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Flashcards in Lab study guide for the last test Deck (159):
1

What is Lymphangitis?

red streaks in the skin

2

What is lymphedema?

edematous swelling due to excess accumulation of lymph fluid in the tissues

3

Where are the tonsillar lymph nodes?

= Parotid lymph nodes, at the angle of the mandible

4

Where are the submandibular lymphs nodes?

halfway between the angle of the mandible and the chin, on the inferior
boarder of the jaw line

5

What are the submental lymph nodes

midline behind the tip of the mandible

6

Where are the anterior cervical lymph nodes?

In front of the SCM

7

Where are the posterior cervical lymph nodes?

located on the anterior border of the trapezius and deep to the
sternocleidomastoid

8

What are Virchow's nodes?

Subclavicular nodes

9

Where are the epitrochlear lymph nodes?

proximal and posterior to the medial condyle of the humerus

10

Where are the superior superficial inguinal lymph nodes? Inferior superficial inguinal lymph nodes?

Superior = just over inguinal canal
Inferior = – deeper in the groin compared to the superior superficial
inguina

11

True or false: you need to have the knee flexed to assess the popliteal lymph nodes

true

12

What hand should you hold the pts arm with while inspecting their right axillary lymph nodes?

Right hand holds their arm,
Left hand inspects

13

What are the five surfaces that should be evaluated with inspecting the axillary lymph nodes?

1. Apex
2. Medial aspect along the rib cage
3. Lateral aspect along the upper surface of the medial humerus
4. Anterior wall along the pectoralis major and minor
5. Posterior wall along the border of the scapula

14

What is the technique for palpating the epitrochlear nodes?

Hold their hand up 90 degrees with your non-dominant hand

Circular motion between the tris and bis

15

What is the mnemonic for documenting lymph node findings?

PALS (P=primary site. A=All associated.
L=Liver. S=Spleen)

16

Lymph nodes that are Hard and discrete = ?

Malignancy

17

Lymph nodes that are Rapid enlargement and no signs of inflammation = ?

Malignancy

18

Lymph nodes that are Slow enlargement over weeks or months = ?

Benign tumor

19

Lymph nodes that are Tender =

inflammatory

20

Lymph nodes that are Pulsatile = ?

probably an artery, dumb-dumb

21

Enlarge left sided supraclavicular node = ?

Thoracic or abdominal malignancy

22

What are the three areas that should be checked for pitting edema?

a. Dorsum of each foot
b. Behind each medial malleolus
c. Over the shins

23

What is the scale for pitting edema (range)?

1-4

24

Rate this edema: Slight, no visible distortion, disappears rapidly

1+

25

Rate this edema: A little deeper pit, no real detectible distortion, disappears in 10 to 15 seconds

2+

26

Rate this edema: Noticeable deep pit, lasts more than a minute, noticeable dependent swelling or fullness

3+

27

Rate this edema: A very deep pit, lasts 2 to 5 minutes, dependent gross distortion

4+

28

How long should you hold your finger in place to assess for pitting edema?

5 seconds

29

What part of the stethoscope do you use to listen for a bruit?

Bell

30

What does venous flow sound like on a doppler?

"rushing wind"

31

How should the probe of a doppler be held to auscultate a DP or PT pulse?

Hold the Doppler tip at an angle along the axis of blood flow to gain the best signal

32

True or false: Absence of dorsalis pedis pulse in the expected location may not be pathological
in all cases

True -- may branch elsewhere in the lower limb

33

When is Allen's test utilized?

specifically to test for patency of the ulnar artery prior to a radial artery puncture (in
arterial blood gas sampling) or the insertion of a radial arterial catheter.

34

When performing the Allen's test prior to obtaining an ABG, how long should a pt make a fist for prior to you occluding the ulnar and radial arteries? What is the normal result time?

30 seconds

Normal = 3-5 seconds

35

Jugular venous pulses are assessed as a clinical measure of what?

central venous pressure

36

The height of the pulsating column of blood in the left jugular vein measures what, specifically (think what part of the heart this corresponds to)?

The amount of blood
draining into the right atrium and is useful in measuring over hydration (hypervolemia) or
under hydration (hypovolemia)

37

In almost all cases, elevated jugular venous pressure is
indicative of what?

