Chapter 9 - Muscular System (Histology&Physiology) Flashcards
(184 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following is NOT a function of skeletal muscle?
A. body movement
B. maintenance of posture
C. respiration
D. constriction of organs
E. production of heat
A
constriction of organs
2
Q
Which of the following actions is caused by contraction of skeletal muscle?
A. contraction of the heart
B. moving your feet in walking
C. movement of food through the digestive tract
D. emptying of the urinary bladder
E. vasoconstriction
A
moving your feet in walking
3
Q
Smooth muscle and cardiac muscle are similar in that they both
A. are under involuntary control.
B. are striated.
C. are widely distributed in the body.
D. have multiple nuclei.
E. are under voluntary control.
A
are under involuntary control
4
Q
The capacity of a muscle cell to shorten forcefully is known as
A. contractility.
B. excitability.
C. extensibility.
D. elasticity.
E. flexibility.
A
contractility
5
Q
Muscles exhibit the property of excitability. This means that the muscle
A. shortens its length.
B. recoils to its original resting length.
C. stretches beyond its normal length.
D. responds to stimulation by the nervous system.
E. excites itself.
A
responds to stimulation by the nervous system
6
Q
Identify the statement concerning general functional characteristics of muscle that is true.
A. Muscle tissue shortens forcefully but lengthens passively.
B. Muscle tissue shortens passively but lengthens forcefully.
C. Muscle tissue can get shorter, but can not get longer.
D. Muscle tissue can get longer, but can not get shorter.
E. None of these statements are true.
A
Muscle tissue shortens forcefully but lengthens passively.
7
Q
Identify the statement concerning skeletal muscle that is true.
A. It comprises about 20% of the body’s weight.
B. It propels urine through the urinary tract.
C. Its function is largely under involuntary control.
D. It is a kind of connective tissue.
E. It is responsible for locomotion.
A
It is responsible for locomotion.
8
Q
Which of the following is true?
A. Skeletal muscle is capable of spontaneous contraction.
B. Smooth muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs.
C. Cardiac muscle cells have multiple nuclei.
D. Smooth muscle cells are long and cylindrical.
E. There is a small amount of smooth muscle in the heart.
A
Smooth muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs.
9
Q
Skeletal muscle fibers
A. possess striations.
B. can contract but are not extensible or excitable.
C. do not require nerve innervation to contract.
D. increase dramatically in number after birth.
E. are found in the walls of the stomach.
A
possess striations
10
Q
Which type of muscle tissue has spindle-shaped cells?
A. skeletal muscle
B. smooth muscle
C. cardiac muscle
D. both skeletal and cardiac muscle
E. both cardiac and smooth muscle
A
smooth muscle
11
Q
Which type of muscle tissue possesses striations?
A. skeletal muscle
B. smooth muscle
C. cardiac muscle
D. both skeletal and cardiac muscle
E. both cardiac and smooth muscle
A
both skeletal and cardiac muscle
12
Q
Which type of muscle tissue is autorhythmic?
A. skeletal muscle
B. smooth muscle
C. cardiac muscle
D. both skeletal and cardiac muscle
E. both cardiac and smooth muscle
A
both cardiac and smooth muscle
13
Q
Which type of muscle tissue is multinucleated?
A. skeletal muscle
B. smooth muscle
C. cardiac muscle
D. both skeletal and cardiac muscle
E. both cardiac and smooth muscle
A
skeletal muscle
14
Q
Which type of muscle tissue has cells that branch?
A. skeletal muscle
B. smooth muscle
C. cardiac muscle
D. both skeletal and cardiac muscle
E. both cardiac and smooth muscle
A
cardiac muscle
15
Q
Which type of muscle tissue would cause flexion and extension of the arm?
A. skeletal muscle
B. smooth muscle
C. cardiac muscle
A
skeletal muscle
16
Q
Which type of muscle tissue causes contraction of the heart?
A. skeletal muscle
B. smooth muscle
C. cardiac muscle
A
cardiac muscle
17
Q
What type of muscle tissue causes vasoconstriction?
A. skeletal muscle
B. smooth muscle
C. cardiac muscle
A
smooth muscle
18
Q
What type of muscle tissue causes peristalsis?
A. skeletal muscle
B. smooth muscle
C. cardiac muscle
A
smooth muscle
19
Q
What type of muscle tissue has neuromuscular junctions?
A. skeletal muscle
B. smooth muscle
C. cardiac muscle
A
skeletal muscle
20
Q
Hypertrophy of skeletal muscles from weight lifting is caused by an increase in the
A. number of muscle fibers.
B. size of muscle fibers.
C. number of striations.
D. number of nuclei within the muscle fibers.
E. number of muscle cells.
A
size of muscle fibers
21
Q
Skeletal muscle develops from multinucleated cells called
A. fascicles.
B. myoblasts.
C. myofibrils.
D. myotomes.
E. fasciculi.
A
myoblasts
22
Q
A fasciculus
A. is a bundle of reticular fibers.
B. is surrounded by perimysium.
C. is only found in smooth muscle.
D. possesses an external lamina.
E. is a bundle of collagen fibers.
A
is surrounded by perimysium
23
Q
Epimysium
A. surrounds individual muscles.
B. separates muscle fibers.
C. connects muscles to bone.
D. is a type of muscle tissue.
E. is a type of nerve tissue.
A
surrounds individual muscles
24
Q
Endomysium is a delicate network of loose connective tissue that
A. surrounds each muscle fiber.
B. forms a sheath around a fasciculus.
C. is composed of elastic fibers.
D. separates individual muscles.
E. penetrates muscle fibers.
A
surrounds each muscle fiber
25
Which of the following connective tissue layers is outside all the others?
A. perimysium
B. endomysium
C. epimysium
D. paramysium
E. sarcolemma
epimysium
26
Which of the following is true about skeletal muscle?
A. Sensory neurons stimulate muscles to contract.
B. There are very few blood vessels in skeletal muscle.
C. Every muscle fiber receives a branch of an axon from the nerve.
D. There are very few nerve fibers in a muscle.
E. All of these are true.
Every muscle fiber receives a branch of an axon from the nerve
27
List the following structures in order from smallest to largest.
(1) muscle fiber
(2) myofilament
(3) myofibril
(4) muscle fasciculus
A. 4, 2, 3, 1
B. 2, 1, 4, 3
C. 3, 1, 4, 2
D. 2, 3, 1, 4
E. 1, 2, 3, 4
2, 3, 1, 4
28
Muscle myofibrils
A. are found in the sarcolemma.
B. extend from the sarcolemma to the T-tubule.
C. contain myosin and actin myofilaments.
D. hold muscle cells together.
E. do not appear striated.
contain myosin and actin myofilaments.
