Cancer Flashcards
(254 cards)
1
Q
Not harmful
A
Benign
2
Q
To become progressively worse and to potentially result in death
A
Malignant
3
Q
The process of programmed cell death that may occur in multicellular organisms
A
Apoptosis
4
Q
Cells with an exact multiple of the haploid number
A
Euploidy
5
Q
Two cells whose membranes join tightly together, forming a virtually impermeable barrier to fluid
A
Tight Adherence
6
Q
What is the protein that allows for the binding in cells with tight adherence?
A
Fibrinectin
7
Q
Ratio of the size of the nucleus to the size of the cytoplasm of the cell
A
Nuclear-Cytoplasmic Size
8
Q
Loose binding of a cell to the surface or substrate
A
Loose adherence
9
Q
A relationship that the chromosome number is not an exact multiple of the cardinal characteristic of a particular plant or animal species
A
Aneuploidy
10
Q
The creation of cancer
A
Carcinogenesis
11
Q
Process by which normal cells are transformed into cancer cells
A
Oncogenesis
12
Q
A process by which normal cells are changed so that they are able to form tumors
A
Initiation
13
Q
A process by which various factors permit the descendants of a single initiated cell to survive and expand in number
A
Promotion
14
Q
The number of sets of chromosomes in the nucleus of a cell
A
Ploidy
15
Q
The point in chemotherapy when blood count cells are at their lowest after a treatment
A
Nadir
16
Q
What are the top three cancers diagnosed for women?
A
Breast, lung and bronchus, and colon and rectum
17
Q
What are the top three cancers diagnosed for men?
A
Prostate, lung and bronchus, and colon and rectum
18
Q
Which cancer diagnosis is the leading cause of cancer death?
A
Lung and bronchus
19
Q
Genetic portion of DNA that regulates normal cell growth and repairs mutations, allowing cells to proliferate beyond the body’s needs
A
Proto-oncogene
20
Q
Genetic portion of DNA that stops, inhibits, or suppresses cell division
A
Tumor Suppression Gene
21
Q
Abnormal mutated genes responsible for transformation of normal cells to cancer cells
A
Oncogene
22
Q
What are the most common cancers?
A
Basal and squamous cell cancers of the skin
23
Q
What are the characteristics of a cancer cell?
A
Abnormal cell structure and proliferation, uncontrolled growth, ability to spread, ability to invade normal tissue, immortality, accelerated by the use of nutrients, and angiogenesis
24
Q
What are the cellular division characteristics of a malignant cell?
A
Rapid or continuous
25
What is the appearance of a malignant cell?
Anaplastic
26
What is the nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio of a malignant cell?
Large
27
How many differentiated functions does a malignant cell have?
Some or none
28
What is the cellular adherence of a malignant cell?
Loose
29
What are the migratory characteristics of a malignant cell?
They migrate and invade other cells
30
How do malignant cells grow?
By invading other cells
31
What are the chromosomal characteristics of malignant cells?
Aneuploidy
32
What is the mitotic index of a malignant cell?
High
33
Why can malignant cells grow so quickly?
Because they are not density dependent and have no contact inhibition
34
Why are malignant cells able to metastasis?
Because the adhesion between cancer cells is poor and easily dislodged
35
Lots and lots of extra cells
Hyperplasia
36
Increased size of cells already present in the body
Hypertrophy
37
When are benign tumors bad?
When it causes pressure in an enclosed space like the brain
38
How are malignant cells able to invade normal tissue?
They secrete cell-dissolving enzymes
39
How do malignant cells undergo angiogenesis?
They secrete angiogenesis factors, which promotes the building of new capillaries to support and supply the tumor
40
Where do adeno- tumors originate?
Epithelial glands
41
Where do chondro- tumors originate?
Cartilage tissue
42
Where do fibro- tumors originate?
Fibrous connective tissue
43
Where do glio- tumors originate?
The glial cells of the brain
44
Where do hemangio- tumors originate?
Blood vessels
45
Where do hepato- tumors originate?
Liver cells
46
Where do leiomyo- tumors originate?
Smooth muscles
47
Where do lipo- tumors originate?
Fat/Adipose
48
Where do lympho- tumors originate?
Lymphoid tissues
49
Where do melano- tumors originate?
In the pigment-producing skin
50
Where do meningioma tumors originate?
Meninges
51
Where do neuro- tumors originate?
Nerve tissue
52
Where do osteo- tumors originate?
Bones
53
Where do renal tumors originate?
Kidneys
54
Where do rhabdo- tumors originate?
Skeletal muscles
55
Where do squamous tumors originate?
The epithelial layer of the skin, mucous membranes, and organ linings
56
Why is grading necessary?
Because some cancer cells are more malignant than others and require different treatments
57
What are the gradings of malignant cells based on?
Cell appearance and activity
58
Determines the exact location of the cancer and its degree of metastasis at diagnosis
Staging
59
What is the staging system?
TNM
60
What does TNM stand for?
Primary tumor, Regional lymph nodes, and distant metastasis
61
What are the steps in carcinogenesis?
Initiation, promotion, and progression
62
Increasing genetic instability/mutations occur which provides tumor cells with growth advantage
Progression
63
In which phase of carcinogenesis are carcinogens introduced, causing cancer?
Promotion
64
Name the six causes of cancer
Radiation, exposure to chemical carcinogens, virus, genetics, failure of immune surveillance, and stress
65
How does radiation cause cancer?
Cellular DNA is damaged by a physical release of energy
66
Which viruses can cause cancer?
HIV, H Pylori, and HPV
67
How do viruses cause cancer?
They infect DNA and RNA which results in oncogene formation and interferes with cell cycle regulation and apoptosis
68
What areas are susceptible to genetic tumors?
FAP, breast, renal cells and Wilms
69
What are the theories of the causation of pathophysiology of cancer?
Proto-oncogene, oncogenes, ras-proto-oncogenes, and tumor suppression genes
70
Substances which, when normally functioning, promote cellular growth but when they aren't, can allow cells to proliferate unrestrained
Ras-proto-oncogenes
71
Genetic portion of DNA that stops, inhibits, or suppresses cell division
Tumor suppression genes
72
Normally a tumor suppressor which functions to stop proliferation allowing damaged DNA to repair
P53
73
A differentiation of cancer cells leads to what?
Maturation
74
A proliferation of cancer cells leads to what?
Divison
75
What tests are done to stage tumors?
Biopsies, blood tests, X-Rays, CT scans, PET scans, MRIs, nuclear medicine, bone marrows, and flow cytometry
76
How do PET scans help in diagnosing cancer?
By injecting a glucose dye which tumor cells do not use efficiently it evaluates isotope uptake and decay
77
Which is more accurate, a MRI or CT?
MRI
78
Study of chromosomes
Cytogenetics
79
What does a Grade 1 tumor mean?
Tumor is well-differentiated and confined to the organ of origin
80
If a patient has a Grade 1 tumor, what is their rate of survival?
70-90%
81
What is a Grade 2 tumor?
Tumor is moderately differentiated with local spread and close nodal involvement
82
If a patient has a Grade 2 tumor, what is their rate of survival?
45-55%
83
What is a Grade 3 tumor?
Tumor is poorly differentiated with extensive nodal involvement
84
If a patient has a Grade 3 tumor, what is their rate of survival?
25%
85
What is a Grade 4 tumor?
Tumor is undifferentiated and has metastasized to other organs and tissues
86
If a patient has a Grade 4 tumor, what is their rate of survival?
<5%
87
In the anatomic classification of tumors, what is the tumor identified by?
The tissue of origin, the anatomic site, and the behavior of the tumor
88
What are the only two reasons normal cells divide?
To develop normal tissue or to replace lost or damaged normal tissue
89
How do benign tumors grow?
Expansion
90
How do malignant tumors grow?
Invasion
91
How do cancers generally metastasize?
Through the blood or lymph nodes
92
What does grading classify tumors by?
Cellular aspects of cancer
93
What does staging classify tumors by?
Clinical aspects of cancer
94
What does the TNM system describe?
The general anatomic extent of the cancer
95
How is tumor growth assessed?
Doubling time and the mitotic index
96
The percentage of actively diving cells within a tumor
Mitotic index
97
What are the goals of cancer treatment?
Cure, control, and palliative
98
Creation of own blood supply
Angiogenesis
99
What is the oldest form of cancer treatment?
Surgery
100
What is the purpose of radiation therapy for cancer?
To destroy cancer cells with minimal damaging effects of surrounding normal cells
101
Radiation therapy that is administer at a distance from the body
Teletherapy
102
A procedure that involves placing radioactive material inside the body to treat cancer
Brachytherapy
103
Amount of radiation delivered to tissue
Exposure
104
Amount of radiation absorbed by tissue
Dose
105
What are the side effects of radiation treatment for cancer?
