Haematology Flashcards

(84 cards)

1
Q

A chemotherapy patient who received a blood transfusion the previous week develops fever, a spotty skin rash, and diarrhoea. What could be going on?

A

Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease

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2
Q

A child presents with frequent nosebleeds and easy bruising. They are prone to chest infections. On examination, you note cafe-au-lait spots, a triangular-shaped face, and skeletal deformity. What could be the diagnosis?

A

Fanconi anaemia
Autosomal recessive

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3
Q

A patient has an elevated serum paraprotein level of 35g/L, with bone marrow aspirate showing 32% monoclonal plasma cell infiltrate. They have back pain, constipation, and fatigue. What’s the diagnosis?

A

multiple myeloma

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4
Q

A patient has Bence-Jones proteins in their urine. Does this mean that they have multiple myeloma?

A

could also be waldenstroms macroglobinaemia

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5
Q

A patient is diagnosed with iron deficiency anaemia, and started on supplementation. What should they be told?

A

don’t chew the tablets
come back in 2-3 months for review
poo will turn horrible, that is ok

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6
Q

A patient is found to have leukocytosis on routine bloods, with small, normal-appearing leukocytes. Examination is unremarkable except for painless lymphadenopathy. What’s the management?

A

chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
- watch and wait approach, until patient becomes symptomatic
- treat relapses with chemo. very young/fit patients could consider allogenic HSCT

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6
Q

A patient presents with abdominal pain and jaundice, and is found to have a low haemoglobin, gallstones, and splenomegaly. blood film shows bite cells, blister cells, Heinz bodies. what is the cause

A

G6PD deficiency

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7
Q

A patient presents with altered mental status, fatigue, a blotchy rash, fever, and dark urine. Blood tests show anaemia and thrombocytopenia. What is the treatment?

A

TTP- plasma exchange

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8
Q

A patient presents with an enlarged spleen, easy bruising, and swollen, bleeding gums. FBC shows anaemia and thrombocytopenia, and a blood film shows 20% blasts. What’s the diagnosis?

A

acute myeloid leukaemia

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9
Q

A patient presents with bone pain, and is found to have hypercalcaemia, clonal plasma cells, and IgG paraproteinuria. What’s the treatment?

A

multiple myeloma
- old/unfit- chemo
young/fit- stem cell transplantation

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10
Q

A patient presents with dark red spots on their skin and bleeding when they brush their teeth. Their medical history is significant for stomach ulcers and HIV infection. What’s the diagnosis?

A

immune thrombocytopenic purpura

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11
Q

A patient presents with fatigue, massive splenomegaly, anaemia, and proliferation of platelets, mature lymphocytes, and basophils. FISH reveals an aberration of chromosome 22. What’s the diagnosis?

A

chronic myeloid leukaemia

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12
Q

A patient presents with fever, jaundice, dark red spots on their skin, fatigue, and bleeding gums, which all came on suddenly. They had a nasty bout of gastroenteritis last month. What’s the diagnosis?

A

TTP

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13
Q

A patient presents with macrocytic anaemia, and both folate and B12 levels are low. Which do you treat first?

A

B12

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14
Q

A patient presents with recurrent, difficult-to-control nosebleeds, and is diagnosed with vWF deficiency. What’s the treatment?

A

desmopressin

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15
Q

A patient receiving a blood transfusion develops a mild temperature increase, but when the transfusion is slowed their temperature returns to normal. What could be going on?

A

febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reaction

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16
Q

A patient receiving a blood transfusion develops a significant temperature increase and rise in NEWS score an hour after the transfusion has finished. What could be going on?

A

Either acute haemolytic transfusion reaction (check blood match!) or bacterial contamination of components (more common with platelet transfusions)

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17
Q

A patient receiving a blood transfusion develops acute breathlessless and bilateral creps at the lung base. You check their notes, which are significant for a history of heart failure. What’s the management?

A

TACO (transfusion related acute circulatory overload)
slow down transfusion if possible
give IV furosemide
closely monitor fluid balance

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17
Q

A patient receiving a blood transfusion develops difficulty breathing and raised JVP several hours after the transfusion has finished. What could be going on?

A

Transfusion-associated circulatory overload

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18
Q

A patient receiving a blood transfusion develops difficulty breathing, hypoxaemia, hypotension, and fever several hours after the transfusion has finished. You listen to her chest and hear rattling sounds at the bases. What could be going on?