29
Myosin is also known as the
A. thick myofilament.
B. thin myofilament.
C. intermediate myofilament.
D. short myofilament.
E. sarcomere.
thick myofilament.
30
Actin myofilaments
A. resemble bundles of minute golf clubs.
B. contain both myosin and tropomyosin.
C. are held in place by the M line.
D. contain strands of fibrous actin.
E. are the thickest proteins in muscle
contain strands of fibrous actin
31
Which of the following is part of a thin myofilament?
A. ATP-binding site
B. globular (G) actin
C. calcium
D. myosin
E. sarcolemma
globular (G) actin
32
Troponin
A. has two subunits.
B. is part of the myosin myofilament.
C. is a long, flexible protein.
D. has a calcium-binding site.
E. binds to ATP.
has a calcium-binding site
33
Which of the following is composed of myosin molecules?
A. thick myofilaments
B. I Bands
C. Z disks
D. sarcolemma
E. tropomyosin
thick myofilaments
34
The active sites to which cross-bridges attach are found on the
A. sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B. actin myofilaments.
C. Z disks.
D. T tubules.
E. myosin myofilaments.
actin myofilaments
35
ATPase is found in
A. F-actin strands.
B. G-actin globular units.
C. myosin heads.
D. tropomyosin grooves.
E. troponin molecules.
myosin heads
36
Which of the following is NOT a property of the myosin head?
A. They form cross-bridges with the active sites of actin.
B. They have a hinge region to bend and straighten.
C. They bind to troponin.
D. They have ATPase activity.
E. They bind to ATP.
They bind to troponin
37
The region of the sarcomere that contains both actin and myosin myofilaments is called the
A. I band.
B. A band.
C. Z disk.
D. H zone.
E. M line
A band
38
A sarcomere extends from
A. one Z disk to an adjacent Z disk.
B. one T tubule to the next T tubule.
C. the middle of the I band to the middle of the A band.
D. the H zone to the I band.
E. the M line to the next M line
one Z disk to an adjacent Z disk
39
Which of the following is mismatched?
A. I band - contains only actin
B. M line - middle of the H zone
C. Z disk - structure between adjacent sarcomeres
D. myosin myofilaments - thin myofilaments
E. actin myofilaments - thin myofilaments
myosin myofilaments - thin myofilaments
40
A sarcomere is the
A. cell membrane of a muscle fiber.
B. cytoplasm of muscle cells.
C. structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle cell.
D. contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber.
E. protein strand composed of actin or myosin.
structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle cell
41
Sarcoplasm is the
A. cell membrane of a muscle fiber.
B. cytoplasm of muscle cells.
C. structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle cell.
D. contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber.
E. protein strand composed of actin or myosin.
cytoplasm of muscle cells
42
A myofilament is the
A. cell membrane of a muscle fiber.
B. cytoplasm of muscle cells.
C. structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle cell.
D. contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber.
E. protein strand composed of actin or myosin
protein strand composed of actin or myosin
43
The sarcolemma is the
A. cell membrane of a muscle fiber.
B. cytoplasm of muscle cells.
C. structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle cell.
D. contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber.
E. protein strand composed of actin.
cell membrane of a muscle fiber
44
A myofibril is the
A. cell membrane of a muscle fiber.
B. cytoplasm of muscle cells.
C. structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle cell.
D. contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber.
E. protein strand composed of actin
contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber
45
Which of the following statements regarding the sliding filament model is false?
A. Actin and myosin do not shorten during contraction.
B. Both actin and myosin myofilaments shorten during contraction.
C. The sarcomere shortens.
D. The I band and H zones become narrower during contraction.
E. The A band remains constant in length.
Both actin and myosin myofilaments shorten during contraction
46
The length of the resting sarcomere is
A. longer than the length of a contracted sarcomere.
B. shorter than the length of a contracted sarcomere.
C. the same length as a contracted sarcomere.
D. the same length as the muscle fiber.
E. the same length as the myofibril
longer than the length of a contracted sarcomere
47
The model that describes the contraction of the muscle is called the
A. contraction cycle.
B. power stroke.
C. sliding filament model.
D. slipping fibril mechanism.
E. paddle model.
sliding filament model
48
The electrical properties of cells are the result of
A. ion concentration differences across the plasma membrane.
B. receptor sites that are present on the plasma membrane.
C. phosphorylation reactions within the cytoplasm.
D. phospholipids in the cell membrane.
E. None of these choices is correct
ion concentration differences across the plasma membrane
49
Which of the following causes an unequal ion concentration across the resting plasma membrane?
A. the functioning of the sodium-chloride pump
B. negatively charged proteins do not readily diffuse across the plasma membrane
C. the attraction of chloride ions to other intracellular anions
D. the repulsion of potassium ions by the intracellular anions
E. the attraction of sodium ions to chloride ions
negatively charged proteins do not readily diffuse across the plasma membrane
50
Which of the following is true during the resting membrane potential?
A. Sodium ion concentration is greater inside cells.
B. Negatively charged proteins are more concentrated outside the cell.
C. A greater concentration of calcium ions is found inside the cell.
D. Potassium is concentrated primarily inside the cell.
E. None of these choices reflect what occurs during the resting membrane potential
Potassium is concentrated primarily inside the cell
51
The outside of the resting plasma membrane is __________ relative to the inside of the resting plasma membrane.
A. positively charged
B. negatively charged
C. electrically neutral
D. recharged
E. None of these choices is correct.
positively charged
52
The plasma membrane of an excitable cell is more permeable to potassium ions because
A. of its positive electrical charge.
B. there are more leak ion channels for K+ than Na+.
C. protein molecules cannot exit through the cell membrane.
D. calcium ions block Na+ and Cl- channels.
E. there are more gated channels for K+.
there are more leak ion channels for K+ than Na+
53
In which of the following situations does a resting membrane potential exist?
A. a relaxed muscle fiber
B. a conducting neuron
C. a stimulated sensory receptor in the skin
D. a contracting cardiac muscle cell
E. the eye seeing an image
a relaxed muscle fiber
54
Channels that open or close in response to changes in the electrical charge or voltage across the plasma membrane are called
A. ligand-gated ion channels.
B. leak ion channels.
C. relegated ion channels.
D. voltage-gated ion channels.
E. obligated ion channels.
voltage-gated ion channels.
55
Which of the following changes have the potential to dramatically affect the potential difference across the plasma membrane?
A. increased permeability of the membrane to sodium ions
B. increased intracellular concentration of potassium ions
C. any change in the rate at which the sodium-potassium pump works
D. increased permeability of the membrane to sodium ions and increased intracellular concentration of potassium ions
E. increased permeability of the membrane to sodium ions, increased intracellular concentration of potassium ions and any change in the rate at which the sodium-potassium pump works
increased permeability of the membrane to sodium ions and increased intracellular concentration of potassium ions
56
Which of the following situations occurs in electrically excitable cells?
A. When Na+ ion channels open, K+ ion channels close.
B. The sodium-potassium pump moves sodium into the cell.
C. Depolarization causes voltage-gated sodium ion channels to open.
D. Sodium ion channels are opened by high extracellular calcium levels.
E. The opening and closing of ligand-gated channels cause depolarization
Depolarization causes voltage-gated sodium ion channels to open.
57
Depolarization of the cell membrane occurs when there is a rapid influx (inflow) of
A. potassium ions.
B. chloride ions.
C. calcium ions.
D. sodium ions.
E. amino acids.
sodium ions.
58
An action potential
A. occurs when the local potential reaches threshold level.
B. is not propagated.
C. has no repolarization phase.
D. is an example of negative feedback.
E. can be of varying strengths depending on strength of the stimulus
occurs when the local potential reaches threshold level.
59
A stimulus either causes an action potential or it doesn't. This is called
A. an all-or-none response.
B. a graded response.
C. a latent period response.
D. a relative refractory response.
E. an arbitrary response.
an all-or-none response
60
When repolarization of the cell membrane is complete, the
A. cell dies.
B. cell regenerates.
C. cell no longer has a potential difference across its membrane.
D. cell is no longer responsive.
E. original polarity of the cell is restored
original polarity of the cell is restored
61
A muscle fiber will respond to a stimulus when that stimulus reaches the _____ level.
A. threshold
B. relaxation
C. rigor mortis
D. recruitment
E. resting
threshold
62
The sites where a chemical substance is transmitted from the presynaptic terminal of an axon to the postsynaptic membrane of a muscle fiber are called
A. neuromuscular junctions.
B. sarcomeres.
C. myofilaments.
D. Z disks.
E. cell body of neuron
neuromuscular junctions
63
Synaptic vesicles in the neuromuscular junction contain
A. calcium.
B. ATP.
C. acetylcholine.
D. acetylcholinesterase.
E. sodium.
acetylcholine
64
Which of the following structures contains the other four items listed?
A. postsynaptic membrane
B. presynaptic terminal
C. synaptic cleft
D. neuromuscular junction
E. receptors on postsynaptic membrane
neuromuscular junction
65
Acetylcholine binds to a membrane bound receptor and causes ligand-gated sodium channels to open and results in
A. hyperpolarization.
B. depolarization.
C. hypoplarization.
D. no change in membrane potential.
E. There is not enough information to predict the outcome.
depolarization
66
When an action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal,
A. calcium ions diffuse into the presynaptic terminal through voltage-gated ion channels.
B. acetylcholine moves into the presynaptic terminal.
C. a local potential is generated in the presynaptic terminal.
D. ligand-gated ion channels in the presynaptic terminal are opened.
E. nothing else happens
calcium ions diffuse into the presynaptic terminal through voltage-gated ion channels
67
Lack of acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft would result in
A. a decrease in acetylcholine production by the motor neuron.
B. continuous stimulation of the postsynaptic membrane.
C. rapid degradation of acetylcholine.
D. relaxation of the muscle.
E. continuous stimulation of the presynaptic membrane.
continuous stimulation of the postsynaptic membrane
68
Acetylcholine is released from the presynaptic terminal by the process of
A. exocytosis.
B. diffusion.
C. phagocytosis.
D. active transport.
E. endocytosis.
exocytosis
69
Too much acetylcholinesterase causes
A. continuous stimulation of the muscle fiber.
B. rapid degradation of acetycholine.
C. voltage-gated calcium ion channels opening in the presynaptic terminal.
D. an increase in sodium uptake by the muscle fiber.
E. exocytosis of synaptic vesicles.
rapid degradation of acetycholine
70
Which of the following events occurs on the postsynaptic membrane?
A. acetylcholine production
B. rapid degradation of acetylcholine
C. release of neurotransmitter
D. neurotransmitter combines with a receptor molecule
E. release of calcium ions
neurotransmitter combines with a receptor molecule
71
If sodium ions cannot enter a muscle fiber in response to a stimulus,
A. contraction cannot occur.
B. relaxation cannot occur.
C. sodium ions will be released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum instead.
D. the active sites are left exposed.
E. the action potential travels into the muscle anyway.
contraction cannot occur
72
T tubules are invaginations of the
A. sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B. sarcomere.
C. myofibril.
D. sarcoplasm.
E. sarcolemma
sarcolemma
73
T tubules
A. provide nutrients to the muscle fiber.
B. generate new muscle fibers.
C. conduct action potentials deep into the muscle cell.
D. release acetylcholine.
E. store calcium ions
conduct action potentials deep into the muscle cell
74
The sarcoplasmic reticulum
A. stores calcium ions.
B. shortens during muscle contraction.
C. transmits nerve impulses to the myofibrils.
D. connects adjacent sarcomeres.
E. covers the muscle fiber
stores calcium ions
75
Arrange these structures as they participate in excitation-contraction.
A. T tubules, sarcolemma, calcium ions, sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. calcium ions, T tubules, sarcolemma, sarcoplasmic reticulum
C. sarcolemma, T tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum, calcium ions
D. sarcoplasmic reticulum, calcium ions, T tubules, sarcolemma
E. sarcolemma, sarcoplasmic reticulum, calcium ions, T tubules
sarcolemma, T tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum, calcium ions
76
Arrange the following list of biochemical events in the correct sequence.
(1) An action potential is conducted deep into the muscle fiber by the T tubule.
(2) Calcium ions bind to troponin.
(3) The membranes of the sarcoplasmic reticulum become more permeable to calcium ions.
(4) Calcium ions diffuse into the sarcoplasm around the myofibril.
(5) The troponin-tropomyosin complex moves exposing active sites.
