Infectious Disease Flashcards

(76 cards)

1
Q

Drug class for Chloroquine sulfate

A

antimalarial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MoA for Chloroquine sulfate

A

increases accumulation of toxic free heme in parasite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Indications for Chloroquine sulfate

A

P. vivax, P. ovale, P. malariae, sensitive P. falciparum malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Drug class for Iodoquinol

A

antiamebocide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

MoA for Iodoquinol

A

unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Indications for Iodoquinol

A

Tx acute & chronic intestinal amebiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Drug class for Metronidazole

A

antiamebocide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

MoA for Metronidazole

A

disrupts helical DNA structure & causes DNA strand breakage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Indications for Metronidazole

A

tx susceptible anaerobic bacterial & protozoal infections, C. diff infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Drug class for Mebendazole

A

antihelminthic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MoA for Mebendazole

A

inhibits microtubule synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Indications for Mebendazole

A

tx infection hookworm, pinworm, ascariasis, trichuriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Drug class for Praziquantel

A

antihelminthic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MoA for Praziquantel

A

causes spastic paralysis & tegumental damage in helminths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Indications for Praziquantel

A

tx schistosome, taenia infections, several other rarer parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Drug class for Permethrin

A

antiscabide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

MoA for Permethrin

A

delays Na ion influx through nerve & cell membrane producing paralysis & cell death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Indications for Permethrin

A

tx head louse, scabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Drug class for Nitrofurantoin

A

urinary antiseptic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

MoA for Nitrofurantoin

A

inhibits several bacterial enzyme systems (including acetyl CoA) interfering w/ metabolism & possibly cell wall synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Indications for Nitrofurantoin

A

Px/Tx urinary tract infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Drug class for Acyclovir, Famcyclovir, Valcyclovir

A

nucleoside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

MoA for Acyclovir, Famcyclovir, Valcyclovir

A

inhibits viral DNA synthesis & viral replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Indications for Acyclovir, Famcyclovir, Valcyclovir

A

mucocutaneous HSV 1 & 2, VZV infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Drug class for Amantadine, Rimantadine
M2 pump inhibitor
26
MoA for Amantadine, Rimantadine
inhibits uncoating of influenza A virus preventing penetration of virus into host; dopamine agonist
27
Indications for Amantadine, Rimantadine
influenza A, Parkinson's disease
28
Drug class for Oseltamivir
neuroamidase inhibitor
29
MoA for Oseltamivir
prodrug converted to active form & inhibits cleaving of virus from cellular envelope preventing release
30
Indications for Oseltamivir
tx/px influenza A & B
31
Drug class for Zanamivir
neuroamidase inhibitor
32
MoA for Zanamivir
inhibits cleaving of virus from cellular envelope preventing release
33
Indications for Zanamivir
tx/px influenza A & B
34
Drug class for Lamivudine
anti-hepatitis B drug
35
MoA for Lamivudine
inhibits viral RNA & DNA transcription
36
Indications for Lamivudine
tx HBV, HIV
37
Drug class for Pegylated Interferon Alfa 2a
anti-hepatitis B or C drug
38
MoA for Pegylated Interferon Alfa 2a
1. binds to specific cell membrane receptors inhibiting viral penetration, translation, transcription, protein processing, maturation, release 2. increases phagocytic activity macrophages 3. increases # & survival of cytotoxic T cells
39
Indications for Pegylated Interferon Alfa 2a
tx HBV, HCV infections
40
Drug class for Ribavirin
anti-hepatitis C drug
41
MoA for Ribavirin
inhibits replication DNA, RNA, viruses via inhibition of protein synthesis
42
Indications for Ribavirin
RSV in infants, Hep c (w/ peg interferon alfa 2a)
43
Drug class for Sofosbuvir
anti-hepatitis C drug
44
MoA for Sofosbuvir
direct acting antiviral against HCV; prodrug that is converted to active from intracellularly & inhibits HCV NS5B RNA-dependent polymerase needed for viral replications & acts as a chain terminator
45
Indications for Sofosbuvir
tx of for Hep C genotype 1,2,3,4 (w/ Ribavirin or Pg Interferon alfa & Ribavirin)
46
Drug class for Ledipasvir & Sofosbuvir
anti-hepatitis C drug
47
MoA for Ledipasvir & Sofosbuvir
- Ledipasvir: inhibits HCV NS5A protein needed for viral replication - Sofosbuvir: inhibits NS5B RNA-dependent RNA polymerase needed for viral replication & acts as a chain terminator
48
Indications for Ledipasvir & Sofosbuvir
chronic Hep C, genotype 1
49
Drug class for Rifampin
anti-tuberculosis drug
50
MoA for Rifampin
inhibits bacterial RNA synthesis by blocking RNA transcription
51
Indications for Rifampin
tx TB; elimination of meningococci from nasopharynx in carriers
52
Drug class for Isoniazid
anti-tubuerculosis drug
53
MoA for Isoniazid
possible interruption of mycolic acid synthesis resulting in disruption of bacterial cell wall
54
Indications for Isoniazid
tx TB, latent TB
55
Dx-Dx interaction for Iodoquinol
interferes w/ iodine metabolism
56
Which drug could be used to treat Giardia?
Metronidazole
57
Dx-Dx interaction for Metronidazole
ethanol (causes a disulfiram-like reaction)
58
What is a possible side effect of Nitrofurantoin?
pulmonary fibrosis
59
How is Nitrofurantoin metabolized and excreted?
very rapidly
60
How is the systemic absorption of Nitrofurantoin?
poor so don't use with pyelonephritis; only use with straightforward UTIs
61
What type of antibiotics are safe to use in pregnant women?
macrolides
62
Acyclovir and Valcyclovir at high doses may cause what?
seizures
63
Which drug is a prodrug of Acyclovir?
Valcyclovir
64
On average, about how much/long does medication reduce flu symptoms?
about 1 day
65
Contra-indication for Zanamivir
underlying respiratory disease (COPD, asthma)
66
Oseltamivir needs to be started within how many hours of symptom onset?
48 hours
67
Common side effect of anti hepatitis C drugs?
flu-like syndrome, depression
68
Which drug may cause orange/red staining of body fluids?
Rifampin
69
Which anti-tuberculosis drug shouldn't be used as a sole agent and why?
- Rifampin | - build resistance quickly
70
Major/important side effect of Isoniazid?
hepatitis
71
Other drug class for Lamivudine
antiretroviral drug: NRTIs
72
Drug class for Delavirdine
antiretroviral drug: NNRTs
73
Drug class for Darunavir
antiretroviral drug: PIs
74
Drug class for Enfuvirtide
antiretroviral drug: fusion inhibitors
75
Drug class for Maraviroc
antiretroviral drug: CCR5 antagonists
76
Drug class for Raltegravir
antiretroviral drug: integrase inhibitor