina. treat with peripheral retina photocoagulation, anti-VEGF injections
60
open angle glaucoma
- associated with increased age, AA race, family history - painless, more common in US - primary has unclear etiology, but secondary can be due to blocked trabecular meshwork from WBCs (uveitis), RBCs (vitreous hemorrhage), retinal elements (retinal detachment)
61
primary closed angle glaucoma
- enlargement or forward movement of lens against central iris (pupil margin) leads to obstruction of normal aqueous flow through pupil --> fluid builds up behind the iris, pushing peripheral iris against cornea and impeding flow through trabecular meshwork
62
secondary closed angle glaucoma
- hypoxia from retinal disease (diabetes, vein occlusion) induces vasoproliferation in the iris that contracts the angle
63
miosis (constriction) control
- 1st neuron: Edinger- Westphal nucleus to ciliary ganglion via CN III - 2nd neuron: short ciliary nerves to pupillary sphincter muscles
64
mydriasis (dilation) control
- 1st neuron: hypothalamus to ciliospinal center of Budge (C8-T2) - 2nd neuron: exit at T1 to superior cervical ganglion (travels along cervical sympathetic chain near lung apex) - 3rd neuron: plexus along internal carotid, through cavernous sinus, enters orbit as long ciliary nerve to pupillary dilators
65
Marcus Gunn pupil
- afferent pupillary defect - due to optic nerve damage (optic neuritis) or severe retinal injury - both eyes constrict when light shone in healthy eye, neither constrict when light shone in affected eye - "swinging flashlight test"
66
age-related macular degeneration
- causes distortion and loss of central vision - dry --> deposition of yellowish extracellular material (fatty tissue) in and beneath Bruch membrane and retinal pigment epithelium with gradual decrease in vision. prevent progression with multivitamin and antioxidant - wet --> rapid loss of vision due to bleeding 2/2 choroidal neovascularization. "grey subretinal membrane". treat with anti-VEGF
67
Meyer loop lesion (temporal lobe) lesion
pie in the sky
68
Dorsal optic radiation (parietal lobe) lesion
pie on the floor
69
right peri-chiasmal lesion
- R nasal hemianopia, can be due to calcification of the carotid artery
70
INO
MLF lesion - lack of communication between CN VI and CN III nuclei - abducting eye gets nystagmus, convergence is normal

Step 1 Flash Cards (36 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions