Unit 1 (all cards) Flashcards

1
Q

Define anatomy

A

Examining the structure of the human body

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2
Q

Define physiology

A

The study of function of the human body

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3
Q

True or false: Anatomy and physiology complement each other; you can not entirely separate the two because of the unity of form and function

A

True

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4
Q

Define gross anatomy

A

Study of structures that can be seen with the eyes

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5
Q

What are three examples of gross anatomy being applied in medicine?

A

Dissection, exploratory surgery, and medical imaging

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6
Q

Name 3 areas that study anatomical structures too small to be seen with the naked eye

A

Histology, cytology, and ultrastructure

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7
Q

What is another name for histology?

A

Microscopic anatomy

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8
Q

What is histology?

A

The examination of tissues [under a microscope]

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9
Q

What is cytology?

A

The study of structure and function of cells

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10
Q

What is ultrastructure?

A

Viewing detail under an electron microscope

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11
Q

Name 3 subdisciplines of physiology

A

Neurophysiology (physiology of the nervous system)
Endocrinology (physiology of hormones)
Pathophysiology (mechanisms of disease)

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12
Q

Define pathophysiology

A

The study of mechanisms of disease

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13
Q

Define comparative physiology

A

The study of another species to learn about body functions

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14
Q

What is the basis for much of our understanding of human physiology and the development of new drugs and medical procedures?

A

Comparative physiology

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15
Q

Why is comparative physiology important to research in physiology as a whole?

A

Physiology, unlike anatomy, requires live subjects due to the fact that you cannot observe function on a cadaver, so often relies on animals to perform research

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16
Q

Define organization in anatomy

A

The idea that living things exhibit a higher level of organization than nonliving things.

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17
Q

Living matter is always compartmentalized into ____ or more cells.

A

one

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18
Q

What is cellular composition?

A

The idea that living matter is always compartmentalized into one or more cells.

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19
Q

What is metabolism?

A

Internal chemical reactions

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20
Q

True or false: all chemical reactions that take place inside your body are considered to be a part of your metabolism

A

True

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21
Q

Define responsiveness in biology

A

The ability to sense and react to stimulate (irritability or excitability).

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22
Q

Define movement in biology

A

The movement of organisms and/or of substances within the organism.

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23
Q

Define homeostasis

A

Maintaining relatively stable internal conditions (regardless of external conditions)

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24
Q

What is the one word that can sum up many of the topics covered in A&P one and two?

A

Homeostasis

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25
Q

Define development in biology

A

Differentiation and growth

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26
Q

Differentiation and growth make up the concept of ________.

A

development.

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27
Q

Give an example of why monitoring development is important to medicine

A

Looking a developing fetus in the womb to see if structures are differentiating and growing at the typical rates.

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28
Q

Define reproduction

A

Producing copies of themselves; passing genes to offspring.

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29
Q

Define evolution in biology

A

Changes in genes at the population level

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30
Q

Give an example of evolution that is relevant to modern medicine

A

Bacteria evolving to resist antibiotics on a population level.

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31
Q

What is the general idea of the body’s structural hierarchy of complexity?

A

Atoms are the least complex component of life, organisms are the most complex.

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32
Q

Define elements

A

The simplest form of matter with unique properties.

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33
Q

All elements are made up of what three things?

A

Electrons, protons, and neutrons

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34
Q

What are the three main elements covered in this course?

A

carbon, oxygen, and nitrogen

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35
Q

Define atomic number

A

The number of protons in an element; this gives the element its identity

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36
Q

Define protons

A

A positively charged particle within atoms, the number of which give the atom its elemental identity

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37
Q

What two things are located in the nucleus of an atom?

A

Protons and neutrons

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38
Q

Where are electrons located?

A

Around the nucleus

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39
Q

What is atomic mass?

A

Number of protons + number of neutrons = atomic mass

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40
Q

Define an isotope

A

Atoms with a missing or extra neutron

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41
Q

Define a neutron

A

A neutral particle in the nucleus of an atom that gives the element its atomic mass

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42
Q

Define an electron

A

A small negatively charged particle that orbits the nucleus of an atom

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43
Q

The first energy shell is full with _ electrons, the second shell is full/ stable with _ electrons, and the third shell is full/stable with _ electrons.

A

The first energy shell is full with 2 electrons, the second shell is full/ stable with 8 electrons, and the third shell is full/stable with 8 electrons.

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44
Q

Ionization occurs because _____

A

atoms want their shells to be stable and full of electrons.

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45
Q

Define an ion

A

A substance that has a charge from gaining or losing electrons

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46
Q

Define cation and anion

A

Cation: positively charged ion
Anion: negatively charged ion

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47
Q

Define ionic bond

A

A charge attraction between a cation and anion.

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48
Q

Define valence electrons

A

Electrons in the outermost shell

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49
Q

What is a covalent bond and how is it represented?

A

A bond through shared valence (outer) electrons. Usually represented by a dash or subscript (i.e. H-H or H₂)

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50
Q

Like a ____, water molecules have charged regions

A

battery

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51
Q

What kind of bond is found in water molecules?

A

Polar covalent bonds

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52
Q

Define polar versus nonpolar

A
Polar = evenly shared electrons
Nonpolar = unevenly shared electrons
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53
Q

What are polar covalent bonds?

A

Electrons are shared unequally within a covalent bond.

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54
Q

Give an example of an nonpolar molecule

A

O^2

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55
Q

Which of the following repel each other and don’t mix?

a) polar and polar bonds
b) polar and nonpolar bonds
c) nonpolar and nonpolar bonds

A

b) polar and nonpolar bonds

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56
Q

Why don’t oil and water mix?

A

Because nonpolar and polar bonds hate each other; lipids found in oil are mostly made of nonpolar covalent bonds, and water has polar covalent bonds.

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57
Q

Define hydrogen bonds

A

The weakest type of bond formed because of attraction between a slightly positive hydrogen and a slightly negative oxygen (or nitrogen).

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58
Q

What is the weakest type of bond?

A

Hydrogen bonds

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59
Q

When you put two molecules of water together, they form a hydrogen bond. Why?

A

The polar covalent bonds allow for the hydrogen bonds between water molecules.

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60
Q

Define cohesion and adhesion

A

Cohesion: Water is attracted to water
Adhesion: Water is attracted to other substances.

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61
Q

What mixes in water?

A

Substances similar to water (meaning polar, charged ions).

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62
Q

Define a solution in chemistry

A

A mixture of dissolved substances called solutes, and dissolving agents called solvents.

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63
Q

What is the most common solvent used in this class? Why?

A

Water, because our bodies are mostly water

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64
Q

Define a mixture

A

A combination of two or more elements without a chemical reaction

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65
Q

What are the four types of organic molecules?

A

Proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids

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66
Q

What are the monomers and polymers of proteins?

A
Monomers = amino acids
Polymers = polypeptides
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67
Q

Where did polypeptides get their name?

A

The bond between amino acids is called a peptide bond

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68
Q

What are the monomers and polymers of carbohydrates?

A
Monomers = monosaccharides 
Polymers = Polysaccharides, starch, glycogen, cellulose
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69
Q

What are the monomers and polymers of lipids?

A
Monomers = for triglycerides: glycerol, 3 fatty acids
Polymers = phospholipids
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70
Q

What are the monomers and polymers of nucleic acids?

A
Monomers = Nucleotides 
Polymers = DNA, RNA, ATP
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71
Q

Proteins: There are ____ amino acids

A

20

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72
Q

Proteins: Side chains (also called the R group) can be _____ or _____.

A

Polar or nonpolar

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73
Q

Proteins: What do side chains/ the R group determine?

A

They can be polar or nonpolar, which determines how amino acids interact with each other.

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74
Q

Proteins: The sequences of amino acids determine what?

A

How the protein folds, which determines the protein’s function.

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75
Q

What are the four structures of proteins?

A

Primary structure = amino acid sequence
Secondary structure = hydrogen bonding between amino acids
Tertiary structure = interactions of side chains
This is what makes each protein really unique.
Quaternary structure = two or more polypeptides

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76
Q

In proteins, shape determines ______.

A

function

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77
Q

The hydrogen of one water molecule is attracted to what part of the other water molecule?

A

The negative part

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78
Q

What does it mean when we say that water is polar?

A

It means that water shares its electrons unequally between the oxygen atom and the hydrogen atom, which creates charge regions, which creates a partial charge.

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79
Q

The attraction between parts of two different polar molecules is called ______ bonding.

A

hydrogen

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80
Q

True or false: Hydrogen bonding usually takes place between two of the same molecule.

A

False; hydrogen bonding usually takes place between two different molecules (usually a molecule with hydrogen + one with oxygen or a molecule with hydrogen + one with nitrogen)

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81
Q

The tendency for molecules of water to cling to one another, is that an example of adhesion or cohesion?

A

Cohesion

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82
Q

Give an example of why cohesion (water sticking to water) is important to the human body

A

The water on the surfaces of our lungs clings to the water on the surface of our inner chest muscles, which is what allows our lungs to inflate when our chests rise (if the cohesion is lost, lungs can collapse).

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83
Q

Why does water bead up on some substances and soak into others?

A

Because some substances, like wax paper (which consists of lipids), have primarily non-polar bonds, which repel oxygen’s polar covalent bonds.

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84
Q

Why do we use cotton towels to dry ourselves when we get out of the shower?

A

Because cotton has a polar charge, which allows it to bind to water and dry you

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85
Q

Non-polar bonds of a substance (like oil or soap) repelling the polar bonds of water can lead to what?

A

Decreased surface tension

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86
Q

Why can insects walk on water?

A

Surface tension

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87
Q

Will nonpolar and polar molecules interact?

A

No

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88
Q

What happens when you bring two chloride ions together?

A

They repel each other because they are both negatively charged

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89
Q

Which of the following would have a higher level of salt: A solution of 15% NaCI or a solution of 30% NaCI?

A

30% NaCI

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90
Q

Which of the following would have a higher level of water: A solution of 15% NaCI or a solution of 30% NaCI?

A

15% NaCI

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91
Q

In a solution of 15% NaCI, is water the solute or solvent? What about the NaCI?

A

Water is the solvent and NaCl is the solute

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92
Q

What four types of molecules mix with water?

A

Polar molecules, hydrophilic molecules, molecules with ionic bonds, and proteins (most contain polar covalent bonds; some are anions)

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93
Q

What two types of molecules don’t mix with water?

A

Nonpolar and hydrophobic molecules

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94
Q

In the human body, nutrients, including vitamins, are transported to the cells by the blood. Vitamins can be divided into two types– water-soluble vitamins and fat-soluble vitamins. Since blood is mostly water, the water-soluble vitamins are easily transported to their destinations. How do you think the fat-soluble vitamins travel in the blood?

A

Proteins pick them up and carry them.

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95
Q

Define elements

A

The simplest form of matter to have unique chemical properties cannot be broken down by ordinary chemical means

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96
Q

How many naturally occurring elements are there?

A

91

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97
Q

Define atoms

A

The building blocks for each element

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98
Q

How many elements have a biological role?

A

24

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99
Q

What 6 elements make up 98.5% of our body weight?

A
Oxygen (O)
Carbon  (C)  
Hydrogen (H)
Nitrogen (N) 
Calcium (Ca)
Phosphorus (P
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100
Q

Lesser elements make up what percent of the body?

A

0.8%

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101
Q

Trace elements make up what percent of the body?

A

Less than 0.7%

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102
Q

Where and in what quantity are trace elements found in the body?

A

They’re required in minute amounts and are found as a part of enzymes

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103
Q

Give examples of lesser and trace elements

A

Lesser: K, S, Na, Cl, Fe, Mg
Trace: I, Co, Cu, Z, Cr, etc.

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104
Q

Define minerals

A

Inorganic elements extracted from soil by plants and passed to humans

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105
Q

What percent of our body weight is made up of minerals?

A

4%

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106
Q

What two minerals are most commonly found in the body? What are some other minerals in the body?

A

Mostly Ca and P (also Cl, Mg, K, Na, and S)

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107
Q

Define electrolytes in the context of minerals

A

Mineral salts needed for nerve and muscle function

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108
Q

What are the three components of atoms?

A

Protons, neutrons, and electrons

This is just a note to myself that this chapter does also cover the basics of protons, neutrons, and electrons, but those flashcards can be found in lab 2

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109
Q

Elements with an abnormal number of neutrons are called ____

A

Isotopes

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110
Q

Average of mass numbers of an element = ______

A

Atomic weight

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111
Q

True or false: most isotopes are stable. Why?

A

True; few will disintegrate and give off energy

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112
Q

Intense radiation can be ionizing, how does this affect the body?

A

Intense radiation can be ionizing (ejects electrons, destroys molecules) and can cause genetic mutations and cancer

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113
Q

Where are radioactive isotopes used in medicine? What are some other examples?

A

Used for radiation therapy and diagnostic procedures. This includes PET scans, using I-131 determine size and activity of the thyroid gland, Hida scans (Tc-99 technetium with a ½ life of 6 hours), Cobalt-60 for cancer
Other examples of radioactive isotopes include UV radiation, X-rays, alpha particles, beta particles, gamma rays

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114
Q

True or false: All elements have at least one radioisotope

A

True

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115
Q

True or false: X-rays and CT scans use radioactivity

A

False; they use very short electromagnetic waves.

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116
Q

Electron shells are also called ________

A

energy levels

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117
Q

In neutral atoms, number of electrons equals number of protons. Non-neutral atoms have a different number of electrons than normal; what are they called?

A

Ions (or electrolyte)

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118
Q

Define cations and anions

A

Anion—particle that gains electron(s) (net negative charge)

Cation—particle that loses electron(s) (net positive charge)

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119
Q

Ions with _____ charges are attracted to each other

a) opposite
b) same

A

a) opposite

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120
Q

Define electrolytes

A

Substances that ionize in water (acids, bases or salts)

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121
Q

Define salts

A

A compound (ex: NaCl) that can dissociate into water and contains cations (Na) and anions (Cl)

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122
Q

Define a molecule

A

Chemical particle composed of two or more atoms united by a chemical bond

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123
Q

Define a compound

A

Molecule composed of two or more different elements

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124
Q

Define molecular formula

A

Identifies constituent elements and how many atoms of each are present

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125
Q

Define structural formula

A

Identifies the location of each atom

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126
Q

What do chemical bonds do?

A

They hold atoms together within a molecule or attract one molecule to another

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127
Q

What are the three most important types of chemical bonds?

A

Ionic bonds, covalent bonds, and hydrogen bonds

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128
Q

Inert elements have a ____ outer shell

a) incomplete
b) full

A

b) full

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129
Q

Reactive elements have a ____ outer shell

a) incomplete
b) full

A

a) incomplete

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130
Q

Define ionic and covalent bonds

A

Ionic bonds: will transfer (gain/lose) electrons

Covalent bonds: will share electrons

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131
Q

Describe ionic bonds in detail (the attractions are between ____ and ____; electrons are shared or transferred; how easily are they broken)

A

Attractions between anions and cations
Electrons donated from one atom to another
Easily broken by water

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132
Q

____ compounds form crystals instead of individual molecules

A

Ionic

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133
Q

Define a single covalent bond

A

One pair of electrons is shared

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134
Q

What is the strongest type of bond?

A

Nonpolar bonds

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135
Q

In what type of bonds do electrons spend more time near oxygen?

A

Polar bonds

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136
Q

Define polar and nonpolar bonds

A

Nonpolar bond: electrons shared equally (strongest bond)

Polar bond: electrons shared unequally (spend more time near oxygen)

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137
Q

_____ sharing of electrons produces polar molecules

A

Unequal

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138
Q

What is an example of an intermolecular hydrogen bond? An intramolecular hydrogen bond?

A

Intermolecular hydrogen bond between water molecules

Intramolecular hydrogen bonds helps protein folding; holds sides of DNA together

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139
Q

Define hydrogen bonds

A

Weak charge attraction between a slightly positive hydrogen and a slightly negative oxygen (or nitrogen)

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140
Q

Define mixtures

A

When elements/molecules/objects are physically blended but not chemically combined

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141
Q

What are body fluids?

A

Complex mixtures of chemicals

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142
Q

What percent of the body is made up of water? What factors determine this?

A

Water is 50% to 75% of body weight; this depends on age, sex, fat content, etc.

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143
Q

What two things give water the properties to support life? What are these properties?

A

Polar covalent bonds and a V-shaped molecule give water solvency, cohesion, adhesion, chemical reactivity, and thermal stability

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144
Q

Define solvency

A

The ability to dissolve other chemicals

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145
Q

Define hydrophilic and hydrophobic

A

Substances that dissolve (mix) with water are Hydrophilic

Substances that do not mix easily with water are Hydrophobic

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146
Q

What is the universal solvent?

A

Water

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147
Q

Metabolic reactions depend on ______ of water

A

solvency

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148
Q

Define adhesion versus cohesion

A

Adhesion—water adheres to other substances

Cohesion—water molecules cling to each other

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149
Q

Give an example of adhesion in the body

A

Water adheres to large membranes reducing friction around organs

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150
Q

Water adhering to large membranes is an example of _____

A

adhesion

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151
Q

Why is water so cohesive?

A

Its hydrogen bonds

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152
Q

What is surface film (think bugs walking on water) on the surface of water due to?

A

Surface film on surface of water is due to molecules being held together by surface tension

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153
Q

Which element’s thermal stability helps stabilize the internal temperature of the body?

A

Water’s

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154
Q

Define high heat capacity and explain why water’s heat capacity is so high

A

Something with a high heat capacity absorbs and releases large amounts of heat before changing temperature.
In water, hydrogen bonds inhibit temperature increases by inhibiting molecular motion.

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155
Q

What is an effective coolant?

A

Water

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156
Q

What is chemical reactivity?

A

The ability to participate in chemical reactions

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157
Q

Water ionizes into what two things?

A

H^+ and OH^−

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158
Q

What can water ionize?

A

Water ionizes many other chemicals (acids and salts)

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159
Q

Define acids

A

A substance that dissociates in solution to produce hydrogen ions (H+) and anions.

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160
Q

Define bases (also called alkalines)

A

A substance that dissociates in solution to yield cations and hydroxide ions (OH-).

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161
Q

Name two important bases (aka alkalines) in the body

A

Bicarbonate ion (HCO3–) and ammonia (NH3) are important bases in the body

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162
Q

Define salt

A

A substance that dissociates in solution producing cations and anions but not hydrogen ions or hydroxide ions.

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163
Q

Define the three pH categories

A

Acidic: pH 0–6.99
Basic: pH 7.01–14
Neutral: pH 7.00

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164
Q

Body fluids each have their own ____ range they must maintain.

A

pH

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165
Q

What can help prevent large changes in pH?

A

Buffers

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166
Q

Define energy

A

The capacity to do work [move something]

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167
Q

True or false: all body activities are forms of work

A

True

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168
Q

Define potential energy and give an example

A

Energy stored in an object, but not currently doing work (ex: water behind a dam waiting to be released)

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169
Q

Define chemical energy and free energy

A

Chemical energy—potential energy in molecular bonds

Free energy—potential energy available in a system to do useful work

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170
Q

Define kinetic energy and give an example

A

Energy of motion, doing work

Example: water flowing through a dam, generating electricity

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171
Q

Define heat

A

Kinetic energy of molecular motion

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172
Q

Define a chemical reaction

A

A process in which a covalent or ionic bond is formed or broken

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173
Q

Define chemical equation

A

Symbolizes the course of a chemical reaction (reactants into products)

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174
Q

What are the two classes of chemical reactions?

A

Decomposition and synthesis reactions

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175
Q

What are decomposition reactions?

A

A large molecule breaks down into two or more smaller ones (i.e. AB > A + B)

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176
Q

What are synthesis reactions?

A

Two or more small molecules combine to form a larger one (i.e. A + B > AB)

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177
Q

Define reversible reactions. When do they reach equilibrium?

A

Reactions that can go in either direction under different circumstances. They reach equilibrium when ratio of products to reactants is stable.

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178
Q

When do reactions occur?

A

When molecules collide with enough force and correct orientation

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179
Q

When do reaction rates increase?

A

When:
the reactants are more concentrated
the temperature rises
a catalyst is present

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180
Q

Define metabolism

A

All chemical reactions of the body

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181
Q

Define catabolism

A

Energy-releasing decomposition reactions that break covalent bonds and produce smaller molecules

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182
Q

Define anabolism

A

Energy-storing synthesis reactions that require energy input and the production of protein or fat

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183
Q

Catabolism and anabolism are inseparably linked. Why?

A

Anabolism is driven by energy released by catabolism

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184
Q

Define organic chemistry

A

The study of compounds containing carbon

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185
Q

What are the four categories of carbon compounds/ organic molecules?

A

Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids

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186
Q

Define macromolecules

A

Very large organic molecules with high molecular weights

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187
Q

Define polymers and give an example

A

Macromolecules made of a repetitive series of identical or similar subunits (monomers).
Ex: starch is a polymer of about 3,000 glucose monomers.

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188
Q

Monomers are linked together by ____________ and polymers are broken apart by _____

A

Monomers are linked together by dehydration synthesis and polymers are broken apart by hydrolysis

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189
Q

Define dehydration synthesis

A

Monomers covalently bind together to form a polymer with the removal of a water molecule

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190
Q

Define hydrolysis

A

Splitting a polymer by the addition of water

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191
Q

What is the primary function of carbohydrates?

A

Energy

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192
Q

What is the general formula of carbohydrates? Give an example.

A

(CH2O)n, n = # of carbon atoms

Ex: glucose, n = 6, so formula is C6H12O6

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193
Q

What are the three sizes of carbohydrate molecules

A

Monosaccharides, disaccharides, and polysaccharides

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194
Q

What are the three types of monosaccharides? How are they produced?

A

Glucose, galactose, and fructose. They’re produced by digestion of complex carbohydrates

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195
Q

What is glucose known as in medicine?

A

Blood sugar

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196
Q

Define isomer

A

Same molecular formula – different arrangment

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197
Q

What are the three types of disaccharides?

A

Sucrose, lactose, and maltose

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198
Q

What is sucrose?

A

A disaccharide known as table sugar

Glucose + fructose

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199
Q

What is lactose?

A

A disaccharide known as sugar in milk

Glucose + galactose

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200
Q

What is maltose?

A

A disaccharide known as grain products

Glucose + glucose

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201
Q

Give an example of a polysaccharide

A

Glycogen

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202
Q

What is glycogen and where is it found in the body?

A

A glucose polymer that is stored in the liver and skeletal muscles

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203
Q

Define starch

A

Energy storage in plants in the form of carbohydrates that is digestible by humans

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204
Q

Define cellulose

A

A structural molecule in plants that’s a carbohydrate that is important for human dietary fiber (but indigestible to us)

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205
Q

Are carbohydrates hydrophilic or hydrophobic?

A

Simple carbohydrates are small polar molecules (containing several -OH groups) which makes them hydrophilic

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206
Q

Why are lipids only made up of one group?

A

Because either part of or the entire molecule is hydrophobic.

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207
Q

What makes lipids different from carbs and proteins?

A

Usually contains more nonpolar covalent bonds than carbs or proteins

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208
Q

True or false: lipids are a very diverse group

A

True

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209
Q

What is the difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids?

A

Saturated fatty acids have a lot of hydrogen
Unsaturated fatty acids contain some double bonds
Essential fatty acids must be obtained from food

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210
Q

What are triglycerides (neutral fats)?

A

Three fatty acids linked to glycerol

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211
Q

What is the primary function of triglycerides (neutral fats)? What other thing does it help with?

A

Their primary function is energy storage (2x more energy than carbs or proteins). They also help with insulation and padding (shock absorption (adipose tissue))

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212
Q

Since triglycerides are hydrophobic, how are they transported in the human body?

A

Proteins have to carry them (not sure about this one)

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213
Q

What are phospholipids?

A

They are similar to neutral fats except one fatty acid is replaced by a phosphate group

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214
Q

Phospholipids are made up of a ___ and ____

A

head and tail

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215
Q

What is the “parent” steroid from which the other steroids are synthesized?

A

Cholesterol

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216
Q

Give some examples of steroids

A

Cholesterol, cortisol, progesterone, estrogens, testosterone, and bile acids

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217
Q

What are steroids important for?

A

They’re important for nervous system function and structural integrity of all cell membranes

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218
Q

15% of our cholesterol comes from our diet, where does the other 85% of cholesterol come from?

A

85% is internally synthesized (mostly in liver)

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219
Q

Define a protein

A

A polymer of amino acids

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220
Q

Define amino acids and what three things are attached to it.

A

They are a central carbon with three attachments:

an amino group (NH2), carboxyl group (—COOH), and a radical group (R group)

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221
Q

What determines the properties of an amino acid?

A

The R group

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222
Q

How many amino acids are there?

A

20

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223
Q

Amino acids only differ from each other in what way?

A

The R groups differ

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224
Q

What is a peptide?

A

Any molecule composed of two or more amino acids joined by peptide bonds

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225
Q

How are peptides named?

A
According to the number of amino acids they have:
Dipeptides have 2
Tripeptides have 3 
Polypeptides many
Proteins have more than 50
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226
Q

Peptides are a component of ____

A

Proteins

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227
Q

How do peptide bonds form?

A

Dehydration synthesis creates a peptide bond that joins the amino acid of one group to the carboxyl group of the next.

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228
Q

What does the confirmation of a protein mean?

A

The unique, three-dimensional shape of protein crucial to function

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229
Q

What is crucial to the function of a protein?

A

Its confirmation

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230
Q

True or false: Proteins can reversibly change conformation and thus function

A

True

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231
Q

Define denaturation and what causes it. Give an example.

A

Extreme conformational change that destroys the function of a protein caused by extreme heat or pH.
Example: when you cook an egg

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232
Q

What are three specific examples of body functions that require proteins?

A

Muscle contraction, enzyme catalysis, and membrane channel opening

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233
Q

What are the four levels of protein structure?

A

Primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary

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234
Q

What are the seven main functions of proteins?

A

Structure, communication, membrane support, catalysis, recognition & protection, movement, and cell adhesion

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235
Q

Give an example where proteins help with structure

A

In keratin and collagen.
(Keratin—tough structural protein of hair, nails, skin surface
Collagen—contained in deeper layers of skin, bones, cartilage, and teeth)

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236
Q

Give an example where proteins help with communication

A

Between some hormones and receptors

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237
Q

Give two examples where proteins help with membrane transport.

A

Channel proteins in cell membranes govern what passes. Carrier proteins transport solutes to other side of membrane.

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238
Q

Give an example where proteins are needed for catalysis

A

Most enzymes are globular proteins

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239
Q

Give an example where proteins help with recognition and protection

A

Antibodies are proteins

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240
Q

Give an example where proteins help with movement

A

Motor proteins are molecules with the ability to change shape repeatedly

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241
Q

Define motor proteins

A

Molecules with the ability to change shape repeatedly

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242
Q

Give examples where proteins help with cell adhesion

A

Proteins bind cells together (example: sperm to egg)

and keep tissues from falling apart

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243
Q

What are enzymes and what do they do for our bodies?

A

They’re proteins that function as biological catalysts by lowering activation energy. They permit reactions to occur rapidly at body temperature

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244
Q

What permits reactions to occur rapidly at body temp?

A

Enzymes

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245
Q

Define substrate

A

A substance an enzyme acts upon

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246
Q

How are enzymes named?

A

Named for substrate with -ase as the suffix

Amylase enzyme digests starch (amylose)

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247
Q

What are the three steps of an enzymatic reaction?

A

1) Enzyme and substrate
2) Enzyme-substrate complex
3) Enzyme and reaction products

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248
Q

True or false: enzymes are reusable and not consumed by their reactions

A

True

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249
Q

Are enzymes fast or slow?

A

They work at an astonishing speed: One enzyme molecule can consume millions of substrate molecules per minute

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250
Q

What can change enzyme shape and function? What does changing an enzymes function do?

A

Temperature, pH and other factors can change enzyme shape and function, which can alter ability of enzyme to bind to substrate

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251
Q

Are proteins hydrophilic or hydrophobic?

A

Hydrophilic

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252
Q

Nucleic acids: Monomers are called _____

A

nucleotides

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253
Q

Nucleic acids: What are the four components of nucleotides?

A

1- Nitrogenous base
2- Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Thymine or Uracil
3- Sugar (ribose or deoxyribose)
4- One or more phosphate groups

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254
Q

Nucleotides become polymers called nucleic acids; what are three examples of nucleic acids?

A

ATP, RNA, and DNA

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255
Q

Nucleic acids: Describe DNA

A

Contains millions of nucleotides
Constitutes genes
Instructions for synthesizing proteins

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256
Q

Nucleic acids: Describe RNA’s function

A

A nucleic acid that follows DNA instructions to assemble proteins

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257
Q

Nucleic acids: Describe ATPs function

A

ATP is body’s most important energy-transfer molecule
Holds energy in covalent bonds
Most energy transfers to and from ATP involve adding or removing the third phosphate

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258
Q
Which of the following are examples of compounds? 
a) O2 and CO2
b) O2 and H2O
c) CO2 and H2O
d) all of the above
Bonus points: Why?
A

c) CO2 and H2O
Explanation: a compound contains two or more elements, and although O2 is a molecule, it is not a compound because it only has one element

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259
Q

True or false: a proton or electron of Carbon will act the same as a proton or electron of Oxygen.

A

True

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260
Q

Why do our bodies need iron?

A

Iron is needed for our blood; oxygen doesn’t go through blood on its own, so iron is needed to grab it and carry it around. This is why we have things like iron infused cereals.

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261
Q

Why do our bodies need iodine?

A

Iodine is used by the thyroid in thyroid hormones which are used for metabolism; you don’t need a lot, but if you don’t have it, you can’t make those hormones. This leads to low energy, cold feeling, etc. This is why we use iodized salt.

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262
Q

Give an example of why minerals are important to our bodies using potassium

A

High or low potassium (K) = cardiac arrest

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263
Q

What can radioactive isotopes do that stable isotopes can’t?

A

They disintegrate and give off energy, and this energy can break chemical bonds

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264
Q

Give an example of using radioactive isotopes to negatively effect the human body

A

A former spy of soviet union was poisoned by someone putting a radioactive story in his tea (head this story before) and died due to radiation poisoning over a period of weeks.

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265
Q

Give an example of how radioactive isotopes are used in human medicine

A

We have ways to detect energy (like energy given off by radioactivity) and pick it up on a scan, so we can use these radioactive isotopes to see different parts of the brain (like plaques on the brains of Alzheimer’s pts)

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266
Q

True or false: atoms are not electrically neutral when they’re not ions

A

False; they are electrically neutral

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267
Q

True or false: you always fill the inner electron shells first

A

True

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268
Q

Give an example of something that’s a molecule but not a compound, and explain why

A

O2 is a molecule but not a compound, because compounds have two or more different elements.

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269
Q

Give an example of the importance of structural formula

A

Shape/location/structure can determine function (ex: glucose, fructose, and galactose all have the same formula, but different properties)

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270
Q

Give an example of inert elements with a full outer shell

A

Noble gasses

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271
Q

How are single covalent bonds usually represented?

A

Represented by a solid line

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272
Q

A weak charge attraction is also called a ____ ____

A

Hydrogen bond

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273
Q

Define intermolecular and intramolecular

A

Intermolecular: between individual molecules
Intramolecular: within an individual molecule

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274
Q

The intramolecular bonds in water are ____ _____ bonds, the intermolecular bonds between water molecules are _____ bonds

A

The intramolecular bonds in water are polar covalent bonds, the intermolecular bonds between water molecules are hydrogen bonds

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275
Q

The six most abundant elements in the human body are carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, phosphorus, calcium, and _____

A

nitrogen

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276
Q

_______ electrons are the electrons found in the outermost shell of the electron cloud.

A

Valence

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277
Q

Atoms of the same element that differ only in the number of neutrons are known as _____

A

isotopes

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278
Q

A cation has a net _____ charge.

A

positive

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279
Q
What is the term for an ion with a net negative charge (more electrons than protons)?
Cation
Isotope
Electron
Anion
A

Anion

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280
Q

Choose the six most abundant (by weight) elements that account for 98.5% of the body weight.

A

Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, phosphorus, calcium, and nitrogen

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281
Q

What term refers to a covalent bond in which the electrons are not equally shared?

A

Polar

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282
Q

If an atom has 2 electrons in its innermost shell and 3 electrons in its outmost shell, how many valence electrons does it have?

A

3

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283
Q

Salt on a watermelon is an example of a ______.

A

mixture

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284
Q

Deuterium and tritium are isotopes of hydrogen. What is different about them?

A

They have a different number of neutrons

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285
Q

What term can be used to describe any molecule that is non-polar and does not dissolve in water?

A

Hydrophobic

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286
Q

What type of ion has lost an electron and, consequently, has a net positive charge?

A

Cation

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287
Q

Which term refers to polar molecules that dissolve in water?

A

Hydrophilic

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288
Q

The chlorine atom gains electrons to become a chloride ______.

A

anion

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289
Q

Saltwater is a solution of NaCl dissolved in water. In this example, NaCl is the solute and water is the ____

A

solvent

290
Q

In a carbon dioxide molecule, electrons are shared equally among the atoms. What type of bond do they form?

A

Nonpolar covalent

291
Q

In a solution, the solute can be a ______.

A

gas, solid, or liquid

292
Q

A(n) ______ consists of substances that are physically blended but not chemically bound.

A

mixture

293
Q

The abbreviation _____ is a measurement of acidity derived from the concentration of H+.

A

pH

294
Q

Name a hydrophobic substance

A

Fats

295
Q

Solution A prevents solution C from changing its pH. Solution A is therefore a what?

A

Buffer

296
Q

Hydrophilic substances are soluble in ____

A

water

297
Q

Energy contained in an object due to its position or state is referred to as what type of energy?

A

Potential

298
Q

In a solution, the more abundant substance that dissolves another substance is known as what?

A

Solvent

299
Q

The energy of motion is what type of energy?

A

Kinetic

300
Q

The particles of matter that are dissolved in a solution are known as what?

A

Solute

301
Q

Which of the following best describes what occurs in a decomposition reaction?

A

A molecule is broken down into smaller parts.

302
Q

pH is a measurement of the concentration of what?

A

Hydrogen ions

303
Q

Two amino acids are brought together to form a dipeptide. Which type of reaction is this?

A

Synthesis

304
Q

Substances that resist changes in pH are known as _____

A

buffers

305
Q

True or false: Some catalysts speed up reactions, while other catalysts slow down reactions.

A

False

306
Q

Which term refers to energy in a system that is not being used to do work?

A

Potential energy

307
Q

The term ______ refers to the sum of all the chemical reactions in the body.

A

metabolism

308
Q

______ energy is energy that is actively doing work.

A

Kinetic

309
Q

Which of the following describes a catabolic reaction?

A

Large protein molecules are broken down into smaller amino acids during digestion.

Reason: Catabolic reactions are decomposition reactions. Larger molecules are broken down into smaller molecules, and energy is released.

310
Q

A chemical reaction in which a larger molecule is broken down into smaller ones is which type of reaction?

A

Decomposition

311
Q

The term anabolism specifically applies to metabolic reactions that do which of the following?

A

Build large molecules from small molecules

312
Q

A chemical reaction in which two or more smaller molecules combine to form a larger molecule is what type of reaction?

A

Synthesis

313
Q

In many biochemical reactions, individual subunits are joined to form larger macromolecules with the release of water molecules. How are these reactions classified?

A

Dehydration synthesis reactions

314
Q

How do catalysts affect reaction rates?

A

They increase reaction rates.

315
Q

Name the chemical reaction that breaks a covalent bond in a molecule by adding an OH group to one side of the bond and H to the other side, thus consuming a water molecule.

A

Hydrolysis

316
Q

Which 3 things are true regarding metabolism?

A

1) It can be defined as the sum of all of the chemical reactions in the body.
2) It includes reactions where new molecules are synthesized.
3) It includes reactions where molecules are broken down.

317
Q

Which term is used to refer to a simple sugar, or sugar monomer?

A

Monosaccharide

318
Q

Which term applies to metabolic decomposition reactions that release energy?

A

Catabolism

319
Q

Name 5 types of lipids

A
  1. Steroids
  2. Fatty acids
  3. Phospholipids
  4. Eicosanoids
  5. Triglycerides
320
Q

Metabolic reactions that use energy and build more complex molecules from less complex molecules are considered which type of reaction?

A

Anabolic

321
Q

A(n) ______ is a lipid that consists of two hydrophobic fatty acid tails and a hydrophilic phosphate head.

A

phospholipid

322
Q

Sucrose or table sugar is formed when the simple sugars fructose and glucose are covalently bonded. This reaction releases water. What is the name of this type of reaction?

A

Dehydration synthesis

323
Q

Which of the following best describes the chemical reaction called hydrolysis?
A. A covalent bond is broken by adding an OH to one side of the molecule, and an H to the other side.
B. Two ions join together to form a salt.
C. Electrons are transferred between two molecules.
D. A water molecule is removed from a molecule when it creates a covalent bond.

A

A. A covalent bond is broken by adding an OH to one side of the molecule, and an H to the other side.

324
Q

Disaccharides can be broken down into ______.

A

monosaccharides

325
Q

Peptide bonds are used to join two of these together.

A

Amino acids

326
Q

Hydrophobic organic molecules, such as fatty acids, fats, steroids, and prostaglandins, are classified as what type of molecule?

A

Lipids

327
Q
Which of the following molecules are the major component of the plasma membrane?:
Phospholipids
Steroids
Prostaglandins
Glycoproteins
A

Phospholipids

328
Q

In many biochemical reactions, individual subunits are joined to form larger macromolecules with the release of water molecules. How are these reactions classified?

A

Dehydration synthesis reactions

329
Q

The ____ structure of a protein is its amino acid sequence.

A

Primary

330
Q

Name the chemical reaction that breaks a covalent bond in a molecule by adding an OH group to one side of the bond and H to the other side, thus consuming a water molecule.

A

Hydrolysis

331
Q

Name the type of bond that holds amino acids together in a protein molecule.

A

Peptide bond

332
Q

The ____ level of protein structure is determined by the folding of the protein due to hydrogen bonding between amino acids to form alpha helices and beta-pleated sheets.

A

secondary

333
Q
Choose the lipids in the list below:
Eicosanoids
Steroids
Phospholipids
Polysaccharides
Polypeptides
Fatty acids
Triglycerides
A
Eicosanoids
Steroids
Phospholipids
Fatty acids
Triglycerides
334
Q

A(n) _____ is a lipid that consists of two hydrophobic fatty acid tails and a hydrophilic phosphate head.

A

phospholipid

335
Q

Which level of protein structure is due to bending and folding into various globular and fibrous shapes?

A

Tertiary

336
Q

The quaternary structure consists of:

A

the interaction between multiple polypeptide subunits.

337
Q

What does the quaternary structure of a protein depend upon?

A

Interactions between multiple polypeptide chains

338
Q

Which of the following best describes the chemical reaction called hydrolysis?

A

A covalent bond is broken by adding an OH to one side of the molecule, and an H to the other side.

339
Q

Which term refers to a change in the three-dimensional conformation of a protein that destroys its functional properties?

A

Denaturation

340
Q

Name the level of protein structure that is determined by the folding of the protein into alpha helices and beta sheets due to hydrogen bonding between amino acids.

A

Secondary

341
Q

A _____ is the substance that an enzyme acts upon.

A

substrate

342
Q

Hydrophobic organic molecules, such as fatty acids, fats, steroids, and prostaglandins, are classified as what type of molecule?

A

Lipids

343
Q

Which of the following is another term for enzyme?

A

Biological catalyst

344
Q

The folding of proteins into various globular and fibrous shapes is referred to as the
____ structure of the proteins.

A

tertiary

345
Q

Which term refers to the energy needed to get a chemical reaction started?

A

Activation energy

346
Q

The _____ level of protein structure is determined by the interactions between two or more polypeptide chains within a protein.

A

quaternary

347
Q

Which of the following statements about enzymes are true?:
Enzymes speed up reaction rates by lowering the activation energy of a specific reaction.
Enzymes show enzyme-substrate specificity.
Enzymes may act as reactants in the reactions they catalyze.
Enzymes are not affected by pH.
Enzymes are not consumed in the reactions they catalyze.

A

Enzymes speed up reaction rates by lowering the activation energy of a specific reaction.

Enzymes show enzyme-substrate specificity.

Enzymes are not consumed in the reactions they catalyze.

348
Q

Which of the following best describes denaturation?

A

The unfolding of a protein’s three-dimensional shape

349
Q

Which term refers to the substance upon which an enzyme acts?

A

Substrate

350
Q

Indicate how pH and temperature affect the activity of an enzyme:
Altering the enzyme concentration
Altering the shape of the substrate binding site
Altering the substrate concentration
Causing a conformational change in the enzyme

A

Altering the shape of the substrate binding site

Causing a conformational change in the enzyme

351
Q

A(n) _____ is a protein that functions as a biological catalyst.

A

enzyme

352
Q

Which is an example of a nucleotide?

A

ATP

353
Q

What effect do enzymes have on the activation energy of a chemical reaction in the body?

A

Enzymes lower activation energy

354
Q

True or false: An enzyme is consumed by the reaction it catalyzes.

A

False

355
Q

Which term refers to a change in the three-dimensional conformation of a protein that destroys its functional properties?

A

Denaturation

356
Q

Which of the following factors affect enzyme conformation?:
Temperature
Enzyme concentration
pH

A

Temperature & pH

357
Q

Which organic molecules are composed of a nitrogenous base, a monosaccharide, and a phosphate group?

A

Nucleotides

358
Q

Nucleotides contain a phosphate, a sugar and a nitrogenous _____

A

base

359
Q

Which is an example of a nucleotide?

A

ATP

360
Q

True or false: All organisms are composed of cells

A

True

361
Q

____ are responsible for all structural and functional properties of a living organism

A

Cells

362
Q

Understanding cells is the key to understanding what three things?

A

Workings of human body
Mechanisms of disease
Rationale of therapy

363
Q

What are the 5 components of cell theory?

A

1) All organisms composed of cells and cell products
2) Cell is the simplest structural and functional unit of life
3) An organism’s structure and functions are due to activities of cells
4) Cells come only from preexisting cells
5) Cells of all species exhibit biochemical similarities

364
Q

How many types of cells are there in the human body?

A

About 200 different types

365
Q

What does the plasma (cell) membrane do and what is it made up of?

A

It surrounds cell and defines boundaries. Made of proteins and lipids

366
Q

What 4 things are included in the cytoplasm?

A

1) Organelles
2) Cytoskeleton
3) Inclusions (stored or foreign particles)
4) Cytosol (intracellular fluid, ICF)

367
Q

True or false: extracellular fluid (ECF) is one of the basic components of a cell

A

True

368
Q

Define organelle

A

Internal structures of a cell that carry out specialized metabolic tasks

369
Q

What’s the difference between cytoplasm and cytosol?

A

Cytoplasm contains the organelles; cytosol does not.

370
Q

How is the plasma membrane arranged?

A

In a bilayer

371
Q

What is the border of the cell?

A

The plasma membrane

372
Q

Name 3 functions of the plasma membrane

A

1) Defines cell boundaries
2) Governs interactions with other cells
3) Controls passage of materials in and out of cell

373
Q

__% of membrane molecules are lipids

A

98%

374
Q

What are the 3 most abundant membrane lipids?

A

Phospholipids (75% of membrane lipids), cholesterol (20%), and glycolipids (5%)

375
Q

What does the membrane lipid cholesterol do?

A

Holds phospholipids still and can stiffen the membrane

376
Q

What are glycolipids?

A

Phospholipids with short carbohydrate chains on extracellular face. A type of membrane lipid.

377
Q

Membrane proteins make up __% of the molecules but __% of the weight of membrane

A

2% of the molecules but 50% of the weight of membrane

378
Q

What are the two basic types of membrane proteins, and where are they located?

A

Integral proteins—penetrate membrane

Peripheral proteins – on the surface of membrane

379
Q

What is one type of integral protein?

A

Transmembrane proteins

380
Q

________ proteins contain both hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions

A

Transmembrane

381
Q

Where are transmembrane proteins located?

A

Some drift in membrane; others are anchored to cytoskeleton

382
Q

Describe peripheral proteins

A
  • Adhere to one face of the membrane (do not penetrate it)

- Usually tied to the cytoskeleton and an integral protein.

383
Q

What are some examples of the functions of membrane proteins?

A

Receptors, enzymes, channels, carriers, cell-identity markers, cell-adhesion molecules, etc

384
Q

What is the glycoalyx? What is it made up of?

A

It’s a fuzzy coat external to plasma membrane, and made up of glycoproteins and glycolipids

385
Q

_______ is unique in everyone but identical twins

A

Glycocalyx

386
Q

What does the glycocalyx do?

A

It helps with protection, immunity to infection, defense against cancer, transplant compatibility, cell adhesion, fertilization, and embryonic development

387
Q

True or false: Some channel proteins are always open, but others are gated

A

True

388
Q

What are channel proteins needed for?

A

They’re crucial to nerve and muscle function

389
Q

What are 3 different types of channel proteins?

A

Ligand-gated channels, voltage gated channels, and mechanically-gated channels

390
Q

Ligand-gated channels respond to _____

A

chemical messengers

391
Q

Voltage-gated channels respond to ____

A

charge changes

392
Q

Mechanically-gated channels respond to ____

A

physical stress on the cell

393
Q

What is an example of a stretch receptor?

A

Mechanically-gated channels

394
Q

Give an example of chemical messengers for ligand-gated channels

A

Neurotransmitters

395
Q

Microvilli are best developed in cells specialized in _____

A

absorption

396
Q

What are microvilli?

A

Extensions of the membrane that gives 15 to 40 times more surface area

397
Q

How big are microvilli?

A

1-2μm

398
Q

What is it called when microvilli are very dense and appear as a fringe?

A

Brush border

399
Q

What are cilia?

A

Hair-like processes that are 7–10 μm long

400
Q

What is one type of cilia?

A

Motile cilia

401
Q

____ cilia are found in the respiratory tract, uterine tubes, ventricles of brain, ducts of testes

A

Motile cilia

402
Q

What do cilia do?

A

Beat in waves sweeping material across a surface in one direction

403
Q

True or false: the flagellum of sperm is the only functioning flagella in humans

A

True

404
Q

Describe the structure and movement of flagella

A

They have a whip-like structure and are much longer than cilium.
Their movement is undulating, snake-like, corkscrew; no power stroke and recovery strokes

405
Q

What are pseudopods?

A

Continually changing extensions of the cell that vary in shape and size

406
Q

What can pseudopods do?

A

They can be used for cellular locomotion or capturing foreign particles

407
Q

The plasma membrane is selectively permeable. What does this mean?

A

It allows some things through, but prevents others from passing

408
Q

Which of the following mechanisms consume ATP?:

a) passive transport
b) active transport
c) both active and passive transport

A

b) active transport

409
Q

What does passive transport not require any of the cell’s energy?

A

Random molecular motion of particles provides necessary energy

410
Q

Is membrane transport a type of passive or active transport?

A

It can be either passive or active

411
Q

Define membrane transport

A

Carrier-mediated mechanisms use a membrane protein to transport substances across membrane

412
Q

Name 4 passive mechanisms of transportation

A

1) Filtration
2) Simple Diffusion
3) Facilitated Diffusion
4) Osmosis

413
Q

Define filtration

A

A type of passive transport, particles are driven through membrane by physical pressure

414
Q

Where can filtration be found in the human body? (3 examples)

A

1) Filtration of water and small solutes through gaps in capillary walls
2) Allows delivery of water and nutrients to tissues
3) Allows removal of waste from capillaries in kidneys

415
Q

Define a gradient

A

A difference in chemical concentration, charge, temperature, or pressure between two points

416
Q

True or false: Matter and energy tend to flow up gradients

A

False; matter and energy tend to flow DOWN gradients

417
Q

Give an example of matter flowing down a gradient in the body

A

Blood flows from a place of higher pressure to a place of lower pressure

418
Q

Moving up a gradient requires what?

A

Energy

419
Q

Define simple diffusion

A

The net movement of particles from place of high concentration to place of lower concentration

420
Q

Why does simple diffusion happen?

A

It happens due to constant, spontaneous molecular motion; molecules collide and bounce off each other

421
Q

Substances diffuse ____ their concentration gradient

A

down

422
Q

When can substances diffuse through a membrane?

A

If the membrane is permeable to the substance

423
Q

True or false: the diffusion of substances down a concentration gradient doesn’t require a membrane

A

True

424
Q

In _____ diffusion, the substance passes directly through the phospholipid bilayer

A

simple

425
Q

What 5 factors affect the diffusion rate through the membrane?

A

1) Temperature: ^ temp = ^ motion of particles = ^ rate
2) Molecular weight: larger molecules move slower
3) Steepness of concentrated gradient: ^ difference = ^ rate
4) Membrane surface area: ^ area = ^ rate
5) Membrane permeability: ^ permeability = ^ rate

426
Q

Define osmosis

A

The diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane

427
Q

In osmosis, water moves from the side where water is ____ concentrated to the side where it is ____ concentrated

A

more; less

428
Q

Will osmosis speed up or slow down if a cell adds more aquaporins?

A

Speed up

429
Q

Define aquaporins

A

Channel proteins in a membrane specialized for water passage

430
Q

Define osmolarity

A

The measure of total concentration of solute particles

431
Q

Define tonicity

A

The concentration of non-permeating solutes

432
Q

Define hypotonic solution

A

A solution that has a lower concentration of non-permeating solutes than the other solution

433
Q

Define a hypertonic solution

A

A solution that has a higher concentration of non-permeating solutes than the other solution

434
Q

Define an isotonic solution

A

Where concentrations of non-permeating solutes in both solutions are the same

435
Q

What happens to a cell if it’s placed in a hypertonic solution?

A

Water diffuses out of the cell and causes crenation (shriveling) because now it doesn’t have enough water

436
Q

What happens to a cell if it’s place in a hypotonic solution?

A

Water diffuses into the cell and causes hemolysis (explosion) because now it has too much water.

437
Q

What happens to a cell if it’s placed in an isotonic solution?

A

Nothing, stays the same

438
Q

What are the three mechanisms of carrier-mediated transport?

A

1) Facilitated diffusion
2) Primary active transport
3) Secondary active transport

439
Q

What is carrier-mediated transport?

A

Solute attaches to binding site on carrier, carrier changes conformation, then releases solute on other side of membrane

440
Q

Describe facilitated diffusion

A
  • Carrier moves the solute down its concentration gradient

- Does not consume ATP

441
Q

Describe primary active transport

A
  • Carrier moves the solute through a membrane up (against) its concentration gradient
  • Need ATP for energy
442
Q

True or false: facilitated diffusion doesn’t require ATP

A

True

443
Q

Give 2 examples of primary active transport in the body

A
  • Calcium pump (uniport)

- Sodium–potassium pump (antiport)

444
Q

What does the sodium-potassium pump do, and why?

A
  • Three Na+ are pumped out and two K+ are pumped in by the sodium potassium pump
  • Necessary because Na+ and K+ constantly leak through membrane
445
Q

Define vesicular transport

A

Moves large particles, fluid droplets, or numerous molecules at once through the membrane in vesicles—bubble-like enclosures of membrane

446
Q

Define endocytosis

A

Transports material into cell

447
Q

Define exocytosis

A

Transports material out of the cell

448
Q

Define transcytosis

A

Transport into, across, and then out of a cell

449
Q

What are the two types of endocytosis? Describe them

A

Phagocytosis—“cell eating,” engulfing large particles

Pinocytosis—“cell drinking,”

450
Q

What does phagocytosis do?

A

Phagocytosis keeps tissues free of debris and infectious microbes

451
Q

Describe receptor-mediated endocytosis

A
  • More selective endocytosis

- Enables cells to take in specific molecules that bind to extracellular receptors

452
Q

Describe exocytosis and when it’s needed (before or after endocytosis)

A
  • Secreting material

- Needed in the replacement of plasma membrane removed by endocytosis (after endocytosis)

453
Q

What materials in the body can be released by exocytosis?

A
  • Ejection of wastes
  • Release of neurotransmitters
  • Hormone secretion
  • Mucus secretion
454
Q

What is the cytoskeleton?

A

A network of protein filaments and cylinders

455
Q

What is the largest organelle (5 μm in diameter)?

A

The nucleus

456
Q

Most cells have how many nuclei?

A

1

457
Q

True or false: cells can be mononuclear, polynuclear, or anuclear

A

True

458
Q

Give an example of an anuclear cell in humans

A

Red blood cells

459
Q

Give an example of a cell with many nuclei (a polynuclear cell) in the human body

A

Skeletal muscle cells & some bone dissolving cells

460
Q

Define the nuclear envelope

A

A double membrane with pores surrounding the nucleus

461
Q

Nucleoplasm is made up of what two things?

A

Chromatin and nucleoli

462
Q

Define chromatin

A

A thread-like substance composed of DNA and protein; one of two substances that makes up nucleoplasm

463
Q

Define nucleoli

A

Masses where ribosomes are produced; one of two substances that makes up nucleoplasm

464
Q

Define endoplasmic reticulum

A

A system of channels (cisternae) enclosed by membrane

465
Q

What makes up the rough endoplasm reticulum and what does it do?

A

It’s made up of parallel, flattened sacs covered with ribosomes.
Functions: protein synthesis and packages proteins for transport

466
Q

The ___ endoplasmic reticulum has ribosomes, whereas the ____ endoplasmic reticulum doesn’t

A

The rough endoplasmic reticulum has ribosomes; the smooth endoplasmic reticulum doesn’t

467
Q

What does the smooth endoplasmic reticulum do? (three things)

A

1) Synthesizes steroids and other lipids
2) Detoxifies alcohol and other drugs
3) Calcium storage

468
Q

What are ribosomes?

A

Small granules of protein and RNA

469
Q

What do ribosomes do?

A

They “read” coded genetic messages (messenger RNA) and assemble amino acids into proteins specified by the code

470
Q

What does the golgi complex do?

A

It receives newly synthesized proteins from rough ER. Then it sorts proteins, modifies proteins, and packages them into vesicles

471
Q

What do vesicles become/do after leaving the golgi complex?

A

Some vesicles become lysosomes
Some vesicles migrate to plasma membrane and fuse to it
Some become secretory vesicles that store a protein product for later release

472
Q

Define lysosomes

A

A package of enzymes bound by a membrane

473
Q

What 3 things do lysosomes do?

A
  1. Intracellular hydrolytic digestion
  2. Phagocytosis
  3. Autolysis
474
Q

Define autolysis

A

“Cell suicide” or the digestion of a surplus cell by itself

475
Q

What are peroxisomes and what do they do?

A

Resemble lysosomes but contain different enzymes. They detoxify certain harmful chemicals, enclose reactions that make toxic byproducts

476
Q

Peroxisomes are found in all cells, but are especially abundant in what two organs?

A

The liver and kidney

477
Q

Define mitochondria

A

Organelles specialized for synthesizing ATP

478
Q

Mitochondria are surrounded by a ____ membrane

A

double

479
Q

What makes mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) unique, and what does it do?

A

It mutates more rapidly than nuclear DNA; continually changes shape from spheroidal to thread-like. It’s responsible for hereditary diseases affecting tissues with high energy demands

480
Q

What do centrioles do?

A

They form the mitotic spindle during cell division, unpaired centrioles form basic structure of cilia and flagella

481
Q

Define (simple) diffusion

A

The net movement of particles from place of high concentration to place of lower concentration

482
Q

Define osmosis

A

The diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

483
Q

Define (primary) active transport

A

A carrier moves the solute through a membrane up (against) its concentration gradient

484
Q

Extracellular fluid is ____ the cell, whereas intracellular fluid is ____ the cell.

A

Extracellular fluid is outside the cell, whereas intracellular fluid is inside the cell

485
Q

What is the most abundant cation in extracellular fluid? Most abundant anion?

A

Cation: Na+
Anion: Cl-.

486
Q

What is the most abundant cation in intracellular fluid? Most abundant anion?

A

Cation: K+
Anions: proteins, atp

487
Q

Define tonicity

A

The concentration of non-permeating solutes (solutes that cannot pass through the membrane)

488
Q

Two major extracellular fluids are

A

Plasma and interstitial fluid

489
Q

Name 4 passive mechanisms of transportation

A

1) Filtration
2) Simple Diffusion
3) Facilitated Diffusion
4) Osmosis

490
Q

Define a gradient

A

A difference in chemical concentration, charge, temperature, or pressure between two points

491
Q

True or false: Matter and energy tend to flow up gradients

A

False; matter and energy tend to flow DOWN gradients

492
Q

Give an example of matter flowing down a gradient in the body

A

Blood flows from a place of higher pressure to a place of lower pressure

493
Q

Moving up a gradient requires what?

A

Energy

494
Q

Define hypotonic solution

A

A solution that has a lower concentration of non-permeating solutes than the other solution

495
Q

Define a hypertonic solution

A

A solution that has a higher concentration of non-permeating solutes than the other solution

496
Q

Define an isotonic solution

A

Where concentrations of non-permeating solutes in both solutions are the same

497
Q

What happens to a cell if it’s placed in a hypertonic solution?

A

Water diffuses out of the cell and causes crenation (shriveling) because now it doesn’t have enough water

498
Q

What happens to a cell if it’s place in a hypotonic solution?

A

Water diffuses into the cell and causes hemolysis (explosion) because now it has too much water.

499
Q

What happens to a cell if it’s placed in an isotonic solution?

A

Nothing, stays the same

500
Q

How can water flow quickly into cells?

A

Facilitated diffusion through aquaporins

501
Q
The plasma membrane is made up of phospholipids and which of the following?
Protein
Calcium
Carbohydrates
Cellulose
A

Protein

502
Q

What is the simplest structural and functional unit of living things?

A

Cells

503
Q

What do voltage-gated ion channels open in response to?

A

A change in membrane potential

504
Q

Cells that line the intestine are taller than they are wide and therefore described as what?

A

Columnar

505
Q

Tissue fluid is also called ______.

A

Interstitial fluid

506
Q

Which cellular structure is critical for identifying your body’s own healthy cells from transplanted tissue?

A

Glycocalyx

507
Q

The majority of the plasma membrane can be described as a bilayer of
_____ with associated proteins.

A

phospholipids

508
Q

Extensions of the cell membrane that serve to increase surface area are called

A

Microvilli

509
Q

Squamous cells line the ____

A

esophagus

510
Q

When the concentration of a substance differs from one area to another, this creates a concentration

A

gradient

511
Q

Smaller molecules diffuse ______ larger molecules.

A

faster than

512
Q

A membrane coating called the

______ is chemically unique in everyone but identical twins.

A

glycocalyx

513
Q
Water and electrolytes can cross a cell membrane through which of the following?
Transporters
Vesicles
Cholesterol molecules
Channels
A

Channels

514
Q

Extensions of the plasma membrane that serve primarily to increase a cell’s surface area are called ______.

A

microvilli

515
Q

Plasma membranes are selectively permeable. What does this mean?

A

Some compounds can permeate (pass through) the membrane while others cannot.

516
Q

The movement of water in and out of the renal tubules can be increased or decreased. The tubular cells are able to do this, by changing the number of water channels, also called
_____ in their membranes.

A

aquaporins

517
Q

A(n) ______ solution has a lower osmotic pressure than the intracellular fluid of the cell and tends to cause osmotic swelling and lysis of cells.

A

hypotonic

518
Q

Which factors would increase the rate of diffusion?
Decreased temperature
Decreased molecular weight of diffusing compound
Increased concentration difference
Increased cell surface area

A

Decreased molecular weight of diffusing compound
Increased concentration difference
Increased cell surface area

519
Q

A cell placed into which solution will lose water by osmosis?
Isotonic
Hypertonic
Hypotonic

A

Hypertonic

520
Q
Which of the following molecules can readily diffuse through a cell membrane?
Lipid-soluble molecules
Hydrophobic molecules
Nonpolar molecules
Large hydrophilic molecules
A

Lipid-soluble molecules
Hydrophobic molecules
Nonpolar molecules

521
Q

What is a protein that participates in transmembrane transport called?

A

A carrier

522
Q

What are the membrane channels that allow the movement of water across a membrane called?

A

Aquaporins

523
Q

When all carriers are saturated, the transport of the molecule levels off at a rate called what?

A

Transport maximum

524
Q

Cells placed in a(n) ______ solution will swell and burst due to water moving into the cell.

A

hypotonic

525
Q

A(n) ____ solution has a higher osmotic pressure than the intracellular fluid of cells and tends to cause the cells to undergo osmotic shrinkage.

A

hypertonic

526
Q
Mechanisms for moving substances across the plasma membrane that require the use of cellular ATP include which of the following:
vesicular transport
passive diffusion
osmosis
active transport
A

vesicular transport and active transport

527
Q

The Na+-K+ pump moves ______ Na+ ions from the ICF to the ECF while simultaneously moving ______ K+ ions from the ECF into the ICF.

A

3; 2

528
Q

In which process does a solute bind to a carrier in the plasma membrane that then changes shape and releases the solute to the other side of the membrane?

A

Carrier-mediated transport

529
Q

The general term for the cell process in which the membrane invaginates, forming vesicles that bring extracellular particles or droplets of fluid into the cell, is known as ___

A

endocytosis

530
Q

The Na+-K+ pump is a good example of which type of transport?

A

Primary active transport

531
Q

Which cytoskeletal elements resist stresses placed on a cell and participate in junctions that attach some cells to their neighbors?

A

Intermediate filaments

532
Q

What are the three types of endocytosis?

A

Pinocytosis, phagocytosis, and receptor-mediated

533
Q

The organelle which controls cellular activity is the

A

Nucleus

534
Q

The process of using a carrier to passively transport a solute through a membrane down its concentration gradient is known as
____ diffusion.

A

facilitated

535
Q

Which of the following best defines chromatin?
Particles on the surface of rough endoplasmic reticulum
Tubular structures forming the centrioles
Folds of the inner membrane within mitochondria
Fine threads of DNA and protein

A

Fine threads of DNA and protein

536
Q

The vesicular transport process of discharging material from a cell is called

A

exocytosis

537
Q

What is the function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

A

To synthesize lipids

538
Q

_____ filaments are thicker and stiffer than microfilaments and participate in cell-to-cell adhesion.

A

Intermediate

539
Q

What is the large centrally-located organelle visible with a light microscope called?

A

Nucleus

540
Q

Where are proteins, such as enzymes, that are to be secreted from the cells produced?

A

Ribosomes on the ER

541
Q

The fine thread-like genetic material (the form of DNA) found within the nucleus of a non-dividing cell is called

A

chromatin

542
Q

The organelle that resembles stacked membranous sacs and is involved in “packaging” is the _____ complex.

A

golgi

543
Q

Which membrane-bound organelle contains a mixture of enzymes that function in digesting foreign matter, pathogens, and expired organelles?

A

Lysosome

544
Q

What is the function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum?

A

To synthesize proteins

545
Q

Which cytoskeletal elements resist stresses placed on a cell and participate in junctions that attach some cells to their neighbors?

A

Intermediate filaments

546
Q

Which organelle contains enzymes needed to neutralize free radicals, detoxify alcohol, other drugs, and blood-borne toxins?

A

Peroxisome

547
Q

______ are the organelles that read coded genetic messages and assemble amino acids into proteins.

A

Ribosomes

548
Q

Which organelle is comprised of stacked cisternae that synthesize carbohydrates?

A

Golgi complex

549
Q

Which organelle is has a double unit membrane?

A

Mitochondria

550
Q

_____ are the organelles that digest and dispose of worn-out mitochondria and other organelles by a process called autophagy.

A

Lysosomes

551
Q

Which organelles participate in cell division?

A

Centrioles

552
Q

Which endoplasmic reticulum has tubular, branched cisternae, and lacks ribosomes?

A

Smooth ER

553
Q

The membrane-bound organelle that contains enzymes and oxygen used to oxidize organic material is the _____

A

peroxisome

554
Q

Which of the following are small granules of RNA and protein that provide a site for protein synthesis?

A

Ribosomes

555
Q

Basal bodies and the axonemes of flagella and cilia originate from which non-membranous organelles?

A

Centrioles

556
Q

Which of the following is a short cylindrical assembly of microtubules arranged in nine groups of three?

A

Centrioles

557
Q

What are the three major regions of a cell?

A

Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, and nucleus

558
Q

What are the main components of the plasma membrane?

A

Phospholipids, proteins, and carbohydrates attached to some of the lipids and proteins.

559
Q

What is selective permeability?

A

When some substances can pass through a membrane but not others

560
Q

Define primary active transport

A

A carrier protein moves the solute through a membrane up (against) its concentration gradient. This process requires ATP from the cell.

561
Q

Define passive transport

A

The movement of a molecule down its concentration gradient and across a membrane without the use of ATP

562
Q

Define simple diffusion

A

The net movement of particles from place of high concentration to place of lower concentration

563
Q

Define facilitated diffusion

A

A carrier protein moves the solute down its concentration gradient, and does not consume ATP

564
Q

What’s the difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion?

A

Facilitated diffusion requires a carrier protein

565
Q

Define the nucleus

A

The “brain” of a cell

566
Q

Define the nuclear envelope

A

A double membrane with pores surrounding the nucleus

567
Q

Define nucleolus/ nucleoli

A

Masses where ribosomes are produced

568
Q

Define chromatin

A

A thread-like substance composed of DNA and protein; one of two substances that makes up nucleoplasm

569
Q

What’s the difference between cytoplasm and cytosol?

A

Cytoplasm contains the organelles; cytosol does not.

570
Q

What is included in the cytoplasm?

A

–Organelles
–Cytoskeleton
–Inclusions (stored or foreign particles)
–Cytosol (intracellular fluid, ICF)

571
Q

Define cytosol

A

The aqueous component of the cytoplasm of a cell

572
Q

Which organelle is best described as system of channels (cisternae) enclosed by a membrane?

A

The endoplasmic reticulum

573
Q

Which organelle is best described as parallel, flattened sacs covered with
ribosomes?

A

Rough ER

574
Q

What does the rough ER do?

A

Protein synthesis and packages proteins for transport

575
Q

What does the smooth ER do?

A

–Synthesizes steroids and other lipids
–Detoxifies alcohol and other drugs
–Calcium storage

576
Q

What do ribosomes do?

A

They “read” coded genetic messages
(messenger RNA) and assemble amino acids
into proteins specified by the code

577
Q

Which organelle is best described as small granules of protein and
RNA?

A

Ribosomes

578
Q

What does the golgi complex do?

A

•Receives newly synthesized proteins from
rough ER
•Sorts proteins, modifies proteins, and
packages them into vesicles
–Some vesicles become lysosomes
–Some vesicles migrate to plasma membrane and fuse to it
–Some become secretory vesicles that store a protein product for later release

579
Q

Which organelle is best described as an organelle

specialized for synthesizing ATP?

A

Mitochondria

580
Q

What do mitochondria do?

A

They make ATP

581
Q

What do centrioles do?

A

They form the mitotic spindle during cell division,

unpaired centrioles form basic structure of cilia and flagella

582
Q

Which organelle is best described as a package of enzymes bound by a membrane?

A

Lysosomes

583
Q

What do lysosomes do?

A

–Intracellular hydrolytic digestion
–Phagocytosis
–Autolysis

584
Q

What do peroxisomes do?

A

Detoxify certain harmful chemicals, enclose

reactions that make toxic byproducts

585
Q

What does the plasma membrane do?

A

•Defines cell boundaries
•Governs interactions with other cells
•Controls passage of materials in and out of
cell

586
Q

Which organelle would best be described as the border of the cell (arranged in bilayer)?

A

Plasma membrane

587
Q

Give 4 examples of genetic disorders that can impact hereditary traits.

A

Color blindness, cystic fibrosis, diabetes mellitus, and hemophilia

588
Q

Define DNA

A

A long, thread-like molecule with uniform diameter, but varied length

589
Q

There are ___ DNA molecules (chromosomes) in nucleus of most human cells

A

46

590
Q

DNA and other nucleic acids are polymers of ______

A

nucleotides

591
Q

Nucleotides consist of what 3 things?

A

A sugar, phosphate group, and nitrogenous base

592
Q

Give an example of a type of sugar that can be found in nucleotides

A

Deoxyribose

593
Q

What are the two types of nitrogenous bases in nucleic acids?

A

1) Purines

2) Pyrimidines

594
Q

What distinguishes purines and pyrimidines from each other?

A

Purines have a double ring, pyrimidines have a single ring

595
Q

Which bases are purines and which bases are pyrimidines?

A

1) Purines - adenine (A) and guanine (G)

2) Pyrimidines - cytosine (C), thymine (T), and uracil (U)

596
Q

What are the 4 bases found in DNA? What are the 4 bases found in RNA?

A

DNA bases: A, T, C, G

RNA bases: A, U, C, G

597
Q

DNA has a ______ _____ shape.

A

double helix

598
Q

The nitrogenous bases of DNA are united by ______ bonds

A

hydrogen

599
Q

True or false: A purine on one strand always bound to a pyrimidine on the other

A

True

600
Q

In DNA, the base A always pairs with ___ and G always pairs with ___

A

A - T & G - C

601
Q

A–T has ___ hydrogen bonds

C–G has ___ hydrogen bonds

A

A–T has two hydrogen bonds

C–G has three hydrogen bonds

602
Q

What is the law of complementary base pairing?

A

The idea that one strand determines base sequence of other

603
Q

Define chromatin

A

Fine filamentous DNA material complexed with proteins

604
Q

Define a gene using two different definitions

A

1) A segment of DNA coding for the synthesis of a specific protein.
2) An information-containing segment of DNA that codes for synthesizing one or more proteins

605
Q

Define genome

A

All the genes of one person

606
Q

Humans have about _____ genes

A

20,000

607
Q

Genes only make up ____% of total DNA, the rest is noncoding DNA.

A

2%

608
Q

___ interprets the code in ___ to synthesize proteins

A

RNA interprets the code in DNA to synthesize proteins

609
Q

RNA functions mainly in the _____

A

cytoplasm

610
Q

What are the 3 important types of RNA for protein synthesis?

A
  • Messenger RNA (mRNA)
  • Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
  • Transfer RNA (tRNA)
611
Q

In what 4 ways does RNA differ from DNA?

A

1) Single stranded (one nucleotide chain not a double helix like DNA)
2) Ribose replaces deoxyribose as the sugar
3) Uracil replaces thymine as a nitrogenous base
4) Functions mainly in cytoplasm

612
Q

What determines the amino acid sequence of a protein?

A

The nucleotide sequence in the DNA

613
Q

The minimum code to symbolize 20 amino acids is ____ nucleotides per amino acid

A

three

614
Q

The body can make millions of different proteins based on only ___ amino acids and is encoded by genes made of just ___ nucleotides

A

The body can make millions of different proteins based on only 20 amino acids and is encoded by genes made of just four nucleotides

615
Q

Define a base triplet

A

A sequence of three DNA nucleotides that stands for one amino acid

616
Q

Define a codon

A

The 3-base sequence in mRNA

617
Q

How many codons are there?

A

64 possible codons available to represent the 20 amino acids.

618
Q

__ codons code for amino acids; __ are stop codons

A

61 codons code for amino acids; 3 are stop codons

619
Q

What are stop codons?

A

They signal “end of message”

620
Q

What are start codons?

A

AUG codes for methionine, and begins the amino acid sequence of the protein

621
Q

Define transcription

A

Copying genetic instructions from DNA to mRNA

622
Q

Define RNA polymerase

A

An enzyme that binds to DNA and assembles mRNA

623
Q

How does RNA polymerase assemble mRNA?

A

1) RNA polymerase reads bases from one strand of DNA

2) Makes corresponding mRNA

624
Q

What is translation?

A

The process that converts the language of nucleotides into the language of amino acids

625
Q

What 3 things participate in the process of translation?

A

mRNA, tRNA, and ribosomes

626
Q

Briefly describe the process of translation

A

1) mRNA carries code from nucleus to cytoplasm
2) Transfer RNA (tRNA) delivers a single amino acid to the ribosome for it to be added to growing protein chain
3) Ribosome adds the amino acid to the protein chain.

627
Q

_RNA contains an anticodon that are complementary to codon of mRNA

A

tRNA

628
Q

Where are ribosomes found and what are they made of?

A

1) Found free in cytosol, on rough ER, and on nuclear envelope
2) Consist of enzymes and ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

629
Q

Describe the structure of tRNA

A

1) One end includes three nucleotides called an anticodon

2) Other end has binding site specific for one amino acid

630
Q

What are the 3 steps to translation?

A

Initiation, Elongation,and Termination

631
Q

Describe the step of initiation (3 parts)

A

1) Initiator tRNA (bearing methionine) pairs with start codon
2) Ribosome pulls mRNA molecule through it like a ribbon
3) When start codon (AUG) is reached, protein synthesis begins

632
Q

Describe the step of elongation (6 parts)

A

1) Next tRNA (with its amino acid) binds to ribosome while its anticodon pairs with next codon of mRNA
2) Peptide bond forms between methionine and second amino acid
3) Ribosome slides to read next codon
4) Next tRNA with appropriate anticodon brings its amino acid to ribosome
5) Another peptide bond forms (between 2nd and 3rd amino acids)
6) Process continually repeats, extending peptide to a protein

633
Q

Describe the step of termination (3 steps)

A

1) Ribosome reaches stop codon
2) Finished protein breaks away from ribosome
3) Ribosome dissociates into two subunits

634
Q

Describe DNA replication (4 steps)

A

1) DNA unwinds from histones
2) An enzyme unzips a segment of the double helix exposing its nitrogenous bases
3) DNA polymerase builds new DNA strands
4) Newly made DNA wraps around histones

635
Q

Before a cell divides, it must duplicate its DNA. Why?

A

So it can give a complete copy of all its genes to each daughter cell

636
Q

When preparing to divide, the cell makes copy of ____ DNA

A

nuclear

637
Q

When preparing to divide, after nucelar DNA is replicated, each chromosome then consists of two parallel filaments of identical DNA called ______

A

Sister chromatids

638
Q

Where are chromatids joined?

A

At the centromere

639
Q

Define cell cycle

A

A cell’s life from one division to the next

640
Q

What are the two main parts of the cell life cycle?

A

Interphase and mitotic phase

641
Q

What does interphase of the cell cycle include

A

1) G1: first gap phase
2) S: synthesis phase
3) G2: second gap phase

642
Q

What does the mitotic phase of the cell cycle include?

A

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

643
Q

Describe G1 of interphase

A
  • The first gap phase; the interval between cell birth (from division) and DNA replication
  • Cell carries out normal tasks and accumulates materials for next phase
644
Q

Describe the S stage of interphase

A

Synthesis phase; the cell replicates all nuclear DNA and duplicates centrioles

645
Q

Describe G2 of interphase

A
  • The second gap phase; the interval between DNA replication and cell division
  • Cell repairs DNA replication errors, grows and synthesizes enzymes that control cell division
646
Q

Briefly describe the mitotic phase of cell division

A

The cell replicates its nucleus and pinches in two to form new daughter cells

647
Q

What is the G0 phase?

A

Describes cells that have left the cycle and cease dividing for a long time (or permanently)

648
Q

True or false: Cell cycle duration varies between cell types

A

True

649
Q

Define mitosis

A

Mitosis is cell division resulting in two genetically identical daughter cells

650
Q

What are the 4 main functions of mitosis?

A

1) Development of the individual from one fertilized egg to roughly 50 trillion cells
2) Growth of all tissues and organs after birth
3) Replacement of cells that die
4) Repair of damaged tissues

651
Q

What are the 4 stages of mitosis/ the mitotic phase?

A

Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

652
Q

Describe the prophase stage of mitosis (6 steps)

A

1) Genetic material condenses into compact chromosomes
2) 46 chromosomes are made of two sister chromatids
3) Nuclear envelope disintegrates
4) Centrioles sprout spindle fibers (long microtubules)
5) Spindle fibers push centriole pairs apart
6) Some spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of centromeres of chromosomes

653
Q

Describe the metaphase stage of mitosis (2 steps)

A
  • Chromosomes are aligned on cell equator

- Shorter microtubules from centrioles complete an aster which anchors itself to inside of cell membrane

654
Q

Describe the anaphase stage of mitosis (2 steps)

A
  • Enzyme cleaves two sister chromatids apart at centromere
  • Single-stranded daughter chromosomes migrate to each pole of the cell as motor proteins in kinetochores crawl along spindle fibers
655
Q

Describe the telophase stage of mitosis (5 steps)

A
  • Chromosomes cluster on each side of the cell
  • Rough ER makes new nuclear envelope around each cluster
  • Chromosomes uncoil to chromatin
  • Mitotic spindle disintegrates
  • Each nucleus forms nucleoli
656
Q

Define cytokinesis

A

The division of cytoplasm into two cells

657
Q

True or false: Telophase is the end of nuclear division but overlaps cytokinesis

A

True

658
Q

Describe the stage of cytokinesis (2 steps)

A

1) Creates cleavage furrow around the equator of cell

2) Cell eventually pinches in two

659
Q

Cells replicate under what conditions?