Local skin changes and hair loss, altered taste, fatigue, and tissue fibrosis and scarring
106
What causes the fatigue seen in radiation treatment for cancer?
Increased energy demands
107
What causes the tissue fibrosis and scarring seen in radiation treatment for cancer?
Inflammatory response
108
What is the nursing care for patients undergoing radiation for treatment of cancer?
Teach accurately and objectively, do not remove markings, administer skin care, avoid direct sunlight, and prevent bone fractures
109
Why is radiation therapy an effective treatment for cancer?
It causes a decreased cellular production
110
When administering radiation, besides the skin what else can be affected?
The underlying tissues and structures
111
Xerostomia
Dry mouth
112
Treatment of cancer with chemical agents
Chemotherapy
113
What kinds of cells does chemotherapy most affect?
Fast growing cells
114
What is the goal of chemotherapy?
To reduce the number of cancer cells to that which the immune system can take care of
115
How is chemotherapy classified?
By the pharmacological action of effect on cellular reproduction
116
Cancer drugs that cross link DNA, making the two DNA stands bind tightly together, preventing proper DNA an RNA synthesis, thus inhibition cell division
Alkylating Agents
117
Cancer drugs that damage the cell's DNA and interrupts DNA or RNA synthesis
Antitumor Antibiotics
118
Cancer drugs causing cells to become unable to complete mitosis during cell division
Antimitotic Agnets
119
Cancer drug in which "counterfeit" metabolites fool cancer cells, interfering with cell division
Antimetabolite agents
120
Cancer drugs that disrupt an enzyme needed for DNA synthesis and cell division by nicking and straightening the DNA helix, preventing proper DNA maintenance and causing DNA breakage and cell death
Topoisomerase Inhibitors
121
Giving more than one specific anticancer drug in a timed manner
Combination Chemotherapy
122
In what ways can chemotherapy drugs be administered?
IV, PO, SQ, IM, intra-arterial, intra-hepatic, intrathecal, intraventricular, intraperitoneal, intrapleural, and intravesicular
123
What PPE should be worn while administering chemotherapy?
Eye protection, masks, chemo gloves and gown
124
How long does extreme caution need to be taking in handling the excrement of a patient after receiving chemotherapy?
48 hours
125
What is the number one priority for a patient receiving chemotherapy?
Reduce the risk of infection
126
Why is the risk of infection so high in patients receiving chemotherapy?
Because their bone marrow is suppressed
127
How can mucositis be avoided?
Magic Swizzle
128
What kind of changes in cognition do patients receiving chemotherapy undergo?
Short term memory impairment
129
What are the types of targeted therapies for cancer?
Hormonal therapy, biotherapy, immunotherapy, monoclonal antibodies, radio-immunotherapy, anti-angiogenesis, and cellular therapy
130
The manipulation of external events indicating to cells that mitosis is needed in an effort to slow cancer growth
Targeted Therapy
131
How does hormone manipulation therapy work to treat cancer?
Some hormones make hormone sensitive tumors grow rapidly, so decreasing these hormone amounts slows cancer growth
132
Selective destruction of cancer cells via chemical reaction trigged by different types of laser light
Photodynamic Therapy
133
What do patients receiving photodynamic therapy for cancer treatment need to be taught?
They will have general sensitivity to light for up to 12 weeks after the injection of the drug
134
Modification of the patient's biological response to tumor cells
Immunotherapy
135
What are used in immunotherapy for cancer treatment?
Cytokines, interleukins, and interferons
136
What are the side effects of immunotherapy?
Severe inflammatory reactions, peripheral neuropathy, and skin rashes
137
What are the side effects of tyrosine kinase inhibitors?
Fluid retention, electrolyte imbalances, and bone marrow suppression
138
Cancer drug that blocks epidermal growth factor from binding to a cell surface receptor
Epidermal Growth Factor/Receptor Inhibitor
139
Name an epidermal growth factor/receptor inhibitor
Herceptin
140
Cancer drug that binds to vascular endothelial growth factor, preventing the binding of VEGF with its receptors on the surfaces of endothelial cells present in blood vessels
Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor/Receptor Inhibitors
141
Cancer drug that inhibits the activity of specific kinases in cancer cells and tumor blood vessels
Multikinase Inhibitors
142
Cancer drug that prevents the formation of a large complex of proteins into cells
Proteasome Inhibitors
143
Cancer drug that binds to target antigens to prevent proteins from functioning, thus preventing cell division
Monoclonal Antibodies
144
If a patient is going to be given a monoclonal antibody, what do they need to be pretreated with?
