Cancer Flashcards Preview

Illness and Patho 1 > Cancer > Flashcards

Flashcards in Cancer Deck (254):
1

Not harmful

Benign

2

To become progressively worse and to potentially result in death

Malignant

3

The process of programmed cell death that may occur in multicellular organisms

Apoptosis

4

Cells with an exact multiple of the haploid number

Euploidy

5

Two cells whose membranes join tightly together, forming a virtually impermeable barrier to fluid

Tight Adherence

6

What is the protein that allows for the binding in cells with tight adherence?

Fibrinectin

7

Ratio of the size of the nucleus to the size of the cytoplasm of the cell

Nuclear-Cytoplasmic Size

8

Loose binding of a cell to the surface or substrate

Loose adherence

9

A relationship that the chromosome number is not an exact multiple of the cardinal characteristic of a particular plant or animal species

Aneuploidy

10

The creation of cancer

Carcinogenesis

11

Process by which normal cells are transformed into cancer cells

Oncogenesis

12

A process by which normal cells are changed so that they are able to form tumors

Initiation

13

A process by which various factors permit the descendants of a single initiated cell to survive and expand in number

Promotion

14

The number of sets of chromosomes in the nucleus of a cell

Ploidy

15

The point in chemotherapy when blood count cells are at their lowest after a treatment

Nadir

16

What are the top three cancers diagnosed for women?

Breast, lung and bronchus, and colon and rectum

17

What are the top three cancers diagnosed for men?

Prostate, lung and bronchus, and colon and rectum

18

Which cancer diagnosis is the leading cause of cancer death?

Lung and bronchus

19

Genetic portion of DNA that regulates normal cell growth and repairs mutations, allowing cells to proliferate beyond the body's needs

Proto-oncogene

20

Genetic portion of DNA that stops, inhibits, or suppresses cell division

Tumor Suppression Gene

21

Abnormal mutated genes responsible for transformation of normal cells to cancer cells

Oncogene

22

What are the most common cancers?

Basal and squamous cell cancers of the skin

23

What are the characteristics of a cancer cell?

Abnormal cell structure and proliferation, uncontrolled growth, ability to spread, ability to invade normal tissue, immortality, accelerated by the use of nutrients, and angiogenesis

24

What are the cellular division characteristics of a malignant cell?

Rapid or continuous

25

What is the appearance of a malignant cell?

Anaplastic

26

What is the nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio of a malignant cell?

Large

27

How many differentiated functions does a malignant cell have?

Some or none

28

What is the cellular adherence of a malignant cell?

Loose

29

What are the migratory characteristics of a malignant cell?

They migrate and invade other cells

30

How do malignant cells grow?

By invading other cells

31

What are the chromosomal characteristics of malignant cells?

Aneuploidy

32

What is the mitotic index of a malignant cell?

High

33

Why can malignant cells grow so quickly?

Because they are not density dependent and have no contact inhibition

34

Why are malignant cells able to metastasis?

Because the adhesion between cancer cells is poor and easily dislodged

35

Lots and lots of extra cells

Hyperplasia

36

Increased size of cells already present in the body

Hypertrophy

37

When are benign tumors bad?

When it causes pressure in an enclosed space like the brain

38

How are malignant cells able to invade normal tissue?

They secrete cell-dissolving enzymes

39

How do malignant cells undergo angiogenesis?

They secrete angiogenesis factors, which promotes the building of new capillaries to support and supply the tumor

40

Where do adeno- tumors originate?

Epithelial glands

41

Where do chondro- tumors originate?

Cartilage tissue

42

Where do fibro- tumors originate?

Fibrous connective tissue

43

Where do glio- tumors originate?

The glial cells of the brain

44

Where do hemangio- tumors originate?

Blood vessels

45

Where do hepato- tumors originate?

Liver cells

46

Where do leiomyo- tumors originate?

Smooth muscles

47

Where do lipo- tumors originate?

Fat/Adipose

48

Where do lympho- tumors originate?

Lymphoid tissues

49

Where do melano- tumors originate?

In the pigment-producing skin

50

Where do meningioma tumors originate?

Meninges

51

Where do neuro- tumors originate?

Nerve tissue

52

Where do osteo- tumors originate?

Bones

53

Where do renal tumors originate?

Kidneys

54

Where do rhabdo- tumors originate?

Skeletal muscles

55

Where do squamous tumors originate?