A

Cells replicate if:

  • They have enough cytoplasm for two daughter cells
  • They have replicated their DNA
  • They have adequate supply of nutrients
  • They are stimulated by growth factors (chemical signals)
  • Neighboring cells die, opening up space
660
Q

Cells stop dividing under what conditions?

A

1) They snugly contact neighboring cells
2) Nutrients or growth factors are withdrawn
3) They undergo contact inhibition—the cessation of cell division in response to contact with other cells

661
Q
Which of the following are components of nucleotides?
Phosphate groups
Nitrogenous bases
Sugars (ribose or deoxyribose)
Amino acids
Proteins
A

Phosphate groups
Nitrogenous bases
Sugars (ribose or deoxyribose)

662
Q

In DNA, the base adenine pairs with the base ____

A

thymine

663
Q

How many hydrogen bonds do adenine and thymine form with each other?

A

Two

664
Q

In the nucleus, DNA is complexed with proteins to form a fine filamentous material called _____

A

chromatin

665
Q

In the nucleus of a typical human cell, there are 46 DNA filaments. Which term refers to one of these structures?

A

Chromosome

666
Q

Which of the following best describes a histone?

1) A protein component of chromatin that helps to organize and package DNA
2) The pinched spot on the chromosome where two sister chromatids join together
3) A long, noncoding sequence of DNA
4) A segment of the DNA that carries the genetic code for a particular protein

A

1) A protein component of chromatin that helps to organize and package DNA

667
Q

When a cell is preparing to divide, it makes an exact copy of all its nuclear DNA. Each chromosome then consists of two parallel filaments called _____ chromatids

A

sister

668
Q

How many hydrogen bonds do guanine and cytosine form with each other?

A

3

669
Q

Which of the following is true about the centromere?

a) It is what chromosomes attach to, so they can be pulled to the middle of the cell.
b) It is located at the tips of the chromosome “arms”.
c) It is where sister chromatids are joined together.
d) It is a short stretch of DNA wrapped around a cluster of histone proteins.

A

c) It is where sister chromatids are joined together.

670
Q

Which term refers to the filamentous material composed of DNA and associated proteins that is found in the nucleus of a cell?

a) Centrioles
b) Chromatids
c) Chromatin
d) Chromosome

A

c) Chromatin

671
Q

mRNA is short for ____ RNA

A

messenger

672
Q

In the nucleus of a dividing cell, the chromatin condenses so that each _____ is now made of two sister chromatids, can be seen with a light microscope.

A

chromosome

673
Q
Histones are \_\_\_\_\_\_.
triglycerides
proteins
carbohydrates
nucleic acids
A

proteins

674
Q

How are DNA and RNA different?
A) RNA consists of only one nucleotide chain whereas DNA is a double helix.
B) RNA contains a sugar called ribose whereas DNA contains a sugar called deoxyribose.
C) RNA contains adenine, cytosine, thymine and guanine whereas DNA contains adenine, cytosine, thymine and uracil.
D) RNA is much smaller. DNA, by contrast, averages more than 100 million base pairs long.

A

A) RNA consists of only one nucleotide chain whereas DNA is a double helix.
B) RNA contains a sugar called ribose whereas DNA contains a sugar called deoxyribose.
D) RNA is much smaller. DNA, by contrast, averages more than 100 million base pairs long.

675
Q
When a cell is preparing to divide, it makes an exact copy of all its nuclear DNA. Each chromosome then consists of two parallel filaments called what?
Chromatin
Sister chromatids
Base pairs
Histone groups
A

Sister chromatids

676
Q

A(n) ______ is an information-containing segment of DNA that codes for the production of a molecule of RNA, and that in most cases codes for one or more proteins.

A

gene

677
Q
A centromere holds \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ together.
proteins
kinetochores
sister chromatids
RNA
A

sister chromatids

678
Q

Which of the following are true statements about the genetic code?

a) The genetic code relates mRNA codons to protein structure.
b) Each codon in the genetic code can stand for two or more amino acids.
c) The genetic code is expressed as three-nucleotide long sequences called codons.
d) The genetic code allows 20 amino acid to be coded by only 4 different nucleotides.

A

a) The genetic code relates mRNA codons to protein structure.
c) The genetic code is expressed as three-nucleotide long sequences called codons.
d) The genetic code allows 20 amino acid to be coded by only 4 different nucleotides.

679
Q

rRNA is short for _____ RNA.

A

ribosomal

680
Q

A three-base sequence of mRNA is called a(n) ____

A

codon

681
Q

A polypeptide is made of 31 amino acids. What is the minimum number of DNA nucleotides needed to code for this number of amino acids?

A

93 base pairs

682
Q

Transcription is the process of copying genetic instructions from a molecule of _____ to mRNA.

A

DNA

683
Q

Which of the following statements about codons are true?
The genetic code is expressed as a sequence of codons.
A codon is a three-base sequence of mRNA.
Every codon codes for an amino acid.
A codon is a three-base sequence of tRNA.

A

The genetic code is expressed as a sequence of codons.

A codon is a three-base sequence of mRNA.

684
Q

Which term refers to a sequence of three DNA nucleotides that codes for one amino acid?

a) codon
b) base triplet

A

b) base triplet

685
Q
The enzyme RNA polymerase participates in which of the following processes?
Transcription
Replication
Protein folding
Alternative splicing
Translation
A

Transcription

686
Q
Where does transcription take place?
In the Golgi apparatus
On ribosomes
In the nucleus
In mitochondria
A

In the nucleus

687
Q

The process of reading an mRNA molecule and synthesizing the protein encoded in its nucleotide sequence is known as _______

A

translation

688
Q

A three-base sequence of mRNA is called a(n) ______

A

codon

689
Q

What is the role of mRNA in protein synthesis?

a) It opens the DNA helix and reads the bases from one strand of DNA.
b) It stays within the nucleus and serves as the template for transcription.
c) It binds free amino acids and delivers them to the ribosome to be added to a growing protein chain.
d) It carries the genetic code from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.

A

d) It carries the genetic code from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.

690
Q
Which enzyme is responsible for transcribing DNA?
DNA polymerase
DNA ligase
RNA polymerase
Helicase
A

RNA polymerase

691
Q

Transcription is the process of copying genetic instructions from a molecule of
_____ to mRNA.

A

DNA

692
Q

At one end of each tRNA there is a sequence of three nucleotides known as the ______. This sequence is complementary to the bases on mRNA.

A

anticodon

693
Q
Which term refers to the conversion of nucleotide sequences into amino acid sequences?
Replication
Filtration
Translation
Transcription
A

Translation

694
Q
Which molecule carries the genetic code from the nucleus to the cytoplasm?
tRNA
DNA
rRNA
mRNA
A

mRNA

695
Q

A base _____ is a consecutive sequence of three DNA nucleotides that codes for one amino acid.

A

triplet

696
Q

Translation occurs in three steps. List these steps in chronological order.

A

Initiation
Elongation
Termination

697
Q

The cluster of several ribosomes reading one mRNA during translation is called a _____

A

polyribosome

698
Q
Which of the following refers to a 3-base sequence found in tRNA?
mRNA
Anticodon
Codon
Amino Acid
A

Anticodon

699
Q
Golgi vesicles containing proteins to be released from the cell will become which type of vesicle?
Lysosome
Secretory
Endocytic
Peroxisome
A

Secretory

700
Q

The process by which a cell makes a copy of its DNA so it can give complete and identical copies of all of its genes to each daughter cell its DNA is called _______

A

replication

701
Q

One mRNA can have several ribosomes attached to it at one time during translation of mRNA. What term refers to this cluster of ribosomes?

A

Polyribosome

702
Q
When synthesized proteins are to be exported out of the cells, they are packaged into secretory vesicles that originate in what organelle?
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Golgi complex
Ribosomes
Nucleus
A

Golgi complex

703
Q

Where does translation take place?

A

On the ribosome

704
Q
Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding DNA during DNA replication?
Ligase
Transferase
Helicase
Polymerase
A

Helicase

705
Q
Which enzyme joins the newly synthesized DNA segments during DNA replication?
Transcriptase
Polymerase
Ligase
Helicase
A

Ligase

706
Q

List the phases of the cell cycle in the correct order starting with G1.

A

G1
S
G2
M

707
Q

The law of complementary base pairing states that a cell can do which of the following?

a) Reproduce one strand of DNA based on information in the other
b) Increase the number of amino acids in a protein
c) Align pairs of chromosomes at the equator of the cell during metaphase
d) Regenerate ATP from ADP

A

a) Reproduce one strand of DNA based on information in the other

708
Q
Name the period of synthesis during which a cell makes a duplicate copy of its centrioles and all of its nuclear DNA.
M phase
Telophase
S phase
G1 phase
A

S phase

709
Q

Name the correct order of the phases of mitosis from beginning to end.

A

Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

710
Q

During DNA replication, the new short segments of DNA in one of the strands are joined together by the enzyme DNA _____

A

ligase

711
Q

During the mitotic phase called ______, chromosomes condense, the nuclear envelope disappears, spindle fibers grow, and centrioles migrate to the poles of cell.

A

prophase

712
Q

During the cell cycle, the stages G1, S, and G2 make up what phase?

A

Interphase

713
Q

During metaphase, the spindle fibers form a lemon-shaped array called the _____ spindle.

A

mitotic

714
Q

Which of the following occurs during anaphase?
A) Chromosomes align along the center or equator of the cell.
B) Centrioles migrate to the poles of cell.
C) Chromosomes are gathered at the poles of the cell.
D) Daughter chromosomes migrate to opposite ends of the cell.

A

D) Daughter chromosomes migrate to opposite ends of the cell.

715
Q

Indicate which of the following events occur during prophase of mitosis. Select all that apply.
A) Chromosomes condense.
B) Centrioles are pushed apart.
C) Chromosomes migrate to opposite poles.
D) Nuclear envelope disappears.
E) Spindle fibers grow from the centrioles

A

A) Chromosomes condense.
B) Centrioles are pushed apart.
D)Nuclear envelope disappears.
E) Spindle fibers grow from the centrioles.

716
Q

The new nuclear envelopes forms, new nucleoli appear, and the mitotic spindle vanishes during which phase of mitosis?

A

Telophase

717
Q

The division of the cytoplasm to form two cells is called ______

A

cytokinesis

718
Q

The chromosomes are seen as fully aligned on the cell equator during which phase of mitosis?

A

Metaphase

719
Q

Daughter chromosomes migrate to opposite poles of the cell during which phase of mitosis?

A

Anaphase

720
Q

Select that statements that describe telophase.
A) Chromosomes align along the center of the cell.
B) Chromatids cluster on each side of the cell.
C) A nuclear envelope reappears.
D) DNA is replicated.
E) Centrioles migrate to the poles of cell.

A

B) Chromatids cluster on each side of the cell.

C) A nuclear envelope reappears.