Benadryl and possibly a steroid
145
What is the symptom of a monoclonal antibody?
Flushing
146
How is an autologous bone marrow transplant administered?
As a rescue treatment
147
What is the goal of a bone marrow transplant?
Empty the marrow and replace it
148
Damage to stem cells in bone marrow by chemo and radiation
Myelosuppression
149
What grows in the bone marrow of patients with myelosuppression?
Solid tumors metastasized from hematological malignancies
150
What are the types of myelosuppression?
Neutropenia, anemia, and thrombocytopenia
151
What are the manifestations of neutropenia caused by myelosuppression?
Fever >100.4, cough, SOB, skin redness or tenderness, urinary symptoms, and sepsis
152
How are patients with neutropenia caused by myelosuppression treated?
Massive amounts of fluids
153
Where would the skin of a patient with neutropenia caused by myelosuppression be red?
Around the mouth, perianal, and rectal areas
154
What is the most reliable indicator of a patient's ability to resist infection?
Absolute Neutrophil Count
155
What is the normal WBC?
5,000-10,000
156
What is the normal percentage of neutrophils in the WBC?
35-80%
157
What needs to be done to prevent infection of patients with neutropenia caused by myelosuppression?
No fresh fruits or veggies, no live plants or potting soil, no live vaccines, no exposure to pet excreta, strict hand washing and personal hygiene, mouth care at least 4 times daily, no invasive procedures, and the prevention of constipation and pressure sores
158
How often do patients with neutropenia caused by myelosuppression need to take their temperature?
At least twice a day
159
Bleeding with no clotting due to a decrease in the number of platelets
Thrombocytopenia
160
What is the normal platelet count?
150,000-300,000
161
What kind of diet should a patient with thrombocytopenia caused by myelosuppression be on?
High fiber, high fluid
162
What does the systolic blood pressure of patient with thrombocytopenia caused by myelosuppression be kept at?
<140 mmHg
163
Decreased red blood cells
Anemia
164
What are the normal red blood cell values?
4.5-5.5 million
165
What is the normal hemoglobin?
12-18
166
What is the normal hematocrit?
37-52
167
How is anemia managed?
Rest, slow position changes, oxygen, iron, transfusions and growth factors
168
What are the risk factors for anemia?
Chemotherapy, kidney damage, tumor infiltration of bone marrow, bleeding, hemorrhage, and age
169
Which type of chemotherapy drugs especially put that patient at risk for anemia?
Platinum based treatments
170
What are the risk factors for thrombocytopenia?
Chemotherapy, radiation, and medications
171
What are the risk factors for neutropenia?
Age, decreased renal and liver function, poor nutrition, medications, and chemotherapy
172
Glycosylated proteins that function to regulate the reproduction, mutation, and function of blood cells
Hematopoietic Growth Factors
173
Muscle or general wasting that does not improve or go away with eating
Cachexia
174
What are the signs of cachexia?
Decreased threshold for bitter, increased threshold for sweet, increased desire for salts, decreased desire for sours, and metallic taste
175
What should a patient with cachexia be eating?
High protein foods
176
How many cancer patients experience nausea and vomiting?
60%
177
How is the cycle of malnutrition stopped?
Only by treating the tumor
178
How many cancer patients experience diarrhea?
90%
179
Which chemotherapy drug causes diarrhea?
Antimetabolites
180
Why does chemotherapy cause diarrhea?
Chemotherapy affects cells with rapid turnover in the vili and microvilli of the GI tract
181
How many cancer patients experience constipation?
40%
182
How many cancer patients develop mouth soars?
80%
183
What do the mouth soars cancer patients experience cause?
Mucositis, esophagitis, and stomatitis
184
How can the mouth soars associated with chemotherapy drugs be treated?
NSS mouth rinses with 0.5 tsp salt and 8 oz of water
185
What skin reactions can be associated with cancer patients?
Hypersensitivity, hyper-pigmentation, photo sensitivity, radiation recall, ulceration, and palmar-plantal erythrodysestheses
186
What is the most common and distressing symptom of cancer patients?