The epithelial layer of the skin, mucous membranes, and organ linings

56

Why is grading necessary?

Because some cancer cells are more malignant than others and require different treatments

57

What are the gradings of malignant cells based on?

Cell appearance and activity

58

Determines the exact location of the cancer and its degree of metastasis at diagnosis

Staging

59

What is the staging system?

TNM

60

What does TNM stand for?

Primary tumor, Regional lymph nodes, and distant metastasis

61

What are the steps in carcinogenesis?

Initiation, promotion, and progression

62

Increasing genetic instability/mutations occur which provides tumor cells with growth advantage

Progression

63

In which phase of carcinogenesis are carcinogens introduced, causing cancer?

Promotion

64

Name the six causes of cancer

Radiation, exposure to chemical carcinogens, virus, genetics, failure of immune surveillance, and stress

65

How does radiation cause cancer?

Cellular DNA is damaged by a physical release of energy

66

Which viruses can cause cancer?

HIV, H Pylori, and HPV

67

How do viruses cause cancer?

They infect DNA and RNA which results in oncogene formation and interferes with cell cycle regulation and apoptosis

68

What areas are susceptible to genetic tumors?

FAP, breast, renal cells and Wilms

69

What are the theories of the causation of pathophysiology of cancer?

Proto-oncogene, oncogenes, ras-proto-oncogenes, and tumor suppression genes

70

Substances which, when normally functioning, promote cellular growth but when they aren't, can allow cells to proliferate unrestrained

Ras-proto-oncogenes

71

Genetic portion of DNA that stops, inhibits, or suppresses cell division

Tumor suppression genes

72

Normally a tumor suppressor which functions to stop proliferation allowing damaged DNA to repair

P53

73

A differentiation of cancer cells leads to what?

Maturation

74

A proliferation of cancer cells leads to what?

Divison

75

What tests are done to stage tumors?

Biopsies, blood tests, X-Rays, CT scans, PET scans, MRIs, nuclear medicine, bone marrows, and flow cytometry

76

How do PET scans help in diagnosing cancer?

By injecting a glucose dye which tumor cells do not use efficiently it evaluates isotope uptake and decay

77

Which is more accurate, a MRI or CT?

MRI

78

Study of chromosomes

Cytogenetics

79

What does a Grade 1 tumor mean?

Tumor is well-differentiated and confined to the organ of origin

80

If a patient has a Grade 1 tumor, what is their rate of survival?

70-90%

81

What is a Grade 2 tumor?

Tumor is moderately differentiated with local spread and close nodal involvement

82

If a patient has a Grade 2 tumor, what is their rate of survival?

45-55%

83

What is a Grade 3 tumor?

Tumor is poorly differentiated with extensive nodal involvement

84

If a patient has a Grade 3 tumor, what is their rate of survival?

25%

85

What is a Grade 4 tumor?

Tumor is undifferentiated and has metastasized to other organs and tissues

86

If a patient has a Grade 4 tumor, what is their rate of survival?

<5%

87

In the anatomic classification of tumors, what is the tumor identified by?

The tissue of origin, the anatomic site, and the behavior of the tumor

88

What are the only two reasons normal cells divide?

To develop normal tissue or to replace lost or damaged normal tissue

89

How do benign tumors grow?

Expansion

90

How do malignant tumors grow?

Invasion

91

How do cancers generally metastasize?

Through the blood or lymph nodes

92

What does grading classify tumors by?

Cellular aspects of cancer

93

What does staging classify tumors by?

Clinical aspects of cancer

94

What does the TNM system describe?

The general anatomic extent of the cancer

95

How is tumor growth assessed?

Doubling time and the mitotic index

96

The percentage of actively diving cells within a tumor

Mitotic index

97

What are the goals of cancer treatment?

Cure, control, and palliative

98

Creation of own blood supply

Angiogenesis

99

What is the oldest form of cancer treatment?

Surgery

100

What is the purpose of radiation therapy for cancer?

To destroy cancer cells with minimal damaging effects of surrounding normal cells

101

Radiation therapy that is administer at a distance from the body

Teletherapy

102

A procedure that involves placing radioactive material inside the body to treat cancer

Brachytherapy

103

Amount of radiation delivered to tissue

Exposure

104

Amount of radiation absorbed by tissue

Dose

105

What are the side effects of radiation treatment for cancer?

