Ophthalmology Flashcards

(70 cards)

1
Q

A patient presents with red, sore, inflamed eyes for several weeks, and complains of agonising pain when you go to have a look with the ophthalmoscope/slit lamp. Chloramphenicol drops for presumed bacterial conjunctivitis haven’t worked, and she looks guilty when you ask about her contact lens habits. What’s the treatment?

A

keratitis
- patients need admission for hourly ofloxacin antibiotic drops

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2
Q

A patient presents with sudden painless loss of vision in one eye. Fundoscopy reveals a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina. What condition is most likely?

A

central retinal artery occlusion

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3
Q

A patient presents with sudden visual loss. On fundoscopy the retina cannot be visualised. The patient reports peripheral flashes of light (photopsia) and floaters on the temporal side. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

posterior vitreous detachment

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4
Q

A patient presents with sudden visual loss. On fundoscopy the retina cannot be visualised. They describe a ‘dense shadow’ that started peripherally and progressed towards the central vision, and how straight lines appeared curved. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

retinal detachment

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5
Q

A patient presents with sudden visual loss. On fundoscopy the retina cannot be visualised. They describe seeing numerous dark spots and floaters. Medical history includes diabetes and CVD. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

vitreous haemorrhage

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6
Q

A patient with an extremely red and painful eye, nausea and vomiting, sluggish and mid-dilated pupil, seeing halos around lights, and hazy cornea has what condition?

A

closed-angle glaucoma

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7
Q

Closed-angle glaucoma is associated with hypermetropia/myopia?

A

hypermetropia

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8
Q

how do you treat dendritic ulcers

A

topical antiviral eg acyclovir

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9
Q

What dermatological condition is associated with posterior blepharitis?

A

acne rosacea

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10
Q

What drugs can help relieve the pain of anterior uveitis?

A

cycloplegics- dilates pupil and helps to relieve photophobia and pain eg atropine, cyclopentalone

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11
Q

What is a chalazion?

A

granulomatous, inflammation of the meibomion gland. not painful, but can become infected

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12
Q

What is amaurosis fugax?

A

transient central retinal artery occlusion (‘ministroke’)
‘like a curtain coming down’- lasts 5 mins will full recovery

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13
Q

What is RAPD and what does it mean?

A

relevant afferent pupillary defect
- swinging light test
- pupil contracts when you shine light on the other eye (as it should!) but not when you shine light on it directly

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14
Q

What test can confirm ocular dryness?

A

schirmers test

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15
Q

Which is worse, episcleritis or scleritis?

A

scleritis- extremely serious, requires NSAIDs/steroids
episcleritis- mild, clears up in a week without treatment

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16
Q

Anti-VEGF drugs can be used in dry AMD, true or false?

A

FALSE - only in wet AMD

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17
Q

Brain swelling can cause compression of which nerve controlling eye movement against the petrous tip

A

CN VI

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18
Q

Cover test

You see downward movement of eye =

A

hypertropia

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19
Q

Cover test

You see inward movement of eye =

A

exotropia

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20
Q

Cover test

You see outward movement of eye =

A

esotropia

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21
Q

Cover test You see upward movement of eye =

A

hypotropia

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22
Q

If a patient is tilting their head to see straight, which nerve controlling eye movement is likely affected?

A

CN IV - superior oblique

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23
Q

Palsy of which nerve controlling eye movement is associated with papilloedema?

A

CN VI

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24
Q

Papilloedema can result from raised intracranial pressure because of continuation of which anatomical space between the brain and optic nerve

