Intro- Blood Bank Flashcards
(175 cards)
1
Q
who regulates the hospital level
A
joint commission
2
Q
what level is the joint commission
A
federal
3
Q
what happens to the hospital if they are not regulated by the joint commission
A
they do not get reimbursed
4
Q
true or false: hospital are only regulated by the joint commission and not the state they are in
A
F
5
Q
additionally other hospital departments are regulated by what
A
their own industry / accrediting agencies
6
Q
what is another name for the healthcare lab
A
clinical lab
7
Q
who regulates the clinical lab
A
state, CLIA, and CAP
8
Q
what does the state of ca require for people who test human samples
A
license and facility license
9
Q
once the CLS training program is complete what do you have
A
state licensure
10
Q
what happens to a CLS that that does negligence testing
A
disciplinary actions, employment termination, loss of CLS license
11
Q
when are you considered a professional
A
once you enter the CLS training program
12
Q
testing needs to _____ and ______
A
accurate and precise
13
Q
def? the study of the body’s immune response to blood
A
immunohematology
14
Q
what is another name for immunohematology
A
blood bank
15
Q
what are the 2 subgroups of blood bank
A
transfusion medicine and donor center
16
Q
what subgroup of blood bank gives blood to pt
A
transfusion medicine
17
Q
what subgroup of blood bank takes out blood from donors
A
donor center
18
Q
what additional regulation groups regulate BB
A
food and drug administration and global accrediting group (AABB)
19
Q
who does the food and drug administration and global accrediting group (AABB) protect
A
pt receiving blood and donor who give blood
20
Q
what is the most regulated clinical lab department
A
bb
21
Q
what must exist in the bb because of the regulatory environment
A
quality management
22
Q
what are the 2 components that concern a pt who is about to receive a blood transfusion
A
- blood component is compatible with the pt’s blood
- there is no intentional adverse rxn
22
Q
what testing is done on a pt who is about to receive a blood transfusion
A
blood typing, ab screening, crossmatching
23
Q
what kind of pt receive blood transfusions
A
anemic pt
24
what parts of blood are in whole blood
plasma and RBC
25
what does plasma provide for a transfusion pt
volume
26
what does RBC provide for a transfusion pt
oxygen carrying capacity
27
1 pint = ____ mL
500
28
what is the most common blood component that is transfused into anemic pt
RBC
29
hypoxic = ____ O2
decreased
30
what shifts the o2 dissociation curve to the left
decreased temp, decreased 2-3 DPG, decreased pH
31
what shifts the o2 dissociation curve to the right
increased temp, increased 2-3 DPG, increased pH
32
if O2 affinity is reduced where is the O2 dissociation curve
shifted to the right
33
describe the O2 dissociation curve the longer blood is stored
shifts to the left
34
if a pt is deficient in coagulation factors (non-cellular elements) what should they be transfused with
plasma
35
if a pt is deficient in clotting capacity (cellular elements) what should they be transfused with
platelets
36
if a pt is deficient in factor VIII and fibrinogen what should they be transfused with
cryoprecipitate
37
t or f: most places do not have a donor center
T
38
who are the life-lines of the blood supply
repeat donors
39
t or f: blood and components can be manufactured
f
40
are pharmaceutical drugs organic or inorganic compounds
inorganic
41
what form do pharmaceutical drugs come in
solid or liquid
42
t or f: pharmaceutical drugs can be stored at a variety of temps
T
43
is blood organic or inorganic
organic
44
what is the most common form of blood
liquid
45
T or F: blood can not be frozen
F
46
what should a donor do after they donate blood
drink lots of liquids to replace fluid
47
how long does it take for RBC to be replaced
21 days
48
how are donors processed
systematic way
49
are volunteer donors payed
no
50
when are blood inventories good
during disasters and summer
51
when are blood inventories bad
during holidays
52
which Christian Science group does not accept any blood transfusions
Jehovah's witnesses
53
what do the Jehovah's witnesses think is acceptable for transfusion
fractions
54
what are RBC fractions
Hemoglobin
55
what are WBC fractions
interferons and interleukins
56
what are plasma fractions
albumin, globulins, and clotting factors
57
what are platelet fractions
wound healing fractions
58
what can be given to a Jehovah's witness to stimulate RCB production
erythropoietin
59
what can be given to a Jehovah's witness to help with blood clot
vit K
60
what tool can be used on a Jehovah's Witness that cuts and cauterizes at the same time
harmonic scalpel
61
what can be used on Jehovah's witness to recover blood from the operating table, washes it, and returns the cleaned blood to the pt
intraoperative blood salvage system
62
what can be given to a Jehovah's witness to mimic human hemoglobin
artificial hemoglobin
63
what does the FDA consider blood as
Pharmaceutical drugs
64
since blood is considered a pharmaceutical drug what must a pt have in order to receive a transfusion
prescription
65
Each unit of whole blood collected contains approximately ___ mL of blood and ___ mL of anticoagulant preservative solution
500, 70
66
what process provides the most ATP for RBC
Glycolysis
67
what process provides a little bit of ATP for RBC
pentose phosphate pathway
68
What is the maximum volume of blood that can be collected from a 110-lb donor, including samples for processing?
525 ml
69
How often can a blood donor donate whole blood?
8 weeks
70
When RBCs are stored, there is a “shift to the left.” This means:
Hemoglobin-oxygen affinity increases, owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG.
71
The majority of platelets transfused in the United States today are:
Apheresis platelets.
72
Which of the following anticoagulant preservatives provides a storage time of 35 days at 1°C to 6°C for units of whole blood and prepared RBCs if an additive solution is not added?
CPDA-1
73
What are the current storage time and storage temperature for platelet concentrates and apheresis platelet components?
5 days at 20°C to 24°C
74
RBCs can be frozen for:
10 years
75
whole blood, liquid plasma, and RBC units can be stored at what temp?
1°C to 6°C
76
Additive solutions are approved for storage of red blood cells for how many days?
42
77
One criterion used by the FDA for approval of new preservation solutions and storage containers is an average 24-hour post-transfusion RBC survival of more than:
75%
78
What is the lowest allowable pH for a platelet component at outdate?
6.2
79
Which of the following occurs during storage of red blood cells?
pH decreases
80
Which of the following is approved for bacterial detection specific to extending the expiration of apheresed platelets to 7 days?
Pan Genera Detection (PGD) test
81
Which of the following is the most common cause of bacterial contamination of platelet products?
Entry of skin plugs into the collection bag
82
The INTERCEPT pathogen reduction system uses which of the following methods?
Amotosalen and UV light
83
examples of hemolytic blood rxns
intravascular and extravascular
84
examples of non hemolytic blood rxn
allergic, febrile, circulatory overload
85
what happens when a facility losses it's license or accreditation
affect the financial reimbursement
86
if blood has CPD added to it how long can it be stored
21 days
87
if blood has CPDA added to it how long can it be stored
35 days
88
if blood has Adsol added to it how long can it be stored
42 days
88
if blood has Adsol added to it how long can it be stored
42 days
89
what kind of plasma is separated from a unit of blood within 6-8 hrs of donation and rapidly frozen
fresh frozen plasma
90
what temp and how long is plasma frozen
less than -18 degree C for up to 1 year
91
what part of blood is associated with genetic make up
ag and platelets
92
how many human blood groups are there
36
93
how many RBC ags are there
346
94
how many platelet ags are there
33
95
how many blood ag do we deal with on a daily basis
27
96
def? 2 genes are equally expressed when both are present
codominant
97
what does the hardy weingberg law state
genotype frequencies in a pop remain constant from gen to gen unless there are specific influences
98
what is the hardy Weinberg equation
p^2 + 2pq + q ^2 = 1
99
what does p= in the the hardy Weinberg equation
gene frequency of the dominant allele
100
what does q= the hardy Weinberg equation
gene frequency of the recessive allele
101
T or F: if a pop is large it can change the genotype frequencies
T
102
T or F: if mating among all individuals is random it can change the genotype frequencies
T
103
T or F: if mutation occurring in parents or offspring can change the genotype frequencies
F
104
T or F: if there is no migration, differential fertility, or mortality of genotypes it can change the genotype frequencies
T
105
can IgM pass through the placenta
no
106
what form is IgM
pentamer
107
what temp does IgM react
room temp or lower
108
what immunoglobulin is usually seen in the first phase of Ab detection testing
IgM
109
what form is IgG
monomer
110
what is the most common immunoglobulin in sera
IgG
111
what shape is IgG
y shaped
112
can IgG pass through the placenta
yes
113
rank in order subtypes of IgG from greatest to least readily binding to complement
IgG33> IgG1> IgG2> IgG4
114
what temp does IgG react at
body temp
115
what is a rare immunoglobulin
IgA
116
what form does IgA come in
dimer or trimer
117
how does IgA join monomers together
J chain
118
what immunoglobulin protects the underlying epithelium from bacterial/viral penetration
IgA
119
T or F: IgA binds to complement
F
120
what happens to a pt with anti-IgA transfused with plasma containing products
death
121
what blood tube color is blood bank
pink
122
what department has purple top tubes
