development 3 Flashcards
(160 cards)
1
Q
What is the primary focus of developmental psychology?
A
Describing and explaining changes in thought, behavior, reasoning, and functioning across the lifespan due to biological, individual, and environmental influences.
2
Q
How does developmental psychology differ from other psychology fields?
A
It focuses on normative or quasi-normative changes related to age or life span, rather than idiosyncratic phenomena.
3
Q
Name the three interconnected domains of human development.
A
Biosocial, cognitive, and psychosocial development.
4
Q
What is the difference between growth and maturation?
A
Growth is quantitative change (size, height), while maturation is qualitative change (structure, properties, development driven by genetics).
5
Q
Explain cephalocaudal development with an example.
A
Development proceeds from head to toe.
Example: babies gain head control before they can walk.
6
Q
Explain proximodistal development with an example.
A
Development proceeds from the center of the body outward.
Example: children gain control of shoulders before fingers.
7
Q
At what age do babies typically quadruple their birth weight?
A
Around 2 years old.
8
Q
What role do fontanelles play in birth?
A
They allow the neonate’s skull to compress during delivery and accommodate brain growth.
9
Q
Which body parts mature first during skeletal development?
A
The skull and hands.
10
Q
What happens during muscular development after birth?
A
Muscle fibers mature, gaining proteins and salts, and muscles in the head and neck develop first.
11
Q
What does the development of the neural tube eventually form?
A
The brain regions and the spinal cord.
12
Q
What discovery challenged the belief that no new neurons form after birth?
A
New neurons can form in the hippocampus and olfactory bulb throughout life.
13
Q
Which brain regions develop fastest postnatally?
A
Sub-cortical structures and primary motor/sensory areas of the cerebral cortex.
14
Q
Who proposed the Range-of-Reaction principle?
A
Genes set the boundaries for development and environment determines where within that range a person falls
15
Q
Define the Canalization Principle.
A
The degree to which genes restrict development to a narrow range of outcomes, regardless of environment.
16
Q
What is a heritability coefficient and how is it calculated?
A
It estimates genetic influence: H = (r identical twins - r fraternal twins) × 2.
17
Q
What does a high heritability coefficient indicate?
A
Genes likely make a strong contribution to the trait.
18
Q
According to Watson, what primarily determines development?
A
Environmental influence.
19
Q
What is the primary method used in behavioral genetics to study nature vs. nurture?
A
Twin and adoption studies.
20
Q
What does the continuity perspective emphasize in development?
A
Gradual, additive changes over time without sudden shifts.
21
Q
What is the major focus of the germinal period in prenatal development?
A
Cell division, migration, and implantation into the uterine wall.
22
Q
When does the embryonic period occur and what is its primary focus?
A
Weeks 3 to 8; it focuses on organogenesis and major body structure formation.
23
Q
What marks the beginning of the fetal period?
A
The 9th week of gestation, characterized by growth and organ maturation.
24
Q
What is the function of the placenta?
A
Acts as a filter for nutrients and waste between mother and fetus.
25
Define the proximodistal trend in development.
Development that proceeds from the center of the body outward.
26
Define cephalocaudal development.
Development that occurs from head to toe.
27
What is the role of the neural tube in prenatal development?
It forms the early brain and spinal cord.
28
At what stage does the blastocyst form and implant?
During the germinal period, typically days 5 to 10 post-conception.
29
Which prenatal period is most sensitive to teratogens and why?
The embryonic period, due to organ formation and differentiation.
30
What is apoptosis and what role does it play in development?
Programmed cell death that refines body structures during development.
31
What are the three germ layers formed during gastrulation?
Ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm.
32
What body systems does the ectoderm develop into?
Skin and nervous system.
33
What structures arise from the mesoderm?
Muscles, bones, and circulatory system.
34
What does the endoderm become?
Digestive tract and respiratory system.
35
Which hormone is crucial in maintaining pregnancy?
Progesterone.
36
How does smoking during pregnancy affect the fetus?
Increased risk of low birthweight, facial deformities, and cleft palate.
37
What is the role of the yolk sac during early development?
Initial site for blood cell production before the liver takes over.
38
What structure eventually becomes the umbilical cord?
The allantois.
39
Why is folic acid critical in early pregnancy?
It helps prevent neural tube defects such as spina bifida.
40
Which part of the brain develops first in the fetus?
The hindbrain, which controls vital functions like heartbeat and breathing.
41
What marks the beginning and end of the germinal period?
Begins at fertilization (conception) and ends with the implantation of the blastocyst (~7-14 days after fertilization).
42
What are the two cell types the blastocyst differentiates into, and what do they become?
Trophoblast (shell) becomes support structures; Embryoblast (nucleus) becomes the embryo.
43
What happens if a zygote fails to implant into the uterus?