Local skin changes and hair loss, altered taste, fatigue, and tissue fibrosis and scarring

106

What causes the fatigue seen in radiation treatment for cancer?

Increased energy demands

107

What causes the tissue fibrosis and scarring seen in radiation treatment for cancer?

Inflammatory response

108

What is the nursing care for patients undergoing radiation for treatment of cancer?

Teach accurately and objectively, do not remove markings, administer skin care, avoid direct sunlight, and prevent bone fractures

109

Why is radiation therapy an effective treatment for cancer?

It causes a decreased cellular production

110

When administering radiation, besides the skin what else can be affected?

The underlying tissues and structures

111

Xerostomia

Dry mouth

112

Treatment of cancer with chemical agents

Chemotherapy

113

What kinds of cells does chemotherapy most affect?

Fast growing cells

114

What is the goal of chemotherapy?

To reduce the number of cancer cells to that which the immune system can take care of

115

How is chemotherapy classified?

By the pharmacological action of effect on cellular reproduction

116

Cancer drugs that cross link DNA, making the two DNA stands bind tightly together, preventing proper DNA an RNA synthesis, thus inhibition cell division

Alkylating Agents

117

Cancer drugs that damage the cell's DNA and interrupts DNA or RNA synthesis

Antitumor Antibiotics

118

Cancer drugs causing cells to become unable to complete mitosis during cell division

Antimitotic Agnets

119

Cancer drug in which "counterfeit" metabolites fool cancer cells, interfering with cell division

Antimetabolite agents

120

Cancer drugs that disrupt an enzyme needed for DNA synthesis and cell division by nicking and straightening the DNA helix, preventing proper DNA maintenance and causing DNA breakage and cell death

Topoisomerase Inhibitors

121

Giving more than one specific anticancer drug in a timed manner

Combination Chemotherapy

122

In what ways can chemotherapy drugs be administered?

IV, PO, SQ, IM, intra-arterial, intra-hepatic, intrathecal, intraventricular, intraperitoneal, intrapleural, and intravesicular

123

What PPE should be worn while administering chemotherapy?

Eye protection, masks, chemo gloves and gown

124

How long does extreme caution need to be taking in handling the excrement of a patient after receiving chemotherapy?

48 hours

125

What is the number one priority for a patient receiving chemotherapy?

Reduce the risk of infection

126

Why is the risk of infection so high in patients receiving chemotherapy?

Because their bone marrow is suppressed

127

How can mucositis be avoided?

Magic Swizzle

128

What kind of changes in cognition do patients receiving chemotherapy undergo?

Short term memory impairment

129

What are the types of targeted therapies for cancer?

Hormonal therapy, biotherapy, immunotherapy, monoclonal antibodies, radio-immunotherapy, anti-angiogenesis, and cellular therapy

130

The manipulation of external events indicating to cells that mitosis is needed in an effort to slow cancer growth

Targeted Therapy

131

How does hormone manipulation therapy work to treat cancer?

Some hormones make hormone sensitive tumors grow rapidly, so decreasing these hormone amounts slows cancer growth

132

Selective destruction of cancer cells via chemical reaction trigged by different types of laser light

Photodynamic Therapy

133

What do patients receiving photodynamic therapy for cancer treatment need to be taught?

They will have general sensitivity to light for up to 12 weeks after the injection of the drug

134

Modification of the patient's biological response to tumor cells

Immunotherapy

135

What are used in immunotherapy for cancer treatment?

Cytokines, interleukins, and interferons

136

What are the side effects of immunotherapy?

Severe inflammatory reactions, peripheral neuropathy, and skin rashes

137

What are the side effects of tyrosine kinase inhibitors?

Fluid retention, electrolyte imbalances, and bone marrow suppression

138

Cancer drug that blocks epidermal growth factor from binding to a cell surface receptor

Epidermal Growth Factor/Receptor Inhibitor

139

Name an epidermal growth factor/receptor inhibitor

Herceptin

140

Cancer drug that binds to vascular endothelial growth factor, preventing the binding of VEGF with its receptors on the surfaces of endothelial cells present in blood vessels

Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor/Receptor Inhibitors

141

Cancer drug that inhibits the activity of specific kinases in cancer cells and tumor blood vessels

Multikinase Inhibitors

142

Cancer drug that prevents the formation of a large complex of proteins into cells

Proteasome Inhibitors

143

Cancer drug that binds to target antigens to prevent proteins from functioning, thus preventing cell division

Monoclonal Antibodies

144

If a patient is going to be given a monoclonal antibody, what do they need to be pretreated with?

