Reproductive Flashcards
(187 cards)
1
Q
What is stage one of fibrocystic breast condition?
A
Premenstrual fullness and tenderness occurring on the menstrual cycle
2
Q
Physiologic modularity of the breast including lobules, ducts, and stromal tissue
A
Fibrocystic Breast Condition
3
Q
What is the most common breast problem of women between 20-50 years of age?
A
Fibrocystic Breast Condition
4
Q
Solid, slowly enlarging, benign mass; round, firm, easily movable, non-tender and clearly delineated from the surrounding tissue
A
Fibroadenoma
5
Q
How can ductal ectasia be managed?
A
Warm complex and antibiotics
6
Q
How can fibrocystic breast condition be managed?
A
Symptomatic management, hormonal manipulation, drug therapy, diuretics, avoiding caffeine, mild analgesics, and limiting salt
7
Q
What is stage two of fibrocystic breast condition?
A
Multiple nodular areas in both breasts
8
Q
Benign breast problem of women approaching menopause caused by dilation and thickening of the collecting ducts in the sub-areolar area
A
Ductal Ectasia
9
Q
What are fibroadenomas made up of?
A
Connective tissue that is unattached to the surrounding breast tissue
10
Q
Benign process in the epithelial lining of the duct, forming a pedunculated outgrowth of tissue
A
Intraductal Papilloma
11
Q
What are the symptoms of fibrocystic breast condition?
A
Ropey, bumpy, lumpy breast tissue that is tender, painful, and burning characterized by fibrosis and cysts
12
Q
What vitamins should be increased when a patient has fibrocystic breast condition?
A
Vitamins C, E, and B complex
13
Q
What is the most common breast mass in women under the age of 30?
A
Fibroadenoma
14
Q
Why do the symptoms of fibrocystic breast condition usually go away after menopause?
A
Because estrogen decreases
15
Q
What is stage three of fibrocystic breast condition?
A
Microscopic cysts associated with pain, tenderness, or burning in women 35-55
16
Q
What is fibrocystic breast condition caused by?
A
An imbalance of of estrogen to progesterone ration with more estrogen and less progesterone
17
Q
What are the signs of ductal ectasia?
A
Hard, tender mass with irregular boarders, greenish brown nipple discharge, enlarged axillary nodes, redness and edema over the site of the mass
18
Q
Where are fibroadenomas often located?
A
The upper outer quadrant
19
Q
When do the symptoms of fibrocystic breast condition usually resolve?
A
After menopause
20
Q
In what age range does intraducal papilloma occur in?
A
40-55
21
Q
What types of adjunctive therapy can be used for patients with breast cancer?
A
Radiation therapy, chemotherapy, SERMs, hormonal therapy and targeted therapy
22
Q
What should patients with premenstrual syndrome eat?
A
Limit sugar, red meat, alcohol, coffee, tea and chocolate
23
Q
Vaginal bleeding that occurs after a 12 month cessation of menses after the onset of menopause
A
Postmenopausal bleeding
24
Q
Vaginal mucosa is dry, thin, and traumatized easily with intercourse
A
Atrophic vaginitis
25
What are the signs of intraductal papilloma?
Bloody or serous nipple discharge
26
Soft, red, oval tissue masses in cervix
Cervical polyps
27
Tissue overgrowth in uterus that is a precursor of endometrial cancer
Endometrial hyperplasia
28
How long is radiation therapy used after breast cancer?
6-7 weeks
29
Benign condition of breast enlargement in men
Gynecomastia
30
What are the genes that put patients at risk for breast cancer?
BRCA1 & BRCA2
31
Most commonly diagnosed invasive cancer in women
Breast cancer
32
An early form of breast cancer that does not metastasize
Noninvasive breast cancer
33
How is intraductal papilloma diagnosed?
By ruling out breast cancer
34
Gross removal of a tumor from a breast
Lumpectomy
35
What are the causes of postmenopausal bleeding?
