3/26 Flashcards

(81 cards)

1
Q

failure in hypospadias

A

fusion of urogenital folds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

failure in epispadias

A

faulty positioning of genital tubrecle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

burkholderia cepacia

A

catalase positive organism in CGD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

inhibin is released by….

A

sertoli cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

inhibin

A

released by sertoli cell and suppresses FSH via the pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

reentry circuit around tricuspid valve annulus

A

atrial flutter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

TCA cycle enzyme requiring thiamine

A

alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Call-Exner bodies

A

in granulosa cell tumors of ovary (markers are inhibin and estrogen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

most common reason for complete mole

A

duplication of sperm leading to XX (two sperm fertilization is less common XY)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

functions of CN9

A
  • stylopharyngeus muscle
  • parotid gland secretion
  • sensory of tympanic membrane, eustachian tube, posterior tongue, tonsillar region, upper pharynx (gag), carotid body/sinus
  • taste in posterior tongue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

attachment of pilus in N meningitidis

A

nasopharynx epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

treatment of copper excess

A

D-penicillamine (copper chelator)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

timeline of hyperinsulinemia in gestational diabetes

A

goes away 3-7 days after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

cast nephropathy

A

due to multiple myeloma due to protein deposits in kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ecthyma gangrenosum

A
  • associated with pseudomonas
  • bacteria release exotoxin in skin, necrosis and ulceration
  • occurs with neutropenia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

calcium labs in multiple myeloma

A
  • high calcium (bone breakdown)
  • low PTH (feedback)
  • high urine calcium (low PTH)
  • low vitamin D (kidney failure)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CSF is absorbed by…

A

arachnoid granulations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

damage to subthalamic nucleus

A

inhibition to thalamus is reduced, results in contralateral hemiballism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

bacteria in schwann cells

A

M leprae (seen in any tissue in the periphery due to cooler temps)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

reason for hematogenous spread in bacteria

A

capsule (pilus is for attachment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

median nerve goes between

A

flexor digitorum profundus and superficialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

nerve through supinator

A

radial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

main cause of damages with sorbitol

A

osmotic cell damage and oxidative stress from depelation of NADPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

two important factors in working up metabolic alkalosis

A

volume status and urine chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
granulomatous destruction of interlocular bile ducts
primary biliary cirrhosis
26
high alkaline phosphatase with history of ulcerative colitis
primary sclerosis cholangitis
27
two things best seen in TEE
left atrium and descending aorta
28
clinical findings in normal pressure hydrocephalus
magnetic gait, upper motor neuron signs, cognitive disturbances, urinary incontinence
29
reducing media
used for anaerobic bacteria
30
biliary problem associated with ulcerative colitis
primary sclerosing cholangitis
31
stones in chrons
calcium binds to undigested lipids, leading to increase in oxalate and stone formation
32
time of first hCG measurement
8 days later, during implantation
33
most common structures affected by syrngomyelia
anterior white commissure and anterior horns
34
most effective medication for cell mediated asthma process
glucocorticoid
35
major problem in prolactinoma
high prolactin, decrease in GnRH, decrease in estrogen, decrease in bone mass
36
hemochromatosis
- HFE gene (uptake into liver) | - decrease uptake into hepatocytes lead to increased absorption and increase serum levels
37
why does hep D need hep B
requires coating with surface antigen (HBsAg)
38
causes of candida in vagina
loss of normal bacteria - antibiotics - high estrogen - corticosteroid - diabetes - immunosuppression
39
major reason for pyelonephritis
vesicoureteral urine reflux
40
reactions for biotin
- pyruvate carboxylase (gluconeogenesis) - acetyl CoA carboxylase (FA synthesis) - propionyl-CoA carboxylase (FA oxidation)
41
too many egg whites
biotin deficiency
42
microscopic changes in glioblastoma
- pseudopalisading necrosis (necrosis surrounded by tumor cells) - new vessel formation - giant cells and mitoses
43
NO is produced from....
arginine
44
relationship between creatinine and GFR
creatinine only starts to go up at very low GFRs
45
obstructive jaundice with palpable, nontender gallbladder
Courvoisier sign (indicative of pancreatic adenocarcinoma)
46
risk factors for pancreatic adenocarcinoma
- smoking (most important) - chronic pancreatitis - diabetes - old age - Jewish and African Americans
47
histology in CMV
intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions with halo around nucleus (owls eye)
48
penicillin/cephalosporin type of molecule
transpeptidase (vancomycin binds to cell wall glycoproteins)
49
mechanism of resistance in cephalosporins
structural changes in PBPs (remember these drugs are not sensitive to beta lactamases)
50
PD-1
programmed death receptor | - on T cells, works to downregulate immune response (blocking it allows T cells to fight cancer)
51
rapid correction of hyponatremia
osmotic demyelination syndrome (central pontine myelinolysis)
52
rapid correction of hypernatremia
cerebral edema
53
blister disease involving lips
pemphigus vulgaris
54
shortest acting sulfonurea
glipizide (zipping around)
55
timing of free wall rupture in MI
5-14 days, leads to tamponade and profound shock
56
thing most likely in first couple days after MI
ventricular arrythmias
57
treatment for treatment-resistant schizophrenia
clozapine
58
difference between HUS/TTP and DIC
HUS/TTP does not activate clotting cascade so the clotting cascade labs are normal
59
HUS/TTP is due to....
microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
60
diphenoxylate
opioid agonist that slows intestinal digestions (dolphins from sketchy)
61
porcelain gallbladder
due to chronic cholecystitis | - risk factor to adenocarcinoma of the gallbladder
62
size of colon in hirshprung disease
dilated proximal, contracted in problem location
63
location of biopsy in Hirshprung
submucosa of narrow part
64
mid positioned and fixed pupils
uncal herniation damaging pons and midbrain (also loss of vestibulo-ocular reflexes)
65
decerebrate posture
- extensors dominate | - lesion is below red nucleus so the vestibulospinal tract and extensors dominate
66
decorticate posture
- flexors dominate | - lesion is between cerebral cortex and red nucleus, rubrospinal and flexor predominate
67
two bones that abut the arm bones
scaphoid (more likely to fracture) and lunate (more likely to dislocate)
68
two main angiogenic factors
VEGF and FGF (and maybe TGF-beta)
69
medically intractable parkinson's treatment
brain stimulation of globus pallidus internus or subthalamic nucleus
70
frontal lobe lesions
``` left = apathy and depression right = disinhibited behavior ```
71
location of serotonergic neurons in brain
raphe nucleus in the brainstem
72
locus ceruleus
norepinephrine neurons in dorsal pons (involved in fight or flight)
73
nucleus basalis
cholinergic neurons (deficient in Alzheimer's)
74
red nucleus
anterior midbrain, motor coordination of upper extremities
75
cell disrupted in silicosis
macrophage (can lead to TB)
76
secondary TB
usually located in upper lobes
77
livedo reticularis with normal peripheral pulse
sign of embolism
78
cholesterol clefts in arterial lumen
embolus
79
factor disposing to duodenal obstruction by SMA
fast weight loss (diminished mesenteric fat)
80
wall tension and afterload
increase in pressure leads to increase in afterload and increase in wall tension - wall stress is decreased with a compensatory hypertrophy
81
severity of mitral valve
more severe if opening snap is closer to S2