A

Transfusion-related acute lung injury

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19
Q

A patient taking heparin presents with major haemorrhage. What agent can be used to reverse this?

A

protamine sulfate

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20
Q

A patient with known sickle cell disease presents to their GP as they are feeling a ‘bit under the weather’. They have a temperature. What do you do?

A

admit urgently!
All patients with emergent sickle crisis should be admitted unless they are really well (no fever or only <38C for an adult)

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21
Q

A teenager presents to her GP with a short history of fatigue, unexplained petechiae, and hepatomegaly. She is otherwise well. What’s the appropriate management

A

Send her up to AMU for assessment and haematology referral; acute leukaemia until proven otherwise.

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22
Q

Acute leukaemia is defined as an excess of what type of cells? over what percent? in either peripheral blood or bone marrow

A

blast cells >20%

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23
An elderly patient presents with fatigue and marked splenomegaly. The blood film shows anaemia and 35% blast cells. What's the most likely diagnosis?
acute myeloid leukaemia
24
B cells, T cells, and NK cells arise from ____blast cells.
lympho
25
B12 deficiency (pernicious anaemia) is caused by lack of intrinsic factor due to autoimmune destruction of parietal cells, true or false?
TRUE
26
Basophils, neutrophils, macrophages, and eosinophils arise from _____blast cells.
myelo
27
Compared with normal haemoglobin, in fetal haemoglobin the oxygen curve is to the ?
left
28
Compared with normal haemoglobin, in myoglobin the oxygen curve is shifted to the?
left
29
G6P deficiency is caused by mutations in the G6PD gene on what chromosome?
X chromosome
30
Haemophilia A refers to which factor deficiency.
factor VIII
31
Haemophilia B refers to which factor deficiency.
IX
32
How can you differentiate between B12 and folate deficiency in a patient with macrocytic anaemia without ordering specific levels?
Only B12 deficiency involves peripheral neuropathy
33
If you had to pick one of Factor V Leiden mutation, protein C deficiency, protein S deficiency, or antithrombin III deficiency to have, which would you pick?
Factor V Leiden - lowest risk of VTE
34
In fever or acidosis (and increased CO2), the oxygen binding curve is pushed to the
right
35
In obstetrics, what is the Kleihauer test used for?
to measure the amount of fetal haemoglobin transferred from a foetus to a mothers bloodstream
36
In shock, above what lactate levels do patients get into trouble?
>2mmol/l- arguably diagnostic >4mmol/l- significant mortality
37
In shock, below what urine output levels do patients get into trouble?
<0.5 mL/kg/h
38
Increased 2,3-DPG pushes the oxygen curve to the
right
39
Hereditary spherocytosis or G6PD deficiency affects males
G6PD deficiency- x-linked recessive
40
Hereditary spherocytosis or G6PD deficiency affects people of African and Mediterranean ethnicity
G6PD deficiency
41
Hereditary spherocytosis or G6PD deficiency is autosomal dominant
Hereditary spherocytosis
42
Other than a nucleus, what key structure do erythrocytes lack?
mitochondria
43
The Ann Arbor staging system is commonly used for what type of cancer
lymphoma
44
Vitamin K is a cofactor in the carboxylation of which clotting factors?
II, VII, IX, X
45
What findings on bloods/coagulation studies support a diagnosis of disseminated intravascular coagulation?
low platelets low fibrinogen high fibrinogen degradation products high d-dimer prolonged APTT, TT, PT times
46
What is the definition of aplastic anaemia?
At least two of haemoglobin, platelets, or neutrophils low Does not consider lymphocytes Patients must also have hypocellular marrow on biopsy with no fibrosis or abnormal infiltrate (cannot be diagnosed based on bloods alone)
47
What is the mechanism of action of aspirin?
irreversible COX1 inhibition
48
What is the treatment for beta thalassaemia major?
lifelong regular blood transfusions
49
What is the treatment for iron overload in patients with haematomochrosis?
venesection
50
What type of leukaemia is the most common childhood cancer
acute lymphocytic leukaemia
51
What virus is associated with hairy leukoplakia, Burkitt's lymphoma, Hodgkin's lymphoma, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma?
EBV
52
What type of lymphoma is associated with a t(8;14) translocation, leading to synthesis of the MYC oncogene
