Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Advanced EMT > Exam 1 Review > Flashcards

Exam 1 Review Flashcards

1
Q

Function of NREMT

A

Asses competence of prospective EMTs through a valid testing process widely accepted across the country and agreed upon. Allows for easier reciprocity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who regulates standards under which EMT provide care?

A

State EMS office or agency (SNHD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What did Nevada Highway Traffic Safety Administration establish?

A

National standards of EMS education.

Fell under organization due to original focus on traffic safety and trauma (The White Paper).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Medical Director

A

Ultimately determines what meds AEMT can give. Reason why national registry defers to local protocols.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What determines medication administration?

A

Area of work (rural vs. city)
Risk/benefit
Medical Director
Local protocols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is negligence?

A

Failure to provide the same care that someone with similar training would provide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is proximate cause?

A

Must be proven if someone is being sued for negligence. Direct relationship between pt’s injury and AEMT’s actions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is your Legal Duty to Act?

A

You have a legal duty to provide medical care whether you are a witness of responding to the call.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Standard of Care

A

The manner in which you are require to act or behave as an AEMT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Good Samaritan Laws

A

Designed to protect people who try to help in emergency situation. Can protect from liability if determined that you provided good faith care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What kinds of injuries and/illnesses require transport to a specialty facility?

A 
Trauma
Burn
Stroke 
Cardiac 
Pediatric
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What do you do if you get stuck with a sharp?

A

Inform partner to take over. Notify supervisor. Finish the call.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What do you do if you are transporting a patient to the hospital with minor injuries when you see a major car accident with potentially multiple patients?

A

Call dispatch and inform them of the MVA. Continue transporting to the hospital.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When do you change a portable O2 tank?

A

500 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

DNR Requirements

A

Pt must be deemed mentally competent at the time of signing DNR.
Must be signed by physician
Notes diagnosis/terminal condition
Must have physical copy of DNR for EMS to honor wishes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What happens to a lung with COPD?

A

Alveoli lose elasticity and shape making it hard to exhale.
Air gets trapped in lungs.
Bronchial tubes become inflamed and narrowed.
Thick mucus forms causing chronic cough.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What happens to a COPD patient with PNA?

A

Pt unable to exhale and cough becomes ineffective. Cannot expel infectious sludge from PNA. Very difficult to heal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the classic presentation of a patient with cardiogenic shock?

A

Cold and wet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Two components of cardiogenic shock

A

Systemic hypoperfusion due to low CO (cold)

Filling pressures are elevated (wet)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why cardiogenic shock cannot be fixed with volume administrtion or removal?

A

Giving volume will worsen their pulmonary congestion and edema making them wet.
Removing volume will worsen their systemic hypoperfusion making them colder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why cardiogenic shock cannot be fixed with volume administration or removal?

A

Giving volume will worsen their pulmonary congestion and edema making them wet.
Removing volume will worsen their systemic hypoperfusion making them colder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In addition to sudden severe pain in the abdomen, what are other s/s of a ruptured AAA?

A

Hypotension
Pallor
Diminish pulses in lower extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Additivity drug interaction

A

Commination of two or more chemical is the sum of the expected individual’s response. 1+1=2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Antagonism drug interaction