It will not survive. About 50–75% of zygotes fail to implant.
44
What four support structures are formed after implantation?
Amnion, yolk sac, allantois, and chorion.
45
What is the function of the placenta during pregnancy?
Facilitates metabolic exchange: oxygen, nutrients, CO2, and waste transfer between mother and embryo.
46
What do the three germ layers differentiate into?
Ectoderm: nervous system/skin/hair; Mesoderm: muscles/bones/cardiovascular; Endoderm: digestive/lungs/internal organs.
47
What is the primitive streak and what does it form?
A structure in the ectoderm that folds into a neural tube, which becomes the brain and spinal cord.
48
What does cephalo-caudal development refer to?
Development that proceeds from head to toe.
49
What does proximo-distal development refer to?
Development that proceeds from the center of the body outward.
50
When does the heart begin to pulsate and in what direction does organ development proceed?
In the 4th week, development begins cephalo-caudally.
51
When do limbs and webbed digits form, and how?
From the 5th week: arms/legs grow, followed by webbed digits.
52
When does the embryo gain the ability to move, and what initiates it?
Between weeks 5-8, due to brain development.
53
At what point does the embryo become a fetus?
At the beginning of the 9th week post-fertilization.
54
What gene determines male sex development, and how?
SRY gene on the Y chromosome triggers the indifferent gonad to develop into testes.
55
What process causes the brain to develop 6x in size between months 4–6?
Neurogenesis and synaptogenesis.
56
What is the age of viability and what allows survival at this stage?
Around 22–24 weeks; advanced CNS development and modern healthcare.
57
What fetal developments occur in months 7–9 that support survival?
Maturation of neurological, respiratory, cardiovascular systems.
58
How does the fetus respond to external stimuli in the third trimester?
It can hear, respond to sounds, and recognize the mother’s voice.
59
What is apoptosis and why is it important in prenatal brain development?
Programmed cell death that removes unnecessary neurons to optimize function.
60
What is the sensitive-period principle in teratology?
Effects of teratogens are most severe when exposure occurs during rapid development of that organ/system.
61
What hormone initiates the birth process by triggering uterine contractions?
Oxytocin.
62
What are the three stages of birth?
Stage 1: Uterine contractions and cervix dilation; Stage 2: Baby exits through the vaginal opening; Stage 3: Expulsion of placenta and umbilical cord.
63
At what stage is an episiotomy sometimes performed?
Stage 2.
64
What does the Apgar Scale assess?
Color, heart rate, reflex irritability, muscle tone, and respiratory effort.
65
What is considered a healthy Apgar score at five minutes?
7 or higher.
66
What does a persistent Babinski reflex in adults indicate?
Neurological damage.
67
Which reflex involves a baby turning its head toward a touch on the cheek?
Rooting reflex.
68
When does the Moro reflex typically disappear?
Between 4-6 months.
69
What does the NBAS evaluate?
Neurological development and response to environmental stimuli in newborns.
70
What are the four categories assessed by the NBAS?
Interactions, motor behaviors, physiological control, and stress responses.
71
What are 'fidgety' general movements?
Small, variable movements typical in infants aged 3-5 months; absence may predict cerebral palsy.
72
What is the significance of the golden hour after birth?
It promotes bonding and early breastfeeding.
73
What causes a newborn's skin color to change from blue to pink?
Reoxygenation of blood.
74
What are the first reflexes to disappear in early infancy?
Primitive reflexes such as the stepping and swimming reflex.
75
Which reflex involves a baby stepping when held upright?
Stepping reflex.
76
What are the basic emotional expressions present at birth?
Pleasure, interest, and displeasure.
77
At what age do self-conscious emotions begin to appear?
Around 11-12 months.
78
Which sense is least developed at birth?
Sight.
79
What is the function of the glabellar reflex?
Blinking when the forehead is tapped; its persistence may indicate Parkinson’s disease.
80
What reflex is tested by stroking the sole of a newborn’s foot?
Babinski reflex.
81
What sensory function is relatively immature at birth and why?
Vision is relatively immature at birth due to undeveloped visual acuity (20/600), and binocular vision cannot develop in utero.
82
At what age does binocular vision typically develop, and what does it allow?
Between 2-4 months, allowing development of depth perception.
83
Describe the purpose and mechanism of the visual cliff experiment.
It tests depth perception using a Plexiglas-covered table with shallow and deep sides; crawling infants avoid the deep side.
84
What is social referencing, and how is it tested in infants?
Using adult emotional cues to guide behavior; tested with visual cliff and observing reactions to facial expressions.
85
What is the externality effect in infant vision?
Infants initially focus on the outer contours of objects rather than internal features, diminishing after 1 month.
86
How does infant perception of the human face evolve from birth to 6 months?
Newborns explore outer features, then internal ones (eyes/mouth); by 5-6 months they recognize expressions.
87
Explain cephalocaudal and proximodistal trends in motor development.
Development proceeds from head to toe (cephalocaudal) and from center of the body outward (proximodistal).
88
Describe how myelinisation supports motor development.
Myelinisation increases neural efficiency, progressing from spinal cord to cortex, enabling motor control.
89
What distinguishes gross motor from fine motor skills?
Gross motor involves large movements (e.g., walking), fine motor involves precise hand/finger control (e.g., grasping).
90
What reflex is involved in newborn grasping and how does it evolve?
Palmar grasp reflex evolves into voluntary grasping by 3-4 months, maturing to pincer grip by 9-10 months.
91
What are tertiary circular reactions and when do they occur?
Intentional experimentation with actions to observe outcomes, occurring from 12-18 months.
92
At what substage of Piaget’s sensorimotor intelligence does intentional, goal-directed behavior first appear?
Phase 4 (8-12 months): coordination of secondary schemas.
93
Define object permanence and at what age it becomes reliable.
Understanding objects exist when out of sight; develops clearly around 8-12 months, but not fully until 18-24 months.
94
What is the A-not-B error and what does it indicate?
Infants search where object was previously found, not last seen; shows incomplete object permanence (8-12 months).
95
What sensory function is assessed using the AOAE test?
Hearing: a small earpiece plays clicks to test ear responses shortly after birth.
96
How does auditory development influence language perception by 4 months?
Infants attend to voices and begin developing expectations of speech.
97
What type of schema is formed during the sensorimotor stage, and what does it allow?
Behavioral schemas allowing interaction with environment and cognitive development.
98
What is symbolic function and when does it emerge?
Ability to mentally represent objects/events; begins during Phase 6 of sensorimotor stage (18-24 months).
99
Why are reaching and grasping critical in development?
They enable exploration and understanding of the physical world and object properties.
100
Describe a developmental milestone progression for gross motor skills.
Sits unsupported (6-7.5 months), crawls (8-10), walks (12-14), runs (18-20), jumps (26-29 months).
101
What is centration according to Piaget?
The tendency of a child in the preoperational stage to focus on one aspect of a situation and neglect others.
102
Define irreversibility in Piaget’s preoperational thought.
The inability to mentally reverse an action, such as understanding that water can be poured back into its original container.
103
What is egocentrism in early childhood cognition?
The child’s difficulty in seeing the world from another person’s point of view.
104
How does the concept of conservation develop in Piaget’s stages?
Children fail conservation tasks in the preoperational stage due to centration and irreversibility.
105
What is the role of symbolic function in preoperational thought?
It allows children to use symbols or mental representations to think about objects and events.
106
Define animism in Piagetian theory.
The belief that inanimate objects have lifelike qualities and are capable of action.
107
What is fast mapping in language development?
The ability of children to quickly connect new words with their meanings after minimal exposure.
108
What is overregularization in grammar development?
Applying general grammatical rules to irregular words, like saying 'goed' instead of 'went'.
109
What are the major developments in gross motor skills during early childhood?
Improved balance, running, jumping, climbing, and coordination of large muscles.
110
What are the major developments in fine motor skills during early childhood?
Better control over hand and finger movements for tasks like drawing, writing, and buttoning.
111
What is theory of mind and when does it typically begin to develop?
Understanding that others have thoughts, beliefs, and perspectives different from one's own; typically develops around age 4.
112
How do children demonstrate understanding of false belief tasks?
By recognizing that another person can hold a belief that is different from reality and from their own knowledge.
113
What is scaffolding in Vygotsky’s theory?
Support provided by adults or peers that helps a child perform a task until they can do it independently.
114
How does private speech function in cognitive development?
It helps children plan activities and strategies, serving as a tool for self-guidance.
115
What are the four types of parenting styles described by Baumrind?
Authoritative, authoritarian, permissive, and uninvolved.
116
How does authoritative parenting influence child development?
Associated with high self-esteem, good social skills, and academic success.
117
What characterizes authoritarian parenting?
High control, low warmth; often leads to children with lower social competence and higher anxiety.
118
What is the focus of Erikson’s third stage of psychosocial development?
Initiative vs. guilt: balancing the urge to take initiative with potential feelings of guilt.
119
Define gender constancy and when it develops.
Understanding that gender is stable over time and situations; develops by age 6 or 7.
120
What is gender schema theory?
Children form gender-based cognitive frameworks that guide behavior and information processing.
121
What is the core concept of temperament in developmental psychology?
Temperament refers to individual differences in emotional reactivity and self-regulation, believed to be biologically based.
122
Describe Rothbart’s three dimensions of temperament.
Surgency/extraversion, negative affectivity, and effortful control.
123
What does effortful control in temperament entail?
The ability to focus attention, suppress inappropriate responses, and regulate emotions voluntarily.
124
How is behavioral inhibition related to temperament and later anxiety?
Children high in behavioral inhibition are more likely to develop anxiety disorders due to heightened sensitivity to novelty.
125
What is the still-face paradigm and what does it demonstrate?
An experimental method where the caregiver maintains a neutral face; infants typically respond with distress, showing social sensitivity.
126
Explain the concept of goodness of fit.
The compatibility between a child’s temperament and the environmental demands or parenting style.
127
What are primary emotions and when do they emerge?
Basic emotions like joy, anger, sadness, and fear; appear within the first 6 months of life.
128
What are self-conscious emotions and when do they develop?
Emotions like shame, guilt, embarrassment, and pride that emerge around 18-24 months, requiring self-awareness.
129
How does attachment security influence emotional regulation?
Secure attachment fosters better emotion regulation due to consistent caregiver responsiveness.
130
What are the four types of attachment in Ainsworth’s Strange Situation?
Secure, avoidant, ambivalent (resistant), and disorganized.
131
What characterizes avoidant attachment in the Strange Situation?
Infant avoids or ignores caregiver after separation, showing little emotional response.
132
What behavior signifies ambivalent attachment?
Infant is distressed by caregiver departure and ambivalent upon return, seeking and resisting contact.
133
What does disorganized attachment suggest?
A lack of a coherent strategy for dealing with separation and reunion; often linked to trauma or inconsistent caregiving.
134
What neural system is involved in the emotional reactivity seen in temperament?
The amygdala, especially its heightened response to threat or novelty.
135
How does parental sensitivity influence attachment outcomes?
Consistently responsive caregiving is associated with secure attachment.
136
What role does oxytocin play in parent-infant bonding?
Oxytocin is linked to social bonding and trust, enhancing maternal behaviors and infant attachment.
137
What is social referencing and when does it emerge?
Infants look to caregivers' emotional reactions to guide their own behavior; emerges around 8-10 months.
138
How does the concept of internal working models relate to attachment?
Children develop mental representations of self and others based on early attachment experiences.
139
What is separation anxiety and when is it most prominent?
Fear of being separated from a caregiver, typically peaking between 8-14 months.
140
What does the mirror self-recognition task assess?
Self-awareness, typically emerging around 18 months when toddlers recognize themselves in a mirror.
141
What does the term 'self-concept' refer to in early childhood development?
A child’s understanding of themselves, including traits, abilities, and identity.
142
What is the difference between self-concept and self-esteem?
Self-concept is a cognitive assessment of one's traits, while self-esteem refers to the emotional evaluation of one’s worth.
143
Which Eriksonian conflict is most relevant during early childhood?
Initiative vs. Guilt, where children assert power and control through social interactions and play.
144
What is the false belief task used to assess?
A child’s understanding that others can hold beliefs different from reality, indicating development of theory of mind.
145
How does the understanding of emotions change in early childhood?
Children become better at labeling, predicting, and managing emotions in themselves and others.
146
Define emotion regulation in the context of early childhood.
The ability to monitor, evaluate, and modify emotional responses to achieve goals.
147
What is prosocial behavior and when does it typically emerge?
Voluntary behavior intended to benefit others, such as helping or sharing, emerging around age 2.
148
What are the key components of emotional competence?
* Awareness of emotions
* Ability to express emotions
* Emotion regulation
149
What is the role of empathy in moral development?
Empathy drives concern for others and promotes prosocial behavior.
150
What distinguishes sympathy from empathy?
Sympathy involves concern for others, while empathy involves sharing and understanding their feelings.
151
What are the two major approaches to moral development in early childhood?
* Piaget’s heteronomous morality
* Kohlberg’s stages of moral reasoning
152
What characterizes heteronomous morality?
Rules are seen as fixed and unchangeable, and morality is judged by consequences.
153
What role does play serve in early childhood development?
Play supports cognitive, social, and emotional development and allows children to practice adult roles.
154
What are the four types of play identified by Parten?
* Solitary
* Parallel
* Associative
* Cooperative
155
Define gender identity and its development.
Gender identity is a child's sense of being male or female, typically established by age 3.
156
What is gender constancy?
Understanding that gender remains the same over time and across situations.
157
How do peers influence gender-typed behavior?
Peers reinforce gender norms through play preferences and social approval.
158
What is the gender schema theory?
Children develop gender-related expectations through societal messages and use them to guide behavior.
159
What is the impact of harsh discipline on early emotional development?
Harsh discipline can lead to increased aggression, fear, and poorer emotional regulation.
160
What parenting style is linked with the most positive child outcomes?
Authoritative parenting—characterized by warmth, responsiveness, and clear boundaries.