A. 1, 5, 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 3, 4, 2, 5
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D. 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
E. 1, 4, 3, 2, 5
1, 3, 4, 2, 5
77
In excitation-contraction coupling,
A. calcium ions must bind with myosin to expose active sites on actin.
B. myosin heads bind to exposed active sites on actin.
C. cross-bridges form between myosin heads and calcium ions.
D. movement of the troponin-tropomyosin complex causes actin myofilaments to slide.
E. ATP binds to actin myofilaments.
myosin heads bind to exposed active sites on actin
78
When the myosin head flexes into a bend, pulling the actin filament along with it, this is called the
A. action reaction.
B. power stroke.
C. recovery stroke.
D. muscle tone.
E. action potential.
power stroke
79
One ATP molecule is required for
A. formation of the cross-bridge.
B. movement of the cross-bridge.
C. release of the cross-bridge.
D. formation of the cross-bridge and for movement of the cross-bridge.
E. formation of the cross-bridge, for movement of the cross-bridge, and for release of the cross-bridge.
formation of the cross-bridge, for movement of the cross-bridge, and for release of the cross-bridge
80
In order for muscle relaxation to occur,
A. calcium ions must be transported to troponin.
B. power strokes slow down.
C. the active sites on actin must be blocked.
D. sodium ions must be actively transported to troponin.
E. the active sites on myosin must be uncovered
the active sites on actin must be blocked.
81
A drug that interferes with the active transport of calcium ions from the sarcoplasm back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum would result in
A. relaxation of the muscle fiber.
B. contraction with no relaxation.
C. muscle hypertrophy.
D. fibrosis of the muscle.
E. an imbalance of blood calcium
contraction with no relaxation.
82
After contraction has occurred, the calcium is
A. destroyed by cholinesterase.
B. chemically bound to the cross bridges.
C. secreted by the Golgi apparatus to the outside of the cell.
D. released from troponin.
E. returned to the sarcolemma.
released from troponin
83
During the contraction phase of a muscle twitch,
A. acetylcholine stimulates the pre-synaptic terminal.
B. sodium ions diffuse into the muscle fiber.
C. actin-myosin cross-bridges form.
D. calcium ions are transported back to the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
E. the action potential travels down the T tubule.
actin-myosin cross-bridges form
84
Which of the following events occurs during the lag phase of a muscle twitch?
A. Muscle fibers shorten.
B. Cross-bridges form, move, release, and reform many times.
C. The action potential is propagated from presynaptic to postsynaptic membrane.
D. Calcium is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
E. All of these events occur in the lag phase
The action potential is propagated from presynaptic to postsynaptic membrane.
85
The time between application of the stimulus to a motor neuron and the beginning of contraction is called the _____ phase.
A. contraction
B. relaxation
C. latent or lag
D. refractory
E. threshold
latent or lag
86
Which of the following would occur as a result of a single muscle contraction?
A. tetanus
B. tone
C. treppe
D. twitch
E. paralysis
twitch
87
Which of the following will respond to a threshold stimulus with an all-or-none contraction?
A. a single muscle fiber
B. a single motor unit
C. a whole muscle
D. a single muscle fiber and a single motor unit
E. a single muscle fiber, a single motor unit, and a whole muscle
a single muscle fiber and a single motor unit
88
Which of the following is true?
A. Muscle fatigue has no influence on the force of contractions.
B. A threshold stimulus will cause contraction of a muscle fiber.
C. A subthreshold stimulus causes a muscle contraction.
D. Motor units do not obey the "all or none" law.
E. A threshold stimulus will not affect motor units.
A threshold stimulus will cause contraction of a muscle fiber
89
Whole muscles can respond in a graded fashion to stimuli by varying
A. the force of contraction of individual muscle fibers.
B. the number of motor units recruited.
C. the amplitude of the action potential.
D. the frequency of stimulus.
E. thresholds.
the number of motor units recruited
90
A sustained muscle contraction is known as
A. tetanus
B. tone
C. treppe
D. twitch
E. paralysis
tetanus
91
Tetanus of a muscle is thought to be caused by
A. high calcium ion concentrations in the sarcoplasm.
B. the rapid movement of sodium ions back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
C. an increase in stimulus strength.
D. increased temperature in the active muscle.
E. decreased amounts of calcium ions in muscle tissue.
high calcium ion concentrations in the sarcoplasm
92
Which of the following helps explain the increased tension seen in multiple wave summation?
A. increased motor unit recruitment
B. increased concentration of calcium ions around the myofibrils
C. exposure of more active sites on myosin myofilaments
D. the breakdown of elastic elements in the cell
E. decreased stimulus frequency
increased concentration of calcium ions around the myofibrils
93
A condition in which stimuli occur so rapidly that there are no intervening relaxations between contractions is called
A. complete tetanus.
B. incomplete tetanus.
C. involuntary paralysis.
D. all or none tetanus.
E. treppe.
complete tetanus
94
Treppe
A. can contribute to improved muscle efficiency.
B. may be due to an increase in the level of calcium ions around the myofibril.
C. is an example of a graded response.
D. is achieved during warm-up exercises.
E. All of these choices are correct
All of these choices are correct.
95
The stretch of elastic components of a muscle adds to the increased tension during
A. incomplete tetanus.
B. twitch.
C. multiple wave summation.
D. all or none response.
E. none of these.
multiple wave summation
96
Incomplete tetanus
A. is the time during which the tissue cannot respond again.
B. results in complete and incomplete tetanus.
C. is the condition in which the muscle fiber only partially relaxes between contractions.
D. is the condition in which stimuli occur so rapidly that there are no intervening relaxations.
E. is the constant tension produced by muscles for long periods of time
is the condition in which the muscle fiber only partially relaxes between contractions.
97
Muscle tone
A. is a time during which the tissue cannot respond again.
B. results in complete and incomplete tetanus.
C. is a condition in which the muscle fiber only partially relaxes between contractions.
D. is a condition in which stimuli occur so rapidly that there are no intervening relaxations.
E. is a constant tension produced by muscles for long periods of time
is a constant tension produced by muscles for long periods of time
98
The refractory period
A. is the time during which the tissue cannot respond again.
B. results in complete and incomplete tetanus.
C. is the condition in which the muscle fiber only partially relaxes between contractions.
D. is the condition in which stimuli occur so rapidly that there are no intervening relaxations.
E. is the constant tension produced by muscles for long periods of time
is the time during which the tissue cannot respond again
99
Multiple wave summation
A. is a time during which the tissue cannot respond again.
B. results in complete and incomplete tetanus.
C. is a condition in which the muscle fiber only partially relaxes between contractions.
D. is a condition in which stimuli occur so rapidly that there are no intervening relaxations.
E. is a constant tension produced by muscles for long periods of time.
results in complete and incomplete tetanus.