Atrophic vaginitis, cervical polyps, or endometrial hyperplasia
36
What is the key to survival for breast cancer patients?
Early detection
37
What are the causes of gynecomastia?
Primary cancer, drugs, aging, obesity, estrogen excess, liver disease, hyperthyroidism, androgen deficiency, chronic renal failure, or alcoholism
38
What do breast cancers in men usually present as?
Hard, non painful subareolar masses
39
What stages of breast cancer is chemo used for?
Stage 2 or higher
40
Highly aggressive form of invasive breast cancer that presents as redness, swelling and rash of the breast skin that may or may not be itching, painful, or thickened
Inflammatory breast cancer
41
What causes endometrial hyperplasia?
Declining ovarian stimulation, leading to prolonged estrogen stimulation
42
What are the types of noninvasive breast cancer?
Ductal carcinoma in situ and lobular carcinoma
43
What is the key to diagnosis breast cancer?
Ultrasounds
44
When should mammograms start?
Yearly at 40
45
Why does primary dysmenorrhea occur?
Increased production and release of uterine prostaglandins
46
Removal of the portion of a breast that contains a tumor
Partial Mastectomy
47
Most common type of breast cancer that spreads from mammary ducts to surrounding tissue characterized by irregular, poorly deformed masses
Invasive breast cancer
48
What is a SERM?
An estrogen receptor blocking agent, like tamoxifen
49
What is the purpose of Herceptin?
It blocks HER2/neu gene expression to slow or stop growth of cancer cells
50
Breast affected by cancer, along with skin and axillary nodes is completely removed
Modified Radical Mastectomy
51
A benign problem of endometrial tissue implantation outside the uterine cavity
Endometriosis
52
What is the key diagnostic procedure for endometriosis?
Laparoscopy
53
What are the signs and symptoms of menopause based on?
The level of hormones and estrogen swings
54
What is the surgical management for dysfunctional uterine bleeding?
Hormone manipulation
55
Inflammation of the lower genital tract
Simple vaginitis
56
If a patient has amenorrhea, what else should they be assessed for?
Hirsutism, galactorrhea, and nutritional status
57
What conditions are dysfunctional uterine bleeding associated with?
Endocrine disturbances, polycystic ovary disease, stress, extreme weight loss, long term drug use and anatomic abnormalities
58
What is endometriosis caused by?
Birth defects
59
How can simple vaginitis be managed?
Perineal cleaning after urination or defecation, wearing cotton underwear, avoiding strong douches and feminine hygiene sprays, avoiding tight fitting pants, using estrogen creams, eating yogurt with antibiotics
60
What are the signs of uterine prolapse?
Dyspareunia, backache, pressure in the pelvis, bowel or bladder problems
61
Septic shock characterized by abrupt high temperature, headache, sore throat, vomiting, diarrhea, generalized rash, and hypotension
Toxic shock syndrome
62
Absence of a menstrual period
Amenorrhea
63
Nonspecific term used to describe bleeding that is excessive or abnormal in amount or frequency without predisposing anatomic or systemic conditions
Dysfunctional Uterine Bleeding
64
How long does perimenopause last?
10 years
65
What is simple vaginitis caused by?
Menopause, STD, Trichomonas, candida, changes in normal flora, alkaline pH, tampons and condoms, douches or sprays, health problems such as diabetes
66
What are the causes of amenorrhea?
Abnormalities of the reproductive tract
67
What is the surgical manipulation for dysfunctional uterine bleeding?
DNC, endometrial ablation, and hysterectomy
68
What are the symptoms of endometriosis?
Pain, dyspareunia, painful defection, sacral backache, hypermenorrhea, and infertility
69
How is amenorrhea treated?
Hormone replacement, ovulation, stimulation, and periodic progesterone withdrawal
70
How is toxic shock syndrome treated?
Penicillin or vancomycin
71
What is the treatment for rectocele?