burkitts lymphoma
53
What type of leukaemia is associated with a t(9:22) translocation (known as the Philadelphia chromosome), which creates a fusion gene called BCR-ABL
chronic myeloid leukaemia
54
Warm/cold antibody autoimmune haemolytic anaemia can be caused by EBV or mycoplasma infection
cold
55
Warm/cold antibody autoimmune haemolytic anaemia is associated with IgM antibodies
cold
56
What type of blood test is needed to diagnose myeloma
protein electrophoresis
57
What type of thrombocytopenia occurs when there is insufficient ADAMTS13, a protein which normally cleaves vWF and stops platelet aggregation
TTP
58
Warm/cold antibody autoimmune haemolytic anaemia can be caused by autoimmune conditions (SLE) or drug reactions (eg, to penicillin)
warm
59
Warm/cold antibody autoimmune haemolytic anaemia is associated with IgG antibodies
warm
60
A chemotherapy patient who received a blood transfusion the previous week develops fever, a spotty skin rash, and diarrhoea. What could be going on?
Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease
61
A patient has a CHADSVASC of 0. What does this mean?
Even though they have AF they're probably not going to have a stroke. Leave them be.
62
A patient has a CHADSVASC of 1. What does this mean?
Bit dodge, could stroke out from their AF at some point. Give anticoagulant or antiplatelet.
63
A patient has a HAS-BLED of 0. What does this mean?
Eh, they're grand, stick them on the anticoagulation for their AF sure
64
A patient has a HAS-BLED of 1. What does this mean?
Eh, they're grand, stick them on the anticoagulation for their AF sure
65
A patient has a HAS-BLED of 2. What does this mean?
They're probably ok to take an anticoagulant for their AF? Sure you're only a junior it's not on your head.
66
A patient has a HAS-BLED of 3. What does this mean?
Careful now. Down with this sort of thing!
67
A patient presents with an enlarged lymph node. It is painless, hard, and craggy, and seems stuck to the underlying tissue. The cause is most likely...
metastatic cancer
68
A patient presents with an enlarged lymph node. It is painless, soft, and smooth, and moves freely under your hand. The cause is most likely...
lymphoma
69
A patient presents with an enlarged lymph node. It is sore, hard, and smooth, and moves freely under your hand. The cause is most likely...
viral
70
A patient presents with an enlarged lymph node. It is sore, hard, and smooth, and the overlying skin is red and warm. The cause is most likely...
bacterial
71
A patient receiving a blood transfusion develops a mild temperature increase, but when the transfusion is slowed their temperature returns to normal. What is the best treatment?
supportive care monitoring paracetamol
72
A patient receiving a blood transfusion develops hypotension, tachycardia, and fever. You check the blood bag and realise that it is out of date. What's the management?
SEPSIS STOP TRANSFUSION iv fluids, sepsis 6 protocol, antibiotics
73
A patient receiving a blood transfusion develops hypotension, tachycardia, and fever. You check the blood bag and realise that the group is A+ whereas the patient is O+. What's the management?
ABO incompatibility STOP TRANSFUSION IV fluids, call the lab!
74
A patient receiving a blood transfusion develops hypotension, wheeze, and collapse. What's the management?
Anaphylactic reaction STOP TRANSFUSION IM adrenaline and IV chlorpheniramine/hydrocortisone
75
A patient receiving a blood transfusion develops jaundice and anaemia a week after their transfusion. What could be going on?
delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction direct Coombs test will be positive due to delayed igG immune response to non-ABO red cell antigen
76
A patient with AF has a CHADSVASC of 2. What does this mean?
Yeah they gonna stroke. Anticoagulate!
77
A young patient with sickle cell presents with abdominal pain, severe anaemia, and hypotension. This is most likely a...
sequestration crisis
78
ABO antibodies are Ig_ type. transfusion mismatch causes immediate/delayed transfusion reaction?
IgM, immediate
79
ABO incompatibility is an example of a type _ hypersensitivity reaction
II- igM (or igG) mediated
80
In haemostasis, what converts fibrinogen to fibrin
thrombin
81
How can you reverse warfarin over-anticoagulation
Depending on severity (just INR level, or also bleeding): - Withhold warfarin - Oral/IV vitamin K - IV vitamin K plus clotting factors (Beriplex)
82
A patient with a history of Hodgkin's disease needs a blood transfusion. Do they need any special requests on the blood form?
Yes - irradiated