100
Complete tetanus
A. is the time during which the tissue cannot respond again.
B. results in complete and incomplete tetanus.
C. is the condition in which the muscle fiber only partially relaxes between contractions.
D. is the condition in which stimuli occur so rapidly that there are no intervening relaxations.
E. is the constant tension produced by muscles for long periods of time.
is the condition in which stimuli occur so rapidly that there are no intervening relaxations
101
A proper definition of muscle tone is
A. constant tension produced by muscles for long periods of time.
B. a feeling of well-being following exercise.
C. the ability of a muscle to maintain a contraction against an outside force.
D. muscles contracting together.
E. warm-up of muscle tissue.
constant tension produced by muscles for long periods of time.
102
Movements of the body are usually smooth and occur at differing rates because
A. they are a mixture of isotonic and isometric contractions.
B. motor units contract out of phase at their own particular rates.
C. most muscle contractions closely resemble individual muscle twitches.
D. muscles of different sizes contract at different rates.
E. of the all or none principle.
motor units contract out of phase at their own particular rates.
103
Which of the following statements concerning types of muscle contractions is false?
A. In isometric contractions, the amount of tension produced by the muscle is constant.
B. In isotonic contractions, the muscle fibers shorten.
C. The contractile processes in isometric and isotonic contractions are the same.
D. Most skeletal muscle contractions are a combination of isometric and isotonic contractions.
E. In isotonic contractions, the amount of tension produced by the muscle fibers is constant during the contraction.
in isometric contractions, the amount of tension produced by the muscle is constant.
104
Concentric contractions occur when
A. the muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens.
B. the tension and length of the muscle remain constant during a contraction.
C. tension in a muscle is maintained while the muscle increases in length.
D. the muscle produces tension while the length of the muscle increases.
E. isometric contractions occur.
the muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens.
105
An isotonic contraction is described as
A. action potential frequency is high enough that no relaxation of muscle fibers occurs.
B. a muscle produces constant tension during contraction.
C. a muscle produces an increasing tension during contraction.
D. a muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens.
E. a muscle produces tension, but the length of the muscle is increasing.
a muscle produces constant tension during contraction.
106
Tetanus of muscles is described as
A. action potential frequency is high enough that no relaxation of muscle fibers occurs.
B. a muscle produces constant tension during contraction.
C. a muscle produces an increasing tension during contraction.
D. a muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens.
E. a muscle produces tension, but the length of the muscle is increasing.
action potential frequency is high enough that no relaxation of muscle fibers occurs.
107
An eccentric contraction is described as
A. action potential frequency is high enough that no relaxation of muscle fibers occurs.
B. a muscle produces constant tension during contraction.
C. a muscle produces an increasing tension during contraction.
D. a muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens.
E. a muscle produces tension, but the length of the muscle is increasing.
a muscle produces tension, but the length of the muscle is increasing.
108
An isometric contraction is described as
A. action potential frequency is high enough that no relaxation of muscle fibers occurs.
B. a muscle produces constant tension during contraction.
C. a muscle produces an increasing tension as the length remains constant.
D. a muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens.
E. a muscle produces tension, but the length of the muscle is increasing.
a muscle produces an increasing tension as the length remains constant.
109
A concentric contraction is described as
A. action potential frequency is high enough that no relaxation of muscle fibers occurs.
B. a muscle produces constant tension during contraction.
C. a muscle produces an increasing tension during contraction.
D. a muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens.
E. a muscle produces tension, but the length of the muscle is increasing.
a muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens.
110
Which of the following is true?
A. The greater the overlap of actin and myosin, the stronger the contraction.
B. Overstretching a muscle will increase its tension.
C. Optimal actin and myosin overlap will produce maximal contraction.
D. The greatest amount of tension is achieved when actin and myosin do not overlap.
E. Tension is great when actin and myosin overlap as much as they can.
Optimal actin and myosin overlap will produce maximal contraction.
111
Which of the following would contribute to muscular fatigue in the muscle fiber?
A. the emotional state of an individual
B. depletion of ATP reserves
C. inability of the motor neuron to produce sufficient quantities of acetylcholine
D. depletion of neurotransmitter
E. blocked receptors in the postsynaptic membrane
depletion of ATP reserves
112
he type of muscle fatigue known as "psychological fatigue" is the result of
A. depleted ATP reserves.
B. increased calcium ion concentration in the sarcoplasm.
C. decreased levels of acetylcholine.
D. the emotional state of an individual.
E. None of these choices is correct.
the emotional state of an individual.
113
Physiological contracture
A. occurs when muscles are resting.
B. is a condition in which cross-bridges cannot release.
C. is caused by an abundance of ATP in muscle fibers.
D. results when muscles are well exercised.
E. results when the neurotransmitter remains in the receptor.
is a condition in which cross-bridges cannot release.
114
Rigor mortis occurs after death because
A. cross-bridges form but can't release.
B. calcium is actively transported back to the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
C. anaerobic respiration is occurring.
D. myosin levels decline at death.
E. cross-bridges never form.
cross-bridges form but can't release.
115
During resting conditions, _________ is synthesized to store energy?
A. calcium
B. creatine phosphate
C. creatine
D. lactic acid
E. pyruvic acid
creatine phosphate
116
You are hired to work in a laboratory to measure the rate of human muscle contraction. Which of the following might decrease in quantity in muscle cells undergoing contractions?
A. ATP
B. carbon dioxide
C. water
D. lactic acid
E. sodium
ATP
117
A waste product of anaerobic respiration in muscle cells is
A. uric acid.
B. hydrochloric acid.
C. lactic acid.
D. carbonic acid.
E. pyruvic acid.
lactic acid.
118
Alex is participating in a 50 meter dash. Predict the most important chemical process his muscles will rely on during this race.
A. aerobic respiration.
B. anaerobic respiration.
C. creatine phosphate breakdown.
D. nuclear reactions.
E. both anaerobic respiration and creatine phosphate breakdown.
both anaerobic respiration and creatine phosphate breakdown.
119
Aerobic respiration
A. produces ATP molecules faster than anaerobic respiration.
B. yields as many as 36 ATP per glucose molecule metabolized.
C. occurs whether oxygen is present or not.
D. occurs entirely in the cytoplasm.
E. occurs in the ribosomes.
yields as many as 36 ATP per glucose molecule metabolized.