High-fiber diet, stool softeners, laxatives, and surgery
72
What is the treatment for cystocele?
Kegel exercises or surgery
73
What generally causes follicular cysts to rupture?
Torsion
74
What are theca-luatein cysts a result of?
Molar pregnancy
75
What causes polycystic ovaries?
High levels of luteinizing hormone overstimulate the ovaries
76
What is the sign of a fibroid?
Midcycle bleeding
77
Small, purplish red cyst occurring after ovulation and often with increased secretion of progesterone causing low abdominal or pelvic pain
Coprus Luteum Cyst
78
Protrusion of the rectum through a weakened vaginal wall
Rectocele
79
What are the common complications of hysteroscopic surgery?
Fluid overload, embolism, hemorrhage, perforation of the uterus, bowel or bladder and ureter, persistent increased menstrual bleeding, and incomplete suppression of menstruation
80
Obstruction of the duct of the Bartholin's gland caused by infection, thickened mucus near the ductal opening or trauma such as lacerations or episiotomy
Bartholin Cyst
81
What is the best stool softener?
Milk of magnesia
82
Pedunculated tumors arising from the mucosa and extending to the opening of the cervical os
Cervical polyps
83
What are the symptoms of rectocele?
Constipation, hemorrhoids, fecal impaction, feelings of rectal or vaginal fullness
84
What is the treatment for polycystic ovary?
Oral contraceptives, surgery, or clomiphene
85
What are the symptoms of cystocele?
Difficulty in emptying the bladder, urinary frequency and urgency, urinary tract infection, and stress urinary incontinence
86
What is the most common type of endometrial cancer?
Adenocarcinoma
87
What can happen if a corpus luteum cyst ruptures?
Intraperitoneal hemorrhage
88
For which stages of endometrial cancer is a TAHBSO recommended?
Stage 2 and above
89
What are the clinical manifestations of cervical cancer?
Painless vaginal bleeding, watery, blood-tinged vaginal discharge that may become dark and foul smelling, leg pain, flank pain, unexpected weight loss, pelvic pain, dysuria, hematuria, rectal bleeding, chest pain and cough
90
What are the adverse affects of radiation therapy for endometrial cancer?
Nausea, bladder infections, pain, diarrhea, and DVTs
91
What is the main symptom of endometrial cancer?
Postmenopausal bleeding
92
Uncommon cysts hat develop as a result of prolonged stimulation of the ovaries by excessive amount of hCG
Theca-Luatein Cysts
93
What are the stages of uterine prolapse classified by?
The degree of decent of the uterus
94
What is the most common type of ovarian cancer?
Serous adenocarcinoma
95
What are the symptoms of vulvar cancer?
Irritation or itching in the perineal area or a sore that will not heal
96
What type of cancers are cervical and vulvar generally?
Squamous cell carcinomas
97
What test identifies abnormal vulvar cells?
Touidine blue test
98
Protrusion of the bladder through the vaginal wall due to weakened pelvic structures
Cystocele
99
What is vaginal cancer associated with?
Diethylstilbestrol
100
What are the symptoms of ovarian cancer?
Abdominal discomfort, dyspepsia, indigestion, gas and distention
101
What are the symptoms of fallopian tube cancer?
Postmenopausal bleeding, increased abdominal pain, watery vaginal discharge, and leukorrhea
102
What is the rarest gynecological cancer?
Fallopian tube cancer
103
What drugs can be used to treat BPH?
5-Alpha reductase inhibitor, Alpha-1 selective blocking agents, lycopene, and estrogens and androgens
104
What type of cancer is prostate cancer?
Adenocarcinoma
105
What is the post op care after a radical prostatectomy?
Hydration with IV therapy, caring for wound drains, preventing emboli, preventing pulmonary complications, antibiotics, analgesics, laxatives, and antispasmodics
106
Three-way urinary catheter with a 30- to 45- mL retention balloon through the urethra into the bladder
Continuous Bladder Irrigation
107
Inability to achieve or maintain an erection for sexual intercourse
Erectile dysfunction
108
What information does a duplex doppler give for a patient experiencing erectile dysfunction?
Blood supply
109
What are the symptoms of BPH?
Hyperirritable bladder, urgency, frequency, hesitancy, hydroureter, diverticula, hydronephrosis, dribbling, hematuria
110
Where does prostate cancer metastasize to?
Lymph nodes, bones, lungs, and liver
111
What should the nurse do for post op TURP patients?
Encourage voiding, increasing fluid intake, and monitor for bleeding
112
Why is it very important to document the time a catheter is removed from a patient?
Because they need to void in a specified amount of time
113
What are the side effect of continuous bladder irrigation?
Post op bleeding and the urge to void continuously
114
When does BPH occur?
Late 50s - early 60s
115
In who is testicular cancer most common?
Men 15 - 35 years old
116
What are therapies for erectile dysfunction?
Drug therapy, vacuum devices, intraurethral applications, intracorporal injections, and prosthesis
117
Glandular units in the prostate that undergo an increase in the number of cells resulting in enlargement of the prostate gland
Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
118
How is a hydrocele treated?
Drained via needle and string or removed surgically
119
A small, asymptomatic sperm-containing cyst that develops on the epididymis along side the testicle
Spermatocele
120
What should be measured when a patent is catheterized?
Intake and Output
121
What complications can occur after a radical prostectomy?
Urinary incontinence and erectile dysfunction
122
A cluster of dilated veins that occur behind and above the testes causing infertility
Varicocele
123
What electrolyte would be elevated in a patient with prostate cancer?
Calcium
124
Cystic mass usually filled with straw colored fluid that forms around the testis resulting from impaired lymphatic drainage of the scrotum, causing swelling of the tissue surrounding the testes
Hydrocele
125
What are the types of nonsurgical management for prostate cancer?
Radiation, hormonal therapy, chemotherapy, and targeted therapy
126
What type of cancer is penile?
Epidermoid or squamous cell
127
When is scrotal trauma most likely to occur?
During puberty
128
What is the clinical manifestation of penile cancer?
Painless warlike growth or ulcer
129
What can cause priapism?
Thrombosis, leukemia, sickle cell, DM, malignancies, abnormal reflex, drugs, and prolonged sexual activity
130
How is priapism treated?
Enemas, catheterization, and surgical intervention
131
Constricted prepuce that cannot be retracted over the glans so that it remains down around the tip of the penis
Phimosis and Paraphimosis
132
Torsion of the testes involving a twisting of the spermatic cord
Scrotal Trauma
133
Acute testicular inflammation resulting from trauma or infection
Orchitis (Mumps)
134
What causes nonbacterial/chronic pelvic pain syndrome?
Viral illness or STD, autoimmune disease, or allergies
135
Uncontrolled and long-maintained erection without sexual desire, causing the penis to become large and painful
Priapism
136
How is penile cancer prevented?
Circumcision
137
What is the treatment for orchitis?
Bedrest with scrotal elevation, ice, pain meds, and antibiotics
138
Inflammation of the epidermis resulting from an infection or noninfectious source such as trauma
Epididymitis
139
Infection of the lower urinary tract that causes urethral discharge and a boggy, tender prostate
Bacterial prostatitis
140
Why is scrotal trauma a surgical emergency?
The testes are very sensitive to any decrease in blood flow
141
What is the treatment for epididymitis?
Bedrest with scrotal elevation
142
How long does it take for secondary syphilis to develop?
Six weeks to six months after onset
143
How long does latent syphilis last?
One year
144
How long does secondary syphilis last?
Four to twelve weeks
145
What confirms a syphilis diagnosis?
Venereal Disease Research Laboratory serum test
146
Which type of syphilis requires more than one penicillin dose?