Fatigue
187
Why do patients with cancer often experience fatigue?
Biochemical imbalances, deconditioning, stress, poor sleep quality, nutrition, altered sleep patterns, depression, or anxiety
188
What are the metabolic oncological emergencies?
Hypercalcemia, sepsis, tumor lysis syndrome, disseminated vascular syndrome, and SIADH
189
What are the structural oncological emergencies?
Spinal cord compression, Superior Vena Cava syndrome, pleural effusion, pericardial effusion, and increased ICP
190
How does spinal cord compression occur in caner patients?
The tumor encroaches on the cord or the caudal equine or the vertebrae collapse from bone degradation
191
What is the sign of spinal cord compression in cancer patients?
Severe back pain
192
What are the signs of Superior Vena Cava syndrome?
SOB, cough, hoarseness, facial and upper body swelling, headache, epistaxis, dizziness, erythema, Stoke's sign, and visual changes
193
Superior Vena Cava is compressed or obstructed by tumor growth
Superior Vena Cava Syndrome
194
What are the signs of a pleural effusion in cancer patients?
SOB, coughing, dull, sharp, or aching pain in chest, and accumulation of fluid in the pleural space
195
How is the pain associated with a pericardial effusion different from that of a pleural effusion?
It is relieved by sitting up
196
What are the signs of a pericardial effusion in cancer patients?
Epigastric or chest pain, weakness, SOB, dysphagia, edema in the legs, and N/V
197
What are the signs of increased ICP in cancer patients?
Change in LOC, drowsiness, lethargy, MS changes, speech changes, vision changes, memory loss, personality changes, and headache
198
What are the signs of hypercalcemia in a cancer patient?
Nausea, vomiting loss of appetite, constipation and abdominal pain, extreme fatigue or muscle weakness, bone pain, increased thrust or excessive urination, sleepiness and difficulty thinking or concentrating
199
What is the hallmark of hypercalcemia?
Constipation and abdominal pain
200
What are the signs of sepsis in a cancer patient?
Fever, chills, shakes, SOB, drop in BP, decreased urination
201
What are the signs of tumor lysis syndrome?
Weakness, muscle cramps, twitching, nausea, diarrhea, decreased urine, edema, dizziness, and decreased blood pressure
202
Breakdown of tumors in cancer patients cause the release of harmful products into the blood
Tumor Lysis Syndrome
203
What are the signs of Disseminated Intra-Vascular Coagulation in a cancer patient?
Bleeding, SOB, increased HR and abdominal tenderness
204
What are the signs of SIADH in a cancer patient?
Thirst, headache, muscle cramps, tiredness, nausea and vomiting, weight gain, confusion and seizures
205
What does advanced care planning for cancer patients have to take into account?
Current health status, values and goals, and the patient's priorities
206
Hospice for patients with suspected imminent death (1-3 days)
Virtual Inpatient Hospice
207
Hospice for patients with suspected imminent death (7-10 days) with the goals of transition and pain and symptom management
Inpatient Hospice
208
Hospice for patients with less than 6 months to live
Outpatient Hospice
209
What drugs are given with chemotherapy to protect normal tissue?
Cytoprotectants
210
When giving chemotherapy, how often does the venous access device need to be assessed?
Every 30-60 minutes
211
Which cancer most commonly causes SIADH?
Carcinoma of the lung
212
When does hypercalcemia occur in cancer patients?
When there is bone metastasis
213
When is chemotherapy administered in adjunct therapy?
After surgery to shrink anything missed
214
When is chemotherapy administered in neo-adjunct therapy?
Before surgery to shrink the tumor to an operable size
215
What is the goal of palliative surgery?
Relief of symptoms to to improve quality of life
216
What intervention is most helpful for a patient with mucositis?
Providing oral care with a disposable mouth swab
217
What is the nursing priority for a client experiencing chemotherapy-indueed peripheral neuropathy?
Risk for injury related to sensory and motor deficits
218
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving riuximab (Rituxan) for treatment of lymphoma. It is essential for the nurse to observe for what side effect?
Allergic Reaction
219
What intervention will be most helpful in preventing disseminated intravascular coagulation?
Using strict aseptic technique to prevent infection
220
The nurse anticipates administering what medication to treat hyperuricemia associated with tumor lysis syndrome?
Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
221
What finding would alarm the nurse when caring for a client receiving chemotherapy who has a platelet count of 17,000?