120
A lack of glycolytic enzymes within skeletal muscle cells would impair which type of ATP-yielding process?
A. anaerobic respiration
B. aerobic respiration
C. both anaerobic and aerobic respiration
both anaerobic and aerobic respiration
121
A lack of mitochondria within skeletal muscle would impair which ATP-yielding chemical process?
A. anaerobic respiration
B. aerobic respiration
C. both anaerobic and aerobic respiration
aerobic respiration
122
Heather is watching a movie. What type of chemical pathway do her muscles depend upon at this time?
A. anaerobic respiration
B. aerobic respiration
C. both anaerobic and aerobic respiration
aerobic respiration
123
Randy is participating in a strong man competition and is required to pull a yacht as far as he can. Which type of chemical process will his skeletal muscles rely on during this competition?
A. anaerobic respiration
B. aerobic respiration
C. both anaerobic and aerobic respiration
anaerobic respiration
124
Which type of respiration rapidly produces ATP for short time periods?
A. anaerobic respiration
B. aerobic respiration
C. both anaerobic and aerobic respiration
anaerobic respiration
125
When skeletal muscle is producing carbon dioxide and water while making ATP, which chemical processes could be active at this time?
A. anaerobic respiration
B. aerobic respiration
C. both anaerobic and aerobic respiration
aerobic respiration
126
Oxygen deficit represents
A. the amount anaerobic metabolism must increase after exercise.
B. the amount of oxygen converted to lactic acid during exercise.
C. the amount of carbon dioxide that cells need to eliminate.
D. conversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acid.
E. the amount of oxygen that cells need to replenish ATP supplies after exercise.
the amount of oxygen that cells need to replenish ATP supplies after exercise.
127
The elevated oxygen consumption relative to activity level after exercise has ended is called
A. oxygen deficit.
B. oxygen debt.
C. oxygen repayment.
D. recovery oxygen consumption.
E. anaerobic recovery.
recovery oxygen consumption.
128
Callie is a world class marathon runner. Which of the descriptions about her dominant type of skeletal muscle is FALSE?
A. They split ATP slowly.
B. They have large deposits of myoglobin.
C. They are well adapted to anaerobic activity.
D. They have a well developed blood supply.
E. They have low glycogen stores.
they are well adapted to anaerobic activity.
129
What is a cross-bridge?
A. a protein found along the groove of the F-actin double helix
B. a T tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae
C. the combination of myosin heads with active sites on actin molecules
D. the movement of myosin head while attached to actin myofilament
E. after exercise, the oxygen taken in that exceeds the oxygen required for resting metabolism
the combination of myosin heads with active sites on actin molecules
130
What is the power stroke?
A. a protein found along the groove of the F-actin double helix
B. a T tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae
C. the combination of myosin heads with active sites on actin molecules
D. the movement of myosin head while attached to actin myofilament
E. after exercise, the oxygen taken in that exceeds the oxygen required for resting metabolism
the movement of myosin head while attached to actin myofilament
131
What is tropomyosin?
A. a protein found along the groove of the F-actin double helix
B. a T tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae
C. the combination of myosin heads with active sites on actin molecules
D. the movement of myosin head while attached to actin myofilament
E. after exercise, the oxygen taken in that exceeds the oxygen required for resting metabolism
a protein found along the groove of the F-actin double helix
132
What is a triad?
A. a protein found along the groove of the F-actin double helix
B. a T tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae
C. the combination of myosin heads with active sites on actin molecules
D. the movement of myosin head while attached to actin myofilament
E. after exercise, the oxygen taken in that exceeds the oxygen required for resting metabolism
a T tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae
133
What is an oxygen deficit?
A. a protein found along the groove of the F-actin double helix
B. a T tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae
C. the combination of myosin heads with active sites on actin molecules
D. the movement of myosin head while attached to actin myofilament
E. after exercise, the oxygen taken in that exceeds the oxygen required for resting metabolism
after exercise, the oxygen taken in that exceeds the oxygen required for resting metabolism
134
Which of the following correctly describes myoglobin's special function in muscle tissue?
A. breaks down glycogen
B. synthesizes ATP
C. acts as a reservoir for oxygen
D. produces action potentials
E. stores glucose
acts as a reservoir for oxygen
135
Consider the following four phrases and select the one that does not belong with the others.
A. anaerobic metabolism
B. lactic acid production
C. fast twitch fibers
D. fuels runner in a marathon
E. muscle fibers split ATP rapidly
fuels runner in a marathon
136
Which of the following statements concerning fast-twitch muscle fibers is true?
A. They split ATP rapidly.
B. They have large deposits of myoglobin.
C. They are well adapted to aerobic metabolism.
D. They have a well-developed blood supply.
E. They have many mitochondria.
They split ATP rapidly.
137
Intense exercise that results in a great deal of anaerobic activity
A. converts some slow-twitch fibers into fast-twitch fibers.
B. increases muscular strength and mass.
C. enlarges slow-twitch fibers.
D. decreases the efficiency of fast-twitch fibers.
E. decreases muscle strength and mass.
increases muscular strength and mass.
138
Aerobic exercise
A. increases vascularity of muscle.
B. develops fatigue-resistant fast-twitch fibers.
C. can increase the efficiency of slow-twitch fibers.
D. can increase the number of mitochondria in muscle cells.
E. All of these choices are correct.
All of these choices are correct.
139
Muscle hypertrophy results from increased numbers of
A. myofibrils and sarcomeres.
B. muscle fibers.
C. motor units.
D. muscles.
E. muscle cells.
myofibrils and sarcomeres.
140
Increased strength of a trained muscle is due to
A. an increased number of muscle fibers.
B. the nervous system's ability to recruit a large number of motor units simultaneously.
C. elimination of unnecessary enzymes and metabolic pathways.
D. elimination of all fat deposits.
E. elimination of unnecessary connective tissue.
the nervous system's ability to recruit a large number of motor units simultaneously.
141
Betsy took a fall, broke her arm, and when she took the cast off she was alarmed to see that her muscles
A. looked the same as they did before the fall.
B. had undergone atrophy.
C. undergone hypertrophy.
D. seemed to have an increase in blood flow.
had undergone atrophy.
142
Select the term that does not belong with the others.
A. muscle atrophy
B. immobilization
C. decrease in number of myofibrils
D. loss of nerve stimulation
E. increased vascularity
increased vascularity
143
Susan slipped on the ice and was unable to be fully mobile for several days. What disruption to homeostasis would you predict she experienced during her immobile period in terms of her muscular system?