hematology
123
what department has red top tubes
chem
124
if a pink top tube is not available what other tube can blood bank use
purple or red
125
what anticoagulant is in a purple top tube
EDTA
126
what form of EDTA is dried form coated along sides of plastic specimen tube
K2 EDTA
127
what form of EDTA is liquid found in glass and prevent blood from clotting
K2 EDTA
128
how does EDTA prevent blood from clotting
binds to Ca2+ in the blood
129
what kind of testing can a purple top be used for in blood bank
RBC ag typing
130
what anticoagulant is in a red top
none
131
what part of blood is used for ab detection and ID
serum
132
what test is done on RBC in red top
blood typing
133
what anticoagulant is in a pink top
K2 EDTA
134
what bb reagent category possess ab of known specificity
antisera
135
what bb reagent category have RBCs that posses ag of known specificity
red cell reagents
136
what bb reagent category detects IgG and complement of RBCs
antiglobilin reagents
137
what bb reagent category are used to increase ab uptake to the corresponding ag or enhance RBC agglutination
potentiator/ enhancement media
138
what bb reagent category is plant extract that react to specific human RBC ags
lectins
139
what are red cell reagents used with
pt's sera
139
what are red cell reagents used with
pt's sera
140
what immunoglobulin is in the saline antisera media
IgM or IgG
141
what immunoglobulin is in the potentiator antisera media
IgG
142
what kind of antisera is usually an immune response
polyclonal
143
what kind of antisera is produced by multiple B- cells lines
polyclonal
144
what kind of antisera has broader specificity
polyclonal
145
what kind of antisera is produced by a single B cell
monoclonal
146
what kind of antisera has specificity firecteda single epitope
monoclonal
147
what kind of antisera has identical ab molecules
monoclonal
148
function of albumin in potentiating media
allows ab coated cells to come close together
149
T or F: potentiating media is a low ionic strength solution
T
150
function of polyethylene glycol in potentiating media
remove water for more conc of Ab
151
what affects the strength of hemagglutination
titer of ab or the affinity of the ab
152
def?Cell division that produces two daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell
mitosis
153
When a recessive trait is expressed:
two genes carrying the trait were present.
154
t or f: in a pedigree Deceased family members have a line crossed through the symbol.
T
155
Which of the following nitrogenous bases make up DNA?
Adenine, cytosine, guanine, thymine
156
t or f: A frameshift mutation at the beginning of the coding sequence is most likely to result in a phenotypic change.
T
157
def? The noncoding region of a gene
intron
158
t or f: Silica particles bind DNA under high salt concentrations.
T
159
The purpose of transcription is to:
Synthesize RNA using DNA as a template.
160
When a male possesses a phenotypic trait that he passes to all his daughters and none of his sons, the trait is said to be:
X-linked dominant.
161
When a female possesses a phenotypic trait that she passes to all of her sons and none of her daughters, the trait is said to be:
x-linked recessive
162
How is tRNA different from other types of RNA?
It recognizes amino acids and nucleic acids.
163
t or f:mRNA delivers the amino acids to the growing peptide chain during elongation.
F
164
The pattern of inheritance most commonly expressed by blood group genes is:
Autosomal codominant.
165
what does A compliance program evaluate
how effectively the facility meets regulatory requirements
166
The quality system essentials are applied to:
The blood bank’s path of workflow
167
cGMP refers to:
Manufacturing blood components
168
Internal and external failure costs are Controlled through
prevention and appraisal
169
An example of a remedial action is:
Resolving the immediate problem
170
The DMAIC methodology is used for:
Problem resolution
171
___________________________ is a set of planned actions that ensure that systems and elements that influence the quality of service are working as expected.
Quality assurance
172
The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) developed an alternative quality control option, an individualized quality control plan (IQCP). How is the minimum frequency of running quality controls determined?
by the manufacture
