3/20 Flashcards

1
Q

length constant

A

how far an impulse can travel down a nerve

- lower in MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

red neurons

A
  • 12-24 hours after ischemia
  • eosinophilic staining, pyknotic nuclei with fragmentation
  • cell infiltration comes after
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

time table for liquefactive necrosis after stroke

A

1-4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

flocculonodular lobe of cerebellum

A

for balance and eye movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

motor and somatosensory gyri

A

motor is in front of central sulcus, sensory is behind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

frontal eye fields

A

control horizontal eye movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

first area of brain damaged in global ischemia

A

hippocampus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

damage to Brocas area

A

trouble making words

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

damage to Wernekies area

A

troubing making sensical words (trouble with thought)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

baclofen

A

GABA-B agonist for MS

- can also use alpha 2 agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Rett syndrome

A
  • MECP2 gene

- hand movements and decceleration of head growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

atypical depression

A
  • mood reactivity, leaden paralysis, sensitivity to criticism, increased sleep and appetite
  • can treat with MAOi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

short acting benzos

A

triazolam, oxazepam and midazolam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

buprenorphine

A

partial opioid agonist with high potency used to treat opioid addiction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

digoxin clearance

A

renal, low renal function can increase toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

large eosinophilic casts in urine

A

Bence Jones protein in multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

eosinophil mix up in kidneys

A
  • eosinophils in peripheral = hypersensitivity interstitial nephritis
  • eosinophilic casts in urine = multiple myeloma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

rasburicase MOA

A

convert uric acid into more soluble products to be excreted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

minimal change disease is most similar to….

A

focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, both are the result of cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

spike and dome nephropathy

A

membranous nephropahty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

membranous always means…..

A

immune complex desposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

hypercalcemia in sarcoidosis

A

1 alpha hydroxylase activation by macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

complication of theophylline toxicity

A

seizures and tachyarrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

familial pulmonary hypertension

A

causes smooth muscle proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

gas exchange is _______ limited

A

perfusion (diffusion occurs very rapidly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

faster diffuser, CO2 or O2

A

CO2 x 20, so in diffusion defect, oxygen is much more affected

27
Q

lowest vascular resistance is at what lung volume

A

functional residual capacity

28
Q

findings in silicosis

A

eggshell calcifications and birefringent particles

29
Q

hemangiomas (fruit)

A

cherry in adults, strawberry in kids

30
Q

antiarrhythmics that cause QT prolongation

A

class IA and class III but no risk for torsades in amiodarone)

31
Q

obstruction in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

interventricular septum and mitral valve leaflet

32
Q

most important autoregulators of cardiac vessel tone

A

NO and adenosine

33
Q

severity of symptoms in tetralogy of fallot

A

due to pulmonary outflow obstruction

34
Q

foramen ovale is between what chambers

A

atria

35
Q

patent foramen ovale is due to….

A

incomplete fusion of septum primum and septum secundum

36
Q

fixed splitting is seen in what heart defect

A

ASD

37
Q

S3 is due to….

A

ventricular volume overload

38
Q

pressure in the right atrium

A

very low (same as the vena cava)

39
Q

diastolic pressure in pulmonary arteries

A

rises, due to the resistance in pulmonary capillaries and back pressure from left atrium

40
Q

carcinoid heart disease

A

excessive secretion of serotonin which stimulates fibroblast growth factors on endocardium

41
Q

type of collagen in scar after myocardial infarction

A

type I

42
Q

treatment for radioactive iodine poisoning

A

iodine, decreases radioactive uptake

43
Q

treatment for carcinoid syndrome

A

octreotide

44
Q

unique lab in spherocytosis

A

MCHC

45
Q

clinical picture in multiple myeloma

A
  • fatigability
  • constipation (hypercalcemia)
  • bone pain
  • high serum protein
  • renal failure
46
Q

direct bilirubin

A

can dissolve directly into blood

47
Q

calcium and blood transfusions

A

citrate can acts as a chelator and lower calcium

48
Q

association with reactive arthritis

A

HLA-B27

49
Q

if you see intermediolateral cell column….

A

you must be in the thoracic spine

50
Q

muscle cells vs cardiac cells depolarization

A

muscle cells are less dependent on extracellular calcium due to coupling of L type calcium channels in cell membrane to ryanodine receptors in sarcoplasmic reticulum

51
Q

Ladd’s fibrous band

A
  • connect retrperitoneum in RLQ to right colon by passing over duodenum
  • seen in midgut malrotation
52
Q

two hormones with incretin effects

A

GLP-1 and gastric inhibitory peptide

53
Q

excretion of copper

A

bound to ceruloplasmin in blood and excreted in stool and bile

54
Q

gall stone obstruction in small instestine

A

most common in ileum and cecal junction

55
Q

life threatening complication of ulcerative colitis

A

toxic megacolon

56
Q

KRAS mutation in colon cancer

A

prevents use of anti-EGFR therapy

57
Q

Gower hemoglobin

A

present in embryo, 2 zeta and 2 epsilon

58
Q

common complication of BPH

A

UTI (not cancer)

59
Q

things seen in amniotic fluid embolism

A

fetal squamous cells

60
Q

hormones in PCOS

A

high LH and high estrogen (can lead to endometrial cancer)

61
Q

PNMT

A

converts NE to Epi

62
Q

IL3

A

produced by activated T cells, stimulating growth and differentiation, bone marrow

63
Q

IPEX syndrome

A
  • defect in FOX3 on Treg cells leading to autoimmunity
64
Q

complement inhibitors

A

DAF and C1 esterase inhibitor