A. Susan's metabolic rate was raised and it initiated sweating.
B. Susan was more cold than usual because her inactivity prevented her muscles from helping to regulate her body temperature.
C. Susan's uninjured muscles overcompensate for the inactive ones by contracting spontaneously.
Susan was more cold than usual because her inactivity prevented her muscles from helping to regulate her body temperature.
144
Maureen is hiking in the cold, and to maintain homeostasis her body begins to
A. increase heat loss from the skin.
B. release chemicals to initiate a high fever.
C. shiver.
D. reduce her blood pressure.
E. vasodilate vessels in her head and neck.
shiver.
145
When comparing smooth and skeletal muscle cells, which of the following statements is true?
A. Smooth muscle cells have striations.
B. The myofilaments in smooth muscle do not form sarcomeres.
C. Smooth muscle cells are larger than skeletal muscle cells.
D. Smooth muscle has a lot of actin and myosin.
E. Smooth muscle cells are multinucleated.
The myofilaments in smooth muscle do not form sarcomeres.
146
Which of the following statements concerning smooth muscle is true?
A. It contains many sarcomeres.
B. Caveolae seem to take the place of the myofibrils.
C. A calcium-calmodulin complex initiates cross-bridge formation.
D. The cells are large and multinuclear.
E. It has a well developed sarcoplasmic reticulum.
A calcium-calmodulin complex initiates cross-bridge formation.
147
In smooth muscle, most of the calcium needed for muscle contraction
A. is in the dense bodies.
B. enters from extracellular fluid.
C. is attached to the intermediate filaments.
D. must be activated by myosin kinase.
E. is stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
enters from extracellular fluid.
148
In smooth muscle, cross-bridging occurs due to
A. calcium binding to troponin.
B. calcium binding to calmodulin.
C. myosin kinase adding a phosphate to myosin heads.
D. both calcium binding to troponin and calmodulin.
E. both calcium binding to calmodulin and myosin kinase adding a phosphate to myosin heads.
both calcium binding to calmodulin and myosin kinase adding a phosphate to myosin heads.
149
Which of the following is NOT true of the latch state of smooth muscle contraction?
A. Myosin phosphatase removes the phosphate group from myosin.
B. It explains why smooth muscle can sustain tension for long periods of time.
C. It occurs when the phosphate is removed while the cross-bridges are attached to actin.
D. It occurs when the phosphate is removed while the cross-bridges are not attached to actin.
E. It allows contraction without a large energy expenditure.
It occurs when the phosphate is removed while the cross-bridges are not attached to actin.
150
Myosin phosphatase
A. activates myosin kinase.
B. forms the cross-bridge.
C. removes phosphate from myosin.
D. binds to calcium-calmodulin complex.
E. opens calcium channels.
removes phosphate from myosin.
151
Visceral smooth muscle
A. may contain groups of cells that function as an independent unit.
B. occurs in sheets and exhibits numerous gap junctions.
C. contracts only when stimulated.
D. does not function as a unit.
E. All of these choices are correct.
occurs in sheets and exhibits numerous gap junctions.
152
Multiunit smooth muscle is located in the
A. gastrocnemius.
B. wall of the GI tract.
C. wall of blood vessels.
D. wall of the heart.
E. reproductive system.
wall of blood vessels.
153
Smooth muscle
A. responds in an all-or-none fashion.
B. depolarizes when both sodium and calcium ions diffuse into the cell.
C. has fast waves of depolarization.
D. has fast waves of repolarization.
E. has a resting membrane potential that is more negative than skeletal muscle fibers.
depolarizes when both sodium and calcium ions diffuse into the cell.
154
Functionally, smooth muscle
A. is well adapted to anaerobic metabolism.
B. exhibits autorhythmic contractions.
C. contracts in response to slow increases in length.
D. is unable to maintain tone.
E. rapidly develops an oxygen debt.
exhibits autorhythmic contractions.
155
In a laboratory experiment, the resting membrane potential of a muscle is measured and is found to be more negative. Which of the following has occurred?
A. hyperpolarization
B. repolarization
C. depolarization
D. isopolarization
E. hypopolarization
hyperpolarization
156
Smooth muscle is regulated by all of the following except
A. the autonomic nervous system.
B. neurotransmitters.
C. the somatic nervous system.
D. hormones.
E. prostaglandins.
the somatic nervous system.
157
T/F
The type of neurotransmitter or hormone that binds to receptors on smooth muscle plasma membranes determines the response of the muscle.
False
158
T/F
The diffusion of calcium ions into a smooth muscle cell does not depolarize the membrane so no action potential occurs.
True
159
An antibody test on smooth muscle reveals fewer dense bodies and intermediate filaments in a patient with a colon disorder. What is the purpose of these structures?
A. can rapidly develop action potentials in smooth muscle cells
B. shallow invaginations of cell membrane
C. maintain relatively constant tension in smooth muscle for a period of time
D. part of the intracellular cytoskeleton
E. act as enzymes that remove phosphate from myosin
part of the intracellular cytoskeleton
160
What are caveolae?
A. can rapidly develop action potentials
B. shallow invaginations of cell membrane
C. relatively constant tension maintained for a period of time
D. intracellular cytoskeleton
E. enzyme that removes phosphate from myosin
shallow invaginations of cell membrane
161
What is the role of myosin phosphatase?
A. can rapidly develop action potentials
B. shallow invaginations of cell membrane
C. relatively constant tension maintained for a period of time
D. intracellular cytoskeleton
E. enzyme that removes phosphate from myosin
enzyme that removes phosphate from myosin
162
What is the role of pacemaker cells?
A. can rapidly develop action potentials
B. shallow invaginations of cell membrane
C. relatively constant tension maintained for a period of time
D. intracellular cytoskeleton
E. enzyme that removes phosphate from myosin
can rapidly develop action potentials
163
A cancer patient is told by their physician that their colon is lacking smooth muscle tone. What does this mean?
A. The colon is developing action potentials too rapidly.
B. The colon has too many shallow invaginations of cell membranes.
C. The colon is unable to maintain constant tension for sustained periods of time.
D. The intracellular cytoskeleton is overactive.
The colon is unable to maintain constant tension for sustained periods of time.
164
Cardiac muscle cells are like skeletal muscle cells in that they both
A. have striations.
B. depolarize as a result of sodium and calcium influxes.
C. possess intercalated disks.
D. lack sarcomeres.
E. are multinucleated.
have striations.