Benadryl and possibly a steroid

145

What is the symptom of a monoclonal antibody?

Flushing

146

How is an autologous bone marrow transplant administered?

As a rescue treatment

147

What is the goal of a bone marrow transplant?

Empty the marrow and replace it

148

Damage to stem cells in bone marrow by chemo and radiation

Myelosuppression

149

What grows in the bone marrow of patients with myelosuppression?

Solid tumors metastasized from hematological malignancies

150

What are the types of myelosuppression?

Neutropenia, anemia, and thrombocytopenia

151

What are the manifestations of neutropenia caused by myelosuppression?

Fever >100.4, cough, SOB, skin redness or tenderness, urinary symptoms, and sepsis

152

How are patients with neutropenia caused by myelosuppression treated?

Massive amounts of fluids

153

Where would the skin of a patient with neutropenia caused by myelosuppression be red?

Around the mouth, perianal, and rectal areas

154

What is the most reliable indicator of a patient's ability to resist infection?

Absolute Neutrophil Count

155

What is the normal WBC?

5,000-10,000

156

What is the normal percentage of neutrophils in the WBC?

35-80%

157

What needs to be done to prevent infection of patients with neutropenia caused by myelosuppression?

No fresh fruits or veggies, no live plants or potting soil, no live vaccines, no exposure to pet excreta, strict hand washing and personal hygiene, mouth care at least 4 times daily, no invasive procedures, and the prevention of constipation and pressure sores

158

How often do patients with neutropenia caused by myelosuppression need to take their temperature?

At least twice a day

159

Bleeding with no clotting due to a decrease in the number of platelets

Thrombocytopenia

160

What is the normal platelet count?

150,000-300,000

161

What kind of diet should a patient with thrombocytopenia caused by myelosuppression be on?

High fiber, high fluid

162

What does the systolic blood pressure of patient with thrombocytopenia caused by myelosuppression be kept at?

<140 mmHg

163

Decreased red blood cells

Anemia

164

What are the normal red blood cell values?

4.5-5.5 million

165

What is the normal hemoglobin?

12-18

166

What is the normal hematocrit?

37-52

167

How is anemia managed?

Rest, slow position changes, oxygen, iron, transfusions and growth factors

168

What are the risk factors for anemia?

Chemotherapy, kidney damage, tumor infiltration of bone marrow, bleeding, hemorrhage, and age

169

Which type of chemotherapy drugs especially put that patient at risk for anemia?

Platinum based treatments

170

What are the risk factors for thrombocytopenia?

Chemotherapy, radiation, and medications

171

What are the risk factors for neutropenia?

Age, decreased renal and liver function, poor nutrition, medications, and chemotherapy

172

Glycosylated proteins that function to regulate the reproduction, mutation, and function of blood cells

Hematopoietic Growth Factors

173

Muscle or general wasting that does not improve or go away with eating

Cachexia

174

What are the signs of cachexia?

Decreased threshold for bitter, increased threshold for sweet, increased desire for salts, decreased desire for sours, and metallic taste

175

What should a patient with cachexia be eating?

High protein foods

176

How many cancer patients experience nausea and vomiting?

60%

177

How is the cycle of malnutrition stopped?

Only by treating the tumor

178

How many cancer patients experience diarrhea?

90%

179

Which chemotherapy drug causes diarrhea?

Antimetabolites

180

Why does chemotherapy cause diarrhea?

Chemotherapy affects cells with rapid turnover in the vili and microvilli of the GI tract

181

How many cancer patients experience constipation?

40%

182

How many cancer patients develop mouth soars?

80%

183

What do the mouth soars cancer patients experience cause?

Mucositis, esophagitis, and stomatitis

184

How can the mouth soars associated with chemotherapy drugs be treated?

NSS mouth rinses with 0.5 tsp salt and 8 oz of water

185

What skin reactions can be associated with cancer patients?

Hypersensitivity, hyper-pigmentation, photo sensitivity, radiation recall, ulceration, and palmar-plantal erythrodysestheses

186

What is the most common and distressing symptom of cancer patients?

Fatigue

187

Why do patients with cancer often experience fatigue?