Late latent syphilis
147
What does primary syphilis look like?
Ulcer on genitalia or any mucous membrane
148
Where to genital herpes stay when dormant?
In the sacral ganglia
149
When is genital herpes contagious?
During viral shedding
150
How long does tertiary syphilis last?
Four to twenty years
151
What does secondary syphilis look like?
Rash on palms and feet
152
What is the incubation period for genital herpes?
Two to twenty days
153
In what stage is syphilis contagious only to fetuses?
Latent syphilis
154
What is the most common STD?
Genital Herpes
155
How is syphilis spread?
Sexual contact, kissing, and close body contact
156
What does tertiary syphilis look like?
Benign lesions of the gums, mucous membranes, and bones
157
Genital warts caused by HPV
Condylomata Acuminata
158
What is the goal of treatment for genital herpes?
To decrease the severity, promote healing, and decrease the recency of recurrent outbreaks
159
What is the treatment for syphilis?
Penicillin
160
Why does chlamydia cause infertility?
Scarring of the fallopian tubes
161
Sexually transmitted bacterial infection of a gram negative diplococcus
Gonorrhea
162
Complex infection process in which organisms from the lower genital tract migrate from the endocervix upward through the uterine cavity into the fallopian tubes
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
163
How is pelvic inflammatory disease diagnosed?
Rule out ectopic pregnancy and appendicitis
164
What other infections can gonorrhea lead to?
Meningitis and endocarditis
165
What does Condylomata Acuminata look like?
Initially single, small papillary growth that grow into large cauliflower-like masses
166
What is presumed if a patient has gonorrhea?
They also have chlamydia
167
What infections are caused by pelvic inflammatory disease?
Endometritis, salpingitis, oophritis, parametritis, peritonitis, and tubal or tubo-ovarian abscess
168
What are the symptoms of gonorrhea?
In men, dysuria and penile discharge; in women, vaginal discharge, urinary frequency or dysuria
169
What drugs may be prescribed to treat genital herpes?
Acyclovir, famciclovir, or valacyclovir
170
What drugs are prescribed to treat gonorrhea?
Cephalosporins and zithromax or doxycycline
171
What are the symptoms of chlamydia?
In men, urethritis, and women are asymptomatic
172
What can the spread of gonorrhea cause in women?
Endometritis, salpingitis, and pelvic peritonitis
173
In what position should patients with PID be in?
Semi-Fowlers
174
Result of genital infection with one of three serotypes of Chlamydia which is spread systematically until it localizes in the genital or rectal lymph nodes
Lymphogranuloma Venereum
175
Painful, soft genital lesions caused by infection and transmitted through contact with the ulcer or with the discharge
Chancroid
176
What are the risk factors for PID?
Younger than 26, multiple sex partners, smoking, IUD, history of STDs
177
What is the incubation period of a chancriod?
Three to ten days
178
What is the most common complication of PID?
Infertility
179
What is the clinical manifestation of lymphogranuloma venereum?
A groove in the penis
180
What are the clinical manifestations of PID?
Lower abdominal pain, irregular vaginal bleeding, change in vaginal discharge, dysuria, dyspareunia, hunched over gait, fatigue, diaphoresis, hyperthermic, abdominal tenderness or rigidity, yellow or green cervical discharge, and a reddened or friable cervix
181
What is the treatment for chancroids?
Azithromycin, ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin, and erythromycin
182
Which hepatitis is not generally a STD?
Hepatitis A
183
What are the types of parasites?
Scabies, Pediculosis pubis, trichomoniasis, and candidiasis
184
Painless nodules that are ulcerated and vascular and bleed easily on contact
Granuloma Inguinale
185
What is the real name for crabs?
Pediculosis pubis
186
How is granuloma inguinale treated?
Doxycycline
187
How is granuloma inguinale diagnosed?
By the presence of Donovan bodies in the ulcers