165
Which of the following is NOT an age related change in skeletal muscle?
A. loss of muscle strength
B. loss of synapse surface area
C. loss of fast-twitch fibers
D. decreased recovery time
E. decrease in motor units
decreased recovery time
166
Curare blocks acetylcholine receptors at the motor end plate. This would result in
A. increased stimulation of the muscle.
B. more acetylcholinesterase production.
C. lack of calcium uptake by the muscle fiber.
D. inability of the muscle fiber to respond to nervous stimulation.
E. sustained contraction of the muscle.
inability of the muscle fiber to respond to nervous stimulation.
167
A child ingested an organophosphate poison used to kill insects. Soon the child's muscles began spastic contractions. Predict what occurred at the synaptic cleft.
A. decreased release of acetylcholine from presynaptic neurons
B. increased accumulation of acetylcholine in the synapse
C. the poison binds to acetylcholine receptors and stimulates them
D. increased breakdown of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft
E. Both increased accumulation of acetylcholine in the synapse and increased breakdown of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft.
increased accumulation of acetylcholine in the synapse
168
One cause of spastic paralysis might be
A. inhibition of acetylcholine molecules.
B. blockage of acetylcholine receptors.
C. inhibition of acetylcholinesterase.
D. destruction of synaptic vesicles.
E. increase in the amount of acetylcholinesterase.
inhibition of acetylcholinesterase.
169
Which of the following occurs during recovery from oxygen deficit?
A. an elevated level of anaerobic metabolism
B. depletion of reserves of creatine phosphate
C. conversion of excess lactic acid to glucose
D. glycogen degradation to provide creatine
E. depressed level of aerobic respiration
conversion of excess lactic acid to glucose
170
Anabolic steroids can do all of the following except
A. increase muscle size and strength.
B. cause testicular atrophy.
C. cause cardiovascular disease.
D. increase the number of muscle fibers.
E. increase total muscle mass.
increase the number of muscle fibers.
171
The condition of painful, spasmodic contractions of muscles is referred to as
A. cramps.
B. fibrositis.
C. fibromyalgia.
D. muscular dystrophy.
E. paralysis.
cramps.
172
Inflammation of the fibrous connective tissue resulting in stiffness and soreness is
A. cramps.
B. fibrositis.
C. fibrosis.
D. muscular dystrophy.
E. paralysis.
fibrositis.
173
Muscular dystrophy is characterized by
A. chronic muscle pain.
B. decreased size of muscle fibers.
C. spastic contractions of muscles.
D. replacement of muscle cells by connective tissue.
E. hypertrophy of muscle tissue.
replacement of muscle cells by connective tissue.
174
Which of the following is NOT true of muscular atrophy?
A. It is irreversible.
B. It can be caused by disuse.
C. It can be caused by denervation.
D. Transcutaneous stimulation can help prevent it.
E. Muscle fibers are replaced by connective tissue.
It is irreversible.
175
Which of the following is NOT a known effect of illegal use of anabolic steroids in large dosages?
A. increased muscle size
B. kidney damage
C. diminished testosterone secretion
D. increased cardiovascular fitness
E. sterility
increased cardiovascular fitness
176
What would result from a lack of extracellular calcium ions at the neuromuscular junction?
A. Excessive synaptic vesicles would fuse and release too much ACh, overstimulating the myofiber.
B. Synaptic vesicles would fail to fuse and ACh would not be released.
C. Nothing would happen because extracellular calcium does not play a role in muscle stimulation.
D. The neuron must use its intracellular calcium to make the vesicles fuse.
E. Potassium ions are used in place of calcium to ensure the vesicles fuse.
Synaptic vesicles would fail to fuse and ACh would not be released.
177
Consider a chemical that blocks the action of acetylcholinesterase. What effect does this have on muscles?
A. It would cause paralysis.
B. It would cause action potentials to be inhibited, thereby rendering the muscle useless.
C. The body would increase it's production of acetylcholine to compensate.
D. The axons of the motor neurons would atrophy and the muscle would weaken.
E. The muscle would have no way to relax, and spastic contractions would result.
The muscle would have no way to relax, and spastic contractions would result.
178
A toxin released by the anaerobic bacterium Clostridium botulinum causes the food-borne illness known as botulism, which inhibits the release of ACh at the neuromuscular junction. What effect does this have on the person?
A. It causes flaccid paralysis, and if it affects the respiratory muscles, can result in death.
B. It disrupts the balance between ACh and acetylcholinesterase, leading to spastic contractions.
C. The brain compensates by producing more ACh, limiting the illness to only a few hours.
D. The jaws are most affected, and it results in "lockjaw."
E. Problems only result when the individual has low immunity.
It causes flaccid paralysis, and if it affects the respiratory muscles, can result in death.
179
Atrophy at the neuromuscular junction that naturally occurs with age would have what effect on muscles?
A. It would stimulate the nervous system to increase the speed in which it sends action potentials to the myofiber.
B. It would stimulate muscle cramps.
C. It would decrease the number of action potentials sent to the myofiber.
D. It would cause an increase in the amount of ACh released by the neurons to compensate.
E. It would have no effect on the muscles.
It would decrease the number of action potentials sent to the myofiber.
180
During a muscle fiber contraction, which of the following decreases in size?
____ A band
____entire sarcomere
____ H zone
____ I band
_____ A band
__X__entire sarcomere
__X__ H zone
__X__ I band
181
T/F
In a contracted muscle, the A bands do narrow because the length of the myosin myofilaments changes.
False
182
Shivering raises body temperature because:
____it decreases warm blood flow to the core while increasing flow to the muscles
____it depresses metabolism
____it increases heat production up to 18 times that of resting levels
____the process of muscle contraction produces heat
_____it decreases warm blood flow to the core while increasing flow to the muscles
_____it depresses metabolism
__X__it increases heat production up to 18 times that of resting levels
__X__the process of muscle contraction produces heat
183
Why does muscle activity affect the temperature of the body?
A. The rate of chemical reactions increases in muscle fibers during contraction, so the rate of heat production also increases.
B. Muscle contraction generates pyrogens which reset the body's internal thermostat to a higher temperature.
C. Muscle activity directs more warm blood to the muscles away from the central core causing a cooling effect on your internal organs.
D. Increased muscle activity causes a rise in adipose stores which increases the insulation value of the body.
The rate of chemical reactions increases in muscle fibers during contraction, so the rate of heat production also increases.
184
