DPD: Amir Sam 6 Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

What are the 2 types of polycythaemia?

A

Primary: polycythaemia vera
Secondary: secondary to chronic hypoxia in COPD, tumour producing excess EPO (e.g. renal cell cancer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

List 3 broad causes of thrombocytopenia

A

Not making platelets (e.g. BM infiltration, lymphoma, leukaemia, drugs e.g. chemotherapy)
Destroying platelets (e.g. consumption in DIC)
Pooling of platelets (e.g. pooling in spleen in portal HTN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If a patient is anaemic, what should you look at?

A

Low MCV: haematenics - IDA, B thalassemia

Normal MCV: Infection, Inflammation (ACD), malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are 5 causes of raised MCV? What is the mneumonic? What are the clues to these?

A
Alcoholics May Have Liver Failure
Alcohol: Hx, raised GGT
Myleodysplasia: pancytopenia
Hypothyroidism: low T4, high TSH
Liver disease: Hx, exam
Folate/ B12 deficiency: Hx (small bowel disease, gastrectomy)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

List 7 manifestations of polycythemia

A
Headache
Pruritus after a hot bath
Blurred vision (hyper viscosity)
Tinnitus
Thrombosis (stroke, DVT)
Gangrene
Choreiform movements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

List 4 complications of sickle cell anaemia and the treatment of each

A

Acute painful crises: Analgesia, O2, IV fluids, Abx
Stroke: Exchange blood transfusion
Sequestration crises: splenectomy for repeated episodes
Gallstones, chronic cholecystitis: Cholecystectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is affected in multiple myeloma? What are the features caused by this?

A

Calcium: polyuria, polydipsia (hypercalcaemia causes nephrogenic DI), constipation. U+Es
Renal failure: Raised urea + creatinine. U+Es
Anaemia: SOB, lethargy. FBC count
Bone: fracture, bone pain, osteoporosis. DEXA scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why are patients with multiple myeloma predisposed to infection?

A

Increased production of a immunoglobulin means reduced production of other immunoglobulins so they are prone to infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What may occur if vertebrae are affected in multiple myeloma?

A

Cord Compression

Can cause spastic paraparesis (partial paralysis of lower limbs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does anaemia with reticulocytosis indicate?

A

Attempt to make more RBCs because of: Haemolysis or Haemorrhage (increased demand for red cell production)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does anaemia with a reduced reticulocyte count indicate?

A

Pathology affecting bone marrow:
Parvovirus B19 infection
Aplastic crisis in patients with SCA
Blood transfusion (interferes with production)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for diabetes? What range indicates impaired glucose tolerance?

A
Diabetes
Fasting > 7
Random ≥ 11.1
Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT)
75g OGTT
2-hour glc: 7.8-11
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Give 4 drugs used in the treatment of T2DM

A

Metformin: reduces insulin resistance
Sulphonylureas: stimulate insulin release
DPP-4 Inhibitors: inhibit enzyme break down of GLP-1
GLP-1 Agonists: stimulate glucose-induced insulin release. Also inhibit glucagon release, reduce appetite + cause weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 3 classes of complications that may arise in T2DM? Give 3 examples of each

A
Microvascular
Retinopathy
Nephropathy: raised urine albumin: creatinine ratio (ACR) 
Neuropathy  
Macrovascular 
MI 
Stroke 
Peripheral Vascular Disease  
Metabolic 
DKA 
Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state  
Hypoglycaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is sliding scale insulin? When is it used?

A

Variable rate IV insulin infusion: rate determined by blood glucose
If pt is not eating or unwell (e.g. surgery, sepsis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

List 4 signs of Graves disease

A

Proptosis/ exophthalmus
Pretibial myxoedema
Tremor
Smooth goitre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

List 5 symptoms of Graves disease

A
Weight loss
Increased appetite
Irritability
Palpitations
Irregular periods
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How do primary and secondary hyperthyroidism differ?

A

Primary: High T4/T3, suppressed TSH
Secondary: High T4/T3, high TSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What can be found in the blood of a patient with Graves disease?

A

TSH receptor stimulating antibodies

Graves’ is caused by an antibody that mimics TSH + stimulates the TSH receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What pattern may be seen on a nuclear medicine scan of the thyroid with increased uptake?

A

Diffuse increased uptake: Graves
Need TSH/ something that acts like TSH for uptake (ie TSH receptor antibody)

Hot nodule= autonomous
A toxic thyroid nodule producing excess thyroid hormone would appear hot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

List 4 risk factors for thyroid cancer

A

Radiation
FH
Rapid enlargement/ compression
Lymphadenopathy

22
Q

What investigations are appropriate for thyroid cancer?

A

USS: look for suspicious features
Uptake scan: cold nodules
FNAC (FNA cytology)

23
Q

What treatment may be used for thyroid cancer?