Change in mental status
222
What teaching is most appropriate for a client with chemotherapy-induced neuropathy?
Consume a diet high in fiber
223
Which medication does the nurse plan to administer to a client before chemotherapy to decrease the incidence of nausea?
Ondansetron (Zofran)
224
The outpatient client is receiving photodynamic therapy. What environmental factor is a priority for the client to adjust for protection?
Reducing all direct and indirect sources of light
225
A client diagnosed with widespread lung cancer asks the nurse why he must be careful to avoid crowds and people who are ill. What is the nurse's best response?
When lung cancer is in the bones, it can prevent production of immune system cells, making you less resistant to infection
226
What prevention is most important for the nurse to teach to a client receiving radiation therapy for head a neck cancer?
See you dentist twice yearly for the rest of your life
227
A client receiving high-does chemotherapy who has bone marrow suppression has been receiving daily injections of epoetin alfa (Procrit). Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that today's dose should be held and the health care provider notified?
Blood pressure change from 130/90 to 148/98
228
Which action is most important for the nurse to implement to prevent nausea and vomiting in a client who is prescribed to receive the first round of IV chemotherapy?
Administer antiemetic drugs before administering chemotherapy
229
A client being treated for advanced breast cancer with chemotherapy reports that she must be allergic to one of her drugs because her entire face is swollen. What assessment does the nurse preform?
Examine the client's neck and chest for edema and engorged veins
230
A 72-year-old client recovering from lung cancer surgery asks the nurse to how she developed cancer when she had never smoked. What is a possible cause?
Advancing age
231
The nurse reviews the chart of the client admitted with a diagnosis of glioblastoma with a T1NXM0 classification. What does that terminology mean?
The brain tumor measures about 1 to 2 cm and shows no regional lymph nodes and no distant metastasis
232
The client has a diagnosis of lung cancer. To which areas does the nurse anticipate that this client's tumor may metastasize?
Brain, bone, lymph nodes, and liver
233
The nurse is conducting a community health education class on diet and cancer risk reduction. What should she include?
Avoid beed and processed meats, increase consumption of whole grains, and eat "colorful fruits and vegetables," including greens
234
The nurse presents a cancer prevention program to teens. What will have the greatest impact in cancer prevention?
Do not smoke cigarettes
235
The Epstein-Barr virus causes which malignancies?
Burkitt's lymphoma, B-cell lymphoma, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma
236
The Hepatitis B virus cause which malignancy?
Primary liver carcinoma
237
The Hepatitis C virus causes which malignancies?
Primary liver carcinoma and possibly B-cell lymphomas
238
The Human Papilloma Virus causes which malignancies?
Cervical carcinoma, vulvar carcinoma, and other anogenital carcinomas
239
The Human Lymphotrophic Virus type 1 causes which malignancy?
Adult T-cell leukemia
240
The Human Lymphotrophic Virus type 2 causes which malignancy?
Hairy cell leukemia
241
Which cancers are inherited?
Breast, prostate, and ovarian
242
Which cancers have familial clustering?
Breast and melanoma
243
Which cancer is associated with Bloom syndrome?
Leukemia
244
Which cancer is associated with familial polyposis?
Colorectal
245
Which cancer are associated with chromosomal aberrations like Down syndrome?
Leukemia
246
Which cancer is associated with Klinefelter syndrome?
Breast Cancer
247
Which cancers are associated with Turner's syndrome?
Leukemia, gonadal carcinoma, meningioma, and colorectal cancer
248
What are the warning signs of cancer?
Persistent constipation, scab present for 6 months, and axillary swelling
249
The nurse is assessing a client with lung cancer. Which symptom does the nurse anticipate finding?
Dyspnea
250
A 52-year-old client relates to the nurse that she has never had a mammogram because she is terrified that she will have cancer. Which response by the nurse is therapeutic?
Finding a cancer in the early stages increases the change for a cure
251
Which information must the organ transplant nurse emphasize before each client is discharged?
Taking immune suppressant medications increases your risk for cancer and the ned for screenings
252
A client who is scheduled to undergo radiation for prostate cancer is admitted to the hospital. Which statement by the client is most important to communicate to the physician?
My legs and numb and weak
253
What do insulin and estrogen do to the process of malignant transformation?
Insulin and estrogen enhance the division of an initiated cell during the promotion phase
254
Occurs when IV drugs leak into the surrounding tissue
Extravasation or infiltration