A

the subarachnoid space

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25
Visual deterioration in dry AMD is usually gradual, true or false?
true
26
Visual deterioration in wet AMD is always gradual, true or false?
FALSE Visual deterioration may develop quickly (suddenly become unable to read, drive, or see fine detail), and may suddenly develop to profound central visual loss in the event of a bleed. This may be preceded or accompanied by a shower of floaters
27
Glaucoma preferentially affects peripheral/central vision?
peripheral- usually presents late for this reason
28
Visual fields - bitemporal hemianopia, where's the defect?
optic chiasm
28
Visual fields - whole left eye affected, where's the defect?
left optic nerve
29
blurred, swollen optic disc?
papilloedema
30
What diagnosis would you suspect in an elderly patient with a long history of diabetes, previous steroid use, unilateral blurry vision, and halos surrounding light sources?
cataract
31
What is the first-line treatment for a patient with ocular hypertension?
If OHT >24 mmHg, give latanoprost as first-line treatment. Prostaglandin analogue
32
What is the most likely cause of CNIII palsy?
In exams at least, aneurysms
33
What is the most likely cause of CNIV nerve palsy?
Congenital or trauma
34
What is the most likely cause of CNVI palsy?
raised intracranial pressure
35
What is the second-line treatment for a patient with ocular hypertension?
If latanoprost isn't doing the job or isn't tolerated, can substitute or add timolol (beta blocker). After that, you're looking at carbonic anhydrase inhibitors.
36
What is the threshold for cup-to-disk ratio to suggest glaucoma?
0.7
37
What nerve travels within the cavernous sinus, not the wall?
CN VI
38
What stain can be used to assist ophtho examination?
Fluorescein
39
What toxicity can cause acute bilateral vision loss?
bilateral optic nerve damage- methanol poisoning
40
What would you suspect in a patient with bilaterally small pupils that reduce in size on a near object (ie, accommodate), but do not constrict when exposed to bright light?
In exams, Argyll Robertson pupils -> neurosyphillis 'Prostitute's pupil': accomodates, but doesn't react
41
What would you suspect in this patient who has rapidly deteriorating vision with distortion in their visual field (Amsler grid)?
wet AMD
42
what is the most common cause of persistent watery eye (without other symptoms) in an infant, especially if unilateral?
nasolacrimal duct obstruction
43
what test refers to the use of fluorescein to identify a full-thickness penetrating trauma to the cornea - it will show aqueous humour leaking from the defect and dilution of tear film
siedels test
44
a patient with pupil dilation likely has what syndrome due to loss of parasympathetic control?
adies syndrome
45
a patient with adies syndrome has pupil dilation/constriction due to loss of sympathetic/parasympathetic control
dilation parasympathetic
46
acute allergic conjunctivitis is an example of a type _ hypersensitivity reaction
type I
47
Adie's pupil is a cause of pupil constriction and is most common in men, true or false?
false causes dilation; more common in women opposite of Horners syndrome
47
Anterior blepharitis can present as inflammation, pus, and scale around what structure
the eyelashes
48
Autoimmune corneal melting is an example of a type _ hypersensitivity
type III
49
Bacterial conjunctivitis is particularly associated with enlargement of the preauricular lymph nodes, true or false?
false- that's viral conjunctivitis
50
Blood supply to the eye is provided by central retinal and anterior ciliary arteries, true or false?
false- central retinal artery and posterior ciliary arteries
51
Corneal graft rejection is an example of a type _ hypersensitivity
type IV
52
Flame and blot haemorrhages suggest stage _ hypertensive retinopathy
stage III
53
Arteriolar narrowing and tortuosity suggests stage _ hypertensive retinopathy
stage I
54
How do you tell the difference between episcleritis and scleritis?
pain much worse with scleritis phenylephrine will not blanch vessels in scleritis
55
Hypertensive retinopathy tends to affect only older patients, true or false?
false can be very severe in young patients
56
If you are giving a patient eye drops, what can you advise them to do to limit systemic absorption?
hands on eyes
57
In eye pharmacology, prednisolone acetate is useful in inflamed/uninflamed corneas?
uninflamed- used post-operatively
58
In ophthalmology, a pachymeter is used to ...
measure the thickness of the cornea
59
In ophthalmology, a perimeter is used to ...
plot fields of vision
60
In ophthalmology, anisocoria means ...
the pupils differ in size
61
Individuals with a positive family history of glaucoma should be screened annually from age
35-40 years
62
Optometrists will refer patients for assessment of open-angle glaucoma if their intraocular pressure is >... mmHg
24- or any evidence of optic nerve head damage, or peripheral visual field defect
63
Orbital cellulitis is defined as inflammation in what specific anatomical region?
behind the orbital septum
64
Papilloedema suggests stage _ hypertensive retinopathy
stage IV
64
The cornea is thickest in its centre, true or false?
false- thickest peripherally
65
What distinguishes anterior from posterior blepharitis?
is the eyelid margin redder/more inflamed than the deeper part of the lid yes- anterior no- posterior
66
What examination findings help distinguish anterior uveitis from other causes of painful red eye? Name three
hypopyon small or irregular pupil cells, flare, precipitates in anterior chamber
67
What genetic condition would you suspect in a patient who presents with progressive night blindness and tunnel vision? On fundoscopy, you see discolouration of the retina.
retinitis pigmentosa