Biochemical imbalances, deconditioning, stress, poor sleep quality, nutrition, altered sleep patterns, depression, or anxiety

188

What are the metabolic oncological emergencies?

Hypercalcemia, sepsis, tumor lysis syndrome, disseminated vascular syndrome, and SIADH

189

What are the structural oncological emergencies?

Spinal cord compression, Superior Vena Cava syndrome, pleural effusion, pericardial effusion, and increased ICP

190

How does spinal cord compression occur in caner patients?

The tumor encroaches on the cord or the caudal equine or the vertebrae collapse from bone degradation

191

What is the sign of spinal cord compression in cancer patients?

Severe back pain

192

What are the signs of Superior Vena Cava syndrome?

SOB, cough, hoarseness, facial and upper body swelling, headache, epistaxis, dizziness, erythema, Stoke's sign, and visual changes

193

Superior Vena Cava is compressed or obstructed by tumor growth

Superior Vena Cava Syndrome

194

What are the signs of a pleural effusion in cancer patients?

SOB, coughing, dull, sharp, or aching pain in chest, and accumulation of fluid in the pleural space

195

How is the pain associated with a pericardial effusion different from that of a pleural effusion?

It is relieved by sitting up

196

What are the signs of a pericardial effusion in cancer patients?

Epigastric or chest pain, weakness, SOB, dysphagia, edema in the legs, and N/V

197

What are the signs of increased ICP in cancer patients?

Change in LOC, drowsiness, lethargy, MS changes, speech changes, vision changes, memory loss, personality changes, and headache

198

What are the signs of hypercalcemia in a cancer patient?

Nausea, vomiting loss of appetite, constipation and abdominal pain, extreme fatigue or muscle weakness, bone pain, increased thrust or excessive urination, sleepiness and difficulty thinking or concentrating

199

What is the hallmark of hypercalcemia?

Constipation and abdominal pain

200

What are the signs of sepsis in a cancer patient?

Fever, chills, shakes, SOB, drop in BP, decreased urination

201

What are the signs of tumor lysis syndrome?

Weakness, muscle cramps, twitching, nausea, diarrhea, decreased urine, edema, dizziness, and decreased blood pressure

202

Breakdown of tumors in cancer patients cause the release of harmful products into the blood

Tumor Lysis Syndrome

203

What are the signs of Disseminated Intra-Vascular Coagulation in a cancer patient?

Bleeding, SOB, increased HR and abdominal tenderness

204

What are the signs of SIADH in a cancer patient?

Thirst, headache, muscle cramps, tiredness, nausea and vomiting, weight gain, confusion and seizures

205

What does advanced care planning for cancer patients have to take into account?

Current health status, values and goals, and the patient's priorities

206

Hospice for patients with suspected imminent death (1-3 days)

Virtual Inpatient Hospice

207

Hospice for patients with suspected imminent death (7-10 days) with the goals of transition and pain and symptom management

Inpatient Hospice

208

Hospice for patients with less than 6 months to live

Outpatient Hospice

209

What drugs are given with chemotherapy to protect normal tissue?

Cytoprotectants

210

When giving chemotherapy, how often does the venous access device need to be assessed?

Every 30-60 minutes

211

Which cancer most commonly causes SIADH?

Carcinoma of the lung

212

When does hypercalcemia occur in cancer patients?

When there is bone metastasis

213

When is chemotherapy administered in adjunct therapy?

After surgery to shrink anything missed

214

When is chemotherapy administered in neo-adjunct therapy?

Before surgery to shrink the tumor to an operable size

215

What is the goal of palliative surgery?

Relief of symptoms to to improve quality of life

216

What intervention is most helpful for a patient with mucositis?

Providing oral care with a disposable mouth swab

217

What is the nursing priority for a client experiencing chemotherapy-indueed peripheral neuropathy?

Risk for injury related to sensory and motor deficits

218

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving riuximab (Rituxan) for treatment of lymphoma. It is essential for the nurse to observe for what side effect?

Allergic Reaction

219

What intervention will be most helpful in preventing disseminated intravascular coagulation?

Using strict aseptic technique to prevent infection

220

The nurse anticipates administering what medication to treat hyperuricemia associated with tumor lysis syndrome?

Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

221

What finding would alarm the nurse when caring for a client receiving chemotherapy who has a platelet count of 17,000?

Change in mental status

222

What teaching is most appropriate for a client with chemotherapy-induced neuropathy?