A

Surgery: Papillary, Follicular, Medullary (check FH), Anaplastic (poor prognosis)
Following Surgery
Thyroxine (to replace lost thyroid function)
Radioiodine (in high risk pts)

24
Q

What are the 2 types of prolactinoma?

A

Macroprolactinoma: causes compression of the optic chiasm= bitemporal hemianopia
Microprolactinomas: DONT compress the optic chiasm

25
List 3 symptoms caused by prolactinomas
Galactorrhoea Amenorrhoea Sexual dysfunction
26
What is the first line treatment of prolactinomas? How do these work?
Dopamine agonists e.g. cabergoline, bromocriptine Shrink prolactinomas + reduce prolactin level Never do surgery for prolactinoma before DA as these shrink the tumour
27
What condition causes obstructive sleep apnoea and carpel tunnel syndrome?
Acromegaly OSA: excess soft tissue in neck CTS: excess soft tissue in carpal tunnel compressing median nerve
28
What tests are used in diagnosis of acromegaly?
IGF-1: high | OGTT: GH won't be suppressed
29
What is an Insulin Tolerance Test?
Normal: Causes hypoglycaemia, which leads to a rise in cortisol + GH Abnormal: GH + cortisol remain low in hypopituitarism
30
What is a short synACTHen test?
Normal: cortisol rises Abnormal: No rise in cortisol, indicates adrenal insufficiency
31
What is the dexamethasone suppression test?
Normal: suppresses ACTH + thus suppresses cortisol Abnormal: ACTH remains high thus cortisol remains high e.g. ACTH secreting pituitary tumour
32
List 3 discriminatory signs of Cushing's. What other indication may there be?
Bruising + Thin skin Proximal Myopathy Purple striae, > 1cm wide diabetes, HTN + osteoporosis at a young age
33
How do you determine the cause of amennhorea?
Pregnancy: Urine BHCG Hypothalamus: low BMI + lots of exercise= functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea Pituitary: excess prolactin (prolactinoma) or pituitary tumour (compressing cells that make LH + FSH- low) Thyroid: hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Check TFTs Ovaries: PCOS: excess androgens/ hirsutism Ovarian failure: High FSH due to lack of negative feedback, as less oestradiol + less inhibins
34
List 3 features of hypokalaemia
Weakness Arrhythmia Polyuria: caused by nephrogenic DI Low K+ leads to ADH resistance (same effect as hypercalceamia)
35
What are the 3 main differential causes for hypokalaemia?
GI: Vomiting Diuretics Primary hyperaldosteronism: aldosterone will be very high, renin will be low due to negative feedback
36
Give 2 causes of high urine osmolality
Dehydration | HHS
37
What may cause low urine osmolality?
Diabetes insipidus
38
What helps you remember the effect of PTH on phosphate?
"Phosphate Trashing Hormone" High PTH= Low Phosphate Low PTH= High Phosphate
39
What levels of calcium, phosphate and PTH indicate Primary Hyperparathyroidism?
High Calcium Low Phosphate High PTH
40
What levels of calcium, phosphate and PTH indicate malignancy?
High Calcium Normal Phosphate Low PTH
41
Which 2 hormones control levels of calcium?
Vitamin D | PTH
42
What levels of calcium, phosphate and PTH indicate hypoparathyroidism?
Low Calcium High Phosphate Low PTH
43
What levels of calcium, phosphate and PTH indicate vitamin D deficiency?
Low Calcium Low Phosphate High PTH
44
What levels of calcium, phosphate and PTH indicate renal failure?
Low calcium High phosphate: not filtering + excreting it out through kidneys High PTH: No hydroxylation of Vitamin D so low calcitriol + low calcium, Causes secondary hyperparathyroidism
45
Give 2 examples of pre-renal pathology causing AKI
Hypovolaemia | Sepsis
46
Give an example of renal pathology causing AKI. How may this be detected?
Drugs causing Glomerulonephritis | Active urine sediment: blood + protein in urine
47
Give an example of a post renal pathology causing AKI. How may this be detected?
Obstruction | USS: Hydronephrosis, dilation of pelvis
48
How do you detect renal artery stenosis?
``` Magnetic Resonance Angiography (MRA) Asymmetrical kidneys (as not perfusing one side) ```
49
What indicates bilateral renal artery stenosis?
Deterioration of renal function with ACE inhibitors as causes drop in GFR
50
Which 5 types of arthritis may present with psoriasis?
``` Symmetrical Polyarthropathy (looks exactly like RA) Asymmetrical Oligoarthropathy (more common + affects distal joints) Arthritis Mutilans (telescoping of the fingers) Large Joints (e.g. swollen knee) Axial Skeleton (spondyloarthritis e.g. sacroiliitis) ```