-An increased left ventricular end diastolic pressure
-Low left ventricular
ejection fraction

38

What does the "a" wave of the jugular venous pulses correspond to?

rebound from right atrial systole

39

What does the "c" wave of the jugular venous pulses correspond to?

expansion of the underlying carotid artery

40

What does the "y" wave of the jugular venous pulses correspond to?

filling of the right atrium from the systemic veins while the tricuspid valve
closes.

41

What is the order of the jugular venous pulse waves?

a, c, y

42

What does a prominent jugular "a" wave represent?

increased resistance to right atrial contraction. This
is seen in tricuspid stenosis

43

What does an absent jugular "a" wave represent?

A-fib

44

What do large jugular "v" waves represent?

tricuspid regurgitation and constrictive pericarditis

45

What angle should patients be at when assessing for JVD?

45 degrees

46

What conditions result in edema of the LE?

Venous Insufficiency, Thrombosis,
Deep Vein Thrombosis,
Lymphedema

47

What conditions result in local swelling of the LE?

Superficial Thrombophlebitis

48

What conditions result in pallor of the LE?

Arterial Occlusion

49

What conditions result in redness of the LE?

Thrombosis, Superficial
Thrombophlebitis

50

What conditions result in varicosities of the LE?

Venous Insufficiency

51

What conditions result in thrombosis of the LE?

Venous Insufficiency

52

What conditions result in thickened skin of the LE?

Thrombosis, Lymphedema

53

What conditions result in Brownish discoloration of the LE?

Chronic Venous Insufficiency

54

What conditions result in warmth of the LE?

Superficial Thrombophlebitis

55

What conditions result in coldness of the LE?

Arterial Occlusion, Arterial
Insufficiency

56

What is homan's test used for?

Tests for DVTs (but is neither specific nor sensitive)

57

What are the steps of checking for Homan's sign? What indicates a positive sign?

Flex knee slightly, and dorsiflex the foot. Positive if pain.

58

What is the pathogenesis of varicose veins?

Varicose veins result from incompetent vessel walls, incompetent valves, or
an obstruction of a proximal vein

59

What is a way to test for varicose veins that are not present right away?

have pt stand on toes 10 times in succession

60

What is the trendelenburg test used to assess?

assess for venous incompetence and can
be used to locate incompetent valves in the saphenous vein and communicating veins.

61

What are the steps of the trendelenburg test?

pt is supine. Raise their leg above their heart to allow for blood to drain. Occlude superficial thigh veins with hand, and have pt stand.

62

What is an abnormal finding for the Trendelenburg test?

a. Incompetent valve is present in the communicating veins when sudden refilling is
noted (color quickly returns to leg) before removal of pressure.
b. Incompetent valve is present in the saphenous vein when sudden additional refilling
takes place following the removal of pressure.

63

What is the order of examination for the upper limb and hip? (5)

1. Inspection
2. Palpation
3. ROM
4. Strength testing
5. Special testing

64

True or false: Normally, passive ROM exceeds active ROM by 5 degrees

True

65

How is muscle tone assessed?

by feeling resistance to stretch

66

Grade this muscle strength: No movement

0/5

67

Grade this muscle strength: Trace movement

1/5

68

Grade this muscle strength: Full motion, but not against gravity

2/5

69

Grade this muscle strength: Full motion against gravity but not resistance

3/5

70

Grade this muscle strength: Full motion against gravity and some resistance, but weak

4/5

71

Grade this muscle strength: Full motion against gravity and resistance

5/5

72

Weakness with pain suggests what type of issue?

MS

73

Weakness without pain suggests what type of issue?

Neuro

74

What are the four muscles of the rotator cuff?

1. Supraspinatus
2. Infraspinatus
3. Subscapularis
4. Teres minor

75

How do you test for internal rotation of the arm?

hand behind the back

76

How do you test for external rotation of the arm?

place hand on the back of the neck

77

What is the subscapularis lift off test or Gerber’s test?

Assess subscapularis--

Have pt place hand on their back, then lift off away from the back. if cannot, then subscapularis prob

78

What is the empty can or Jobe's test?

Test for the supraspinatus muscle

Steps:
i. Clinician stands in front of the patient and passively raises the arms to 90˚ in the
plane of the scapula (midway between forward flexion and sideways abduction).
ii. Arms are internally rotated with thumbs pointing down.
iii. Ask the patient to hold this position and resist attempts to push the arms downward.