Consume a diet high in fiber

223

Which medication does the nurse plan to administer to a client before chemotherapy to decrease the incidence of nausea?

Ondansetron (Zofran)

224

The outpatient client is receiving photodynamic therapy. What environmental factor is a priority for the client to adjust for protection?

Reducing all direct and indirect sources of light

225

A client diagnosed with widespread lung cancer asks the nurse why he must be careful to avoid crowds and people who are ill. What is the nurse's best response?

When lung cancer is in the bones, it can prevent production of immune system cells, making you less resistant to infection

226

What prevention is most important for the nurse to teach to a client receiving radiation therapy for head a neck cancer?

See you dentist twice yearly for the rest of your life

227

A client receiving high-does chemotherapy who has bone marrow suppression has been receiving daily injections of epoetin alfa (Procrit). Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that today's dose should be held and the health care provider notified?

Blood pressure change from 130/90 to 148/98

228

Which action is most important for the nurse to implement to prevent nausea and vomiting in a client who is prescribed to receive the first round of IV chemotherapy?

Administer antiemetic drugs before administering chemotherapy

229

A client being treated for advanced breast cancer with chemotherapy reports that she must be allergic to one of her drugs because her entire face is swollen. What assessment does the nurse preform?

Examine the client's neck and chest for edema and engorged veins

230

A 72-year-old client recovering from lung cancer surgery asks the nurse to how she developed cancer when she had never smoked. What is a possible cause?

Advancing age

231

The nurse reviews the chart of the client admitted with a diagnosis of glioblastoma with a T1NXM0 classification. What does that terminology mean?

The brain tumor measures about 1 to 2 cm and shows no regional lymph nodes and no distant metastasis

232

The client has a diagnosis of lung cancer. To which areas does the nurse anticipate that this client's tumor may metastasize?

Brain, bone, lymph nodes, and liver

233

The nurse is conducting a community health education class on diet and cancer risk reduction. What should she include?

Avoid beed and processed meats, increase consumption of whole grains, and eat "colorful fruits and vegetables," including greens

234

The nurse presents a cancer prevention program to teens. What will have the greatest impact in cancer prevention?

Do not smoke cigarettes

235

The Epstein-Barr virus causes which malignancies?

Burkitt's lymphoma, B-cell lymphoma, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma

236

The Hepatitis B virus cause which malignancy?

Primary liver carcinoma

237

The Hepatitis C virus causes which malignancies?

Primary liver carcinoma and possibly B-cell lymphomas

238

The Human Papilloma Virus causes which malignancies?

Cervical carcinoma, vulvar carcinoma, and other anogenital carcinomas

239

The Human Lymphotrophic Virus type 1 causes which malignancy?

Adult T-cell leukemia

240

The Human Lymphotrophic Virus type 2 causes which malignancy?

Hairy cell leukemia

241

Which cancers are inherited?

Breast, prostate, and ovarian

242

Which cancers have familial clustering?

Breast and melanoma

243

Which cancer is associated with Bloom syndrome?

Leukemia

244

Which cancer is associated with familial polyposis?

Colorectal

245

Which cancer are associated with chromosomal aberrations like Down syndrome?

Leukemia

246

Which cancer is associated with Klinefelter syndrome?

Breast Cancer

247

Which cancers are associated with Turner's syndrome?

Leukemia, gonadal carcinoma, meningioma, and colorectal cancer

248

What are the warning signs of cancer?

Persistent constipation, scab present for 6 months, and axillary swelling

249

The nurse is assessing a client with lung cancer. Which symptom does the nurse anticipate finding?

Dyspnea

250

A 52-year-old client relates to the nurse that she has never had a mammogram because she is terrified that she will have cancer. Which response by the nurse is therapeutic?

Finding a cancer in the early stages increases the change for a cure

251

Which information must the organ transplant nurse emphasize before each client is discharged?

Taking immune suppressant medications increases your risk for cancer and the ned for screenings

252

A client who is scheduled to undergo radiation for prostate cancer is admitted to the hospital. Which statement by the client is most important to communicate to the physician?

My legs and numb and weak

253

What do insulin and estrogen do to the process of malignant transformation?

Insulin and estrogen enhance the division of an initiated cell during the promotion phase

254

Occurs when IV drugs leak into the surrounding tissue

Extravasation or infiltration