3/20 Flashcards

(64 cards)

1
Q

length constant

A

how far an impulse can travel down a nerve

- lower in MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

red neurons

A
  • 12-24 hours after ischemia
  • eosinophilic staining, pyknotic nuclei with fragmentation
  • cell infiltration comes after
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

time table for liquefactive necrosis after stroke

A

1-4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

flocculonodular lobe of cerebellum

A

for balance and eye movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

motor and somatosensory gyri

A

motor is in front of central sulcus, sensory is behind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

frontal eye fields

A

control horizontal eye movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

first area of brain damaged in global ischemia

A

hippocampus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

damage to Brocas area

A

trouble making words

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

damage to Wernekies area

A

troubing making sensical words (trouble with thought)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

baclofen

A

GABA-B agonist for MS

- can also use alpha 2 agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Rett syndrome

A
  • MECP2 gene

- hand movements and decceleration of head growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

atypical depression

A
  • mood reactivity, leaden paralysis, sensitivity to criticism, increased sleep and appetite
  • can treat with MAOi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

short acting benzos

A

triazolam, oxazepam and midazolam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

buprenorphine

A

partial opioid agonist with high potency used to treat opioid addiction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

digoxin clearance

A

renal, low renal function can increase toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

large eosinophilic casts in urine

A

Bence Jones protein in multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

eosinophil mix up in kidneys

A
  • eosinophils in peripheral = hypersensitivity interstitial nephritis
  • eosinophilic casts in urine = multiple myeloma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

rasburicase MOA

A

convert uric acid into more soluble products to be excreted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

minimal change disease is most similar to….

A

focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, both are the result of cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

spike and dome nephropathy

A

membranous nephropahty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

membranous always means…..

A

immune complex desposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

hypercalcemia in sarcoidosis

A

1 alpha hydroxylase activation by macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

complication of theophylline toxicity

A

seizures and tachyarrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

familial pulmonary hypertension

A

causes smooth muscle proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
gas exchange is _______ limited
perfusion (diffusion occurs very rapidly)
26
faster diffuser, CO2 or O2
CO2 x 20, so in diffusion defect, oxygen is much more affected
27
lowest vascular resistance is at what lung volume
functional residual capacity
28
findings in silicosis
eggshell calcifications and birefringent particles
29
hemangiomas (fruit)
cherry in adults, strawberry in kids
30
antiarrhythmics that cause QT prolongation
class IA and class III but no risk for torsades in amiodarone)
31
obstruction in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
interventricular septum and mitral valve leaflet
32
most important autoregulators of cardiac vessel tone
NO and adenosine
33
severity of symptoms in tetralogy of fallot
due to pulmonary outflow obstruction
34
foramen ovale is between what chambers
atria
35
patent foramen ovale is due to....
incomplete fusion of septum primum and septum secundum
36
fixed splitting is seen in what heart defect
ASD
37
S3 is due to....
ventricular volume overload
38
pressure in the right atrium
very low (same as the vena cava)
39
diastolic pressure in pulmonary arteries
rises, due to the resistance in pulmonary capillaries and back pressure from left atrium
40
carcinoid heart disease
excessive secretion of serotonin which stimulates fibroblast growth factors on endocardium
41
type of collagen in scar after myocardial infarction
type I
42
treatment for radioactive iodine poisoning
iodine, decreases radioactive uptake
43
treatment for carcinoid syndrome
octreotide
44
unique lab in spherocytosis
MCHC
45
clinical picture in multiple myeloma
- fatigability - constipation (hypercalcemia) - bone pain - high serum protein - renal failure
46
direct bilirubin
can dissolve directly into blood
47
calcium and blood transfusions
citrate can acts as a chelator and lower calcium
48
association with reactive arthritis
HLA-B27
49
if you see intermediolateral cell column....
you must be in the thoracic spine
50
muscle cells vs cardiac cells depolarization
muscle cells are less dependent on extracellular calcium due to coupling of L type calcium channels in cell membrane to ryanodine receptors in sarcoplasmic reticulum
51
Ladd's fibrous band
- connect retrperitoneum in RLQ to right colon by passing over duodenum - seen in midgut malrotation
52
two hormones with incretin effects
GLP-1 and gastric inhibitory peptide
53
excretion of copper
bound to ceruloplasmin in blood and excreted in stool and bile
54
gall stone obstruction in small instestine
most common in ileum and cecal junction
55
life threatening complication of ulcerative colitis
toxic megacolon
56
KRAS mutation in colon cancer
prevents use of anti-EGFR therapy
57
Gower hemoglobin
present in embryo, 2 zeta and 2 epsilon
58
common complication of BPH
UTI (not cancer)
59
things seen in amniotic fluid embolism
fetal squamous cells
60
hormones in PCOS
high LH and high estrogen (can lead to endometrial cancer)
61
PNMT
converts NE to Epi
62
IL3
produced by activated T cells, stimulating growth and differentiation, bone marrow
63
IPEX syndrome
- defect in FOX3 on Treg cells leading to autoimmunity
64
complement inhibitors
DAF and C1 esterase inhibitor