79

What is the arm drop test, and what is it used for?

Used to evaluate for a large rotator cuff tear.

Steps:
i. Ask patient to lift arm to abduct it up to shoulder level at 90⁰.
ii. Have the patient slowly lower the arm to his/her side

80

What is Neer's test, and what does it evaluate?

evaluates for shoulder rotator cuff impingement or tear

i. Examiner prevents scapular motion with one hand by pressing on the scapula.
ii. Using the other hand, raise the patient’s arm in forward flexion (up to 150⁰) while
depressing the scapula. This presses the greater tuberosity of the humerus against the
acromion.

81

What is Yergason's test, and what is it used to assess for?

Evaluates forearm supination, and rotator cuff

i. Examiner stands in front of the patient and flexes his/her forearm to 90˚ at the elbow.
ii. Pronate the patient’s wrist.
iii. Ask the patient to supinate against resistance.

82

What is the carrying angle?

Angle between the humerus and the radius/ulna

83

What is tennis elbow?

Lateral epicondylitis

84

What is golfer's/pitchers elbow?

Medial epicondylitis

85

What is the flexor digitorum superficialis test?

Hold other fingers down, have pt flex the finger in question at the PIP

86

What is the flexor digitorum profundus test?

Hold other fingers down, have pt flex the finger in question at the DIP

87

Phalen's test = ?

Place dorsum of the hands together (causing flexion of the wrist)

88

Tinels' sign?

Tapping in any area, but classically over the median nerve, checking for carpal tunnel

89

What is the thomas test? What is it used for?

evaluation for hip flexion contracture

-The uninvolved flexed leg is held against the chest of the supine patient to flatten the
lumbar lordosis.
-The contralateral leg should stay extended.

90

What is the trendelenburg sign?

Asymmetry of the iliac crests when standing/walking may indicate gluteus minimus problem

91

What is the SLR used to test for?

Tests for sciatica. If pain down ipsilateral leg, positive. If pain in back, negative

92

What is the "opposite" of a swan neck deformity?

Boutonniere deformity

93

What is De Quervain's tendonitis?

TTP over the snuffbox d/t inflammation of retinaculum of the wrist

94

What is the Finkelstein test?

Place thumb in fist. Ulnar deviate wrist.

Tests for De Quervain's tendonitis

95

What is the term that describes when a person is disoriented x3, but has normal consciousness?

Confused

96

What is obtunded?

Pt will look at you when talking, but fall back asleep. No responses

97

What is stupor?

slow responses, simple motor or moaning to stimuli, arousable for short
periods of times

98

What is the AVPU mnemonic for alertness?

Alert
Verbal responsiveness
Pain responsiveness
unresponsive

99

What is the range of scores for the glasgow coma scale?

3-15

100

What are the three areas that are tested in the glasgow coma scale?

Eye opening
Verbal response
Motor response

101

What are the four levels of eye opening in the glasgow coma scale?

4= spontaneous
3= to voice
2=to pain
1= none

102

What are the five levels of verbal response in the glasgow coma scale?

5 = normal
4 = disoriented
3 = inappropriate
2 = incomprehensible
1= None

103

What are the six levels of motor response in the glasgow coma scale?

6 = normal
5= localized to pain
4= withdraws to pain
3 = flexes to pain
2 = extends to pain
1 = none

104

What are the three components of a mini-cognition test?

Three words
Clock draw
Three words again

105

The mini-mental status exam is useful for helping to diagnose what?

Dementia

106

How do you test immediate memory?

Say numbers, ask pt to repeat

107

How do you test recent memory?

Test recall of 4-5 objects after 10 minutes

108

SIGE-CAPS = ?

Sleep
Interest
Guilt
Energy
Concentration
Appetite
Psychomotor
Suicidal

109

How do you test CN I?

Occlude nostril, identify smells

110

Which chart is used for far distances: snellen or rosenbaum?

Snellen

111

What type of patient may have a problem with accommodation?

DM

112

Which is more likely to suggest a CN V problem: a unilateral or bilateral lesion?

unilateral

113

How do you test for innervation to the face?

have pt close eyes and tell