A

Exposure to one chemical results in a reduction in the effect of the other chemical. 1+1=0.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Potentiation
Exposure to one chemical results in the other chemical producing an effect greater than if given alone. 1+0=2
26
Synergism
Exposure to one chemical causes a dramatic increase in the effect of another chemical. 1+1=3
27
Chief complaint vs. primary problem
CC : why you were called to the scene | Primary problem : what is most important to the patient
28
What are the components of plasma?
Plasma makes up 55% of blood component Water 91% Proteins 7% : albumins, globulins, fibrinogen Other solutes 2% : electrolytes, nutrients, gases, wastes, vitamin, regulatory substances
29
What are the component of formed elements?
Makes up 45% of centrifuged blood RBC (millions) Platelets (hundreds of thousands) WBC (thousands)
30
Percentage of each WBC in centrifuged blood?
``` Neutrophils 70% Lymphocytes 20% Monocytes 5% Eosinophils 4% Basophils 1% ```
31
Blood flow through the heart
``` Deoxygenated blood enters superior and inferior vena cava Right atrium Tricuspid Right ventricle Pulmonic valve Pulmonary artery to right and left lung Oxygenated blood enters pulmonary veins from left and right lungs Left atrium Mitral valve Left ventricle Aortic valve Aorta to body ```
32
What are the three meningeal layers?
Dura mater: outer layer lining skull Arachnoid mater: contains blood vessels Pia matter: covers brain
33
Obstructive shock can be caused by:
Cardiac tamponade Tension pneumothorax Massive pulmonary embolism
34
BP assessment on pediatrics
BP should be checked on children older than 3
35
What is the best indicator of perfusion in younger children?
Skin signs | Cap refill
36
When does the cardiac electrical conduction slow in the heart?
AV node
37
Explain why pulses in LE may be diminished during a ruptured AAA.
Blood is going to flow the path of least resistance. If the rupture is on the R side, it'll flow down LLE and vice versa.
38
Who's safety comes first when responding to a behavioral emergency?
1. You 2. Partner 3. Patient and bystanders
39
List hazards of a structural fire.
CO Building integrity Very high temperatures Burn/heart emergency
40
What anatomical structure separates in the larynx and esophagus?
Hypopharynx
41
What anatomical structure separates the cricoid ring from the thyroid cartilage?
Cricothyroid membrane
42
What is the odontoid process?
Odontoid process is located posteriorly on C2. It's a protrusion that allows C1 to sit on top of C2 causing limited ROM.
43
What is a growth plate?
The epiphyseal plate is hyaline cartilage plate in the metaphysis on the end of each long bone.
44
Orbital fx vs. LeFort fx
Orbital involves the orbit only.
45
LeFort fx I
Separation of hard palate from upper maxilla
46
LeFort fx II
Transect nasal bones, medial-anterior orbital walls, orbital floor, inferior orbital rims, posterior maxilla and pterygoid plates.
47
LeFort fx III
Nasofrontal suture, medial orbital wall, lateral orbital wall, zygomatic arch, and pterygoid plates.
48
How much volumes goes into each cuff of the Combitube>
Depends on manufacturere Pharyngeal cuff - 100mL Distal cuff - 15mL
49
How much volumes goes into each cuff of the Combitube>
Depends on manufacturer Pharyngeal cuff - 100mL Distal cuff - 15mL
50
What should you do with an LMA before insertion?
Fully deflate and lubricate
51
Causes of emphysema.
Smoking and genetics
52
What does surfactant do?
Keeps alveoli open.
53
What is TB?
Bacterial disease that is spread in the air.
54
Why do we give IV fluid in a patient in shock?
Maintain adequate perfusion
55
Does IV fluid increase the blood's ability to carry oxygen?
No, increased volume of fluid does not equal more blood as you need Hgb to transport RBC.
56
Adequate systolic BP for proper perfusion?
90 mmHg
57
Inotropic effect on heart.
Strength of contraction
58
Chronotropic effect on heart.
HR
59
Dromotropic effect on heart.
Conduction velocity
60
What are baroreceptors?
Nerve cells that sense pressure changes located in the carotid and aorta.
61
Isotonic
Equal concentration of sodium inside and outside cells.
62
Hypotonic
Concentration of sodium inside cell is greater than outside the cell causing water to through the cell membrane causing swelling and possible lysis.
63
Hypertonic
Concentration of sodium outside cell is < than inside causing water to leave the cell shrinking the cell. Called plasmolysis.
64
Formula for calculating IV flow rate in drops/minute.
vol/time x drop factor = IV flow gtt/min
65
Process of injection medications through port of an IV line.
Use alcohol wipe on needleless port Connect syringe Clamp line proximal to injection port Injection medication
66
What do you do if there is resistance when ventilating a patient with a stoma?
Suction
67
Define tripod position.
Leaning forward w/ arms and elbows supporting upper body on legs
68
Possible etiology of tripod position.
COPD, asthma exacerbation, pulmonary edema, moderate to severe respiratory distress.
69
Differences between suspension, emulsion, elixir, and solution.
Suspension: particles evenly distributed through shaking or stirring. Emulsion: mixture of two liquids that are not mutually soluble Elixir: sweetened, aromatic, hydroalcoholic liquid. Solution: liquid mixture of one or more substances cannot be filtered.
70
s/s of left hemispheric stroke
Aphasia | Right sided deficits
71
What heart valve controls regurgitation into lungs?
Tricuspid
72
Pathophysiology of psychogenic shock.
Vasovagal
73
What is done before, during, and after medication administration?
Assess the patient.
74
What is the most reliable food for long term energy production?
Complex carbs
75
Define virulence.
Strength or ability of pathogen to produce diease.
76
s/s of exposure to a cholinergic agent
``` Salivation Lacrimation Urination Defecation GI upset Emesis Miosis ```
77
Neurotransmitters of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.
Norepinephrine, epinephrine, and acetylcholine.
78
RSV
Highly contagious virus passed through droplets from cough and sneeze. Copious secretions.
79
What do pH chemoreceptors respond to when increasing respirations?
CO2
80
s/s pulmonary embolism
``` Sudden onset of pinpoint sharp chest pain Dyspnea Tachycardia Tachypnea Hemoptysis ```
81
s/s cardiovascular emergency
``` CP w/ possible radiation to jaw, arm, back N/V Dyspnea JVD Irregular heartbeat ```
82
NTG
Class: vasodilator MOA: lower preload & afterload to decrease workload of heart. Dilation of arterioles and veins. Indication: acute CP, HTN, heart failure, pulmonary edema Contraindications: hypotension, hypovolemia, intracranial bleeding or head injury, pericardial tamponade. ED medication w/in 24-48 hours Adv rxn/side effects: HA, dizziness, weakness, n/v Drug interaction: additive effects to vasodilators Rout: SL, IV Dosage & Admin.: 0.4mL SL. Repeat 3-5 mins. Max dose 3. pray: 0.4mg 1-2 sprays. IV: 10-20 mcg/min every 5 min
83
Schedule drug class I
High abuse potential; no medical purpose | Ex: heroin, marijuana, LSD
84
Schedule drug class II
High abuse potential; legitimate medical purpose | Ex: Fentanyl, Ritalin, cocaine
85
Schedule drug class III
``` Less potential for abuse than class II Ex: hydrocodone, Tylenol #3, ketamine ```
86
Schedule drug class IV
``` Less potential for abuse than class III Ex: Diazepam, Lorazepam ```
87
Schedule drug class V
``` Less potential for abuse than class IV Ex: narcotic cough medications ```
88
Calculate drip rates
(vol in mL) x (drip set) / (time in minutes) = ggt/min
89
Calculate # of drops/min
(vol in mL) x (drip set) / (time in minutes) = ggt/min
90
Calculate medication concentration.
total weight of medication / total volume = weight/ mL
91
Calculate volume to administer.
desired dose (mg) / concentration hand (mg/mL) = volume (mL)

Advanced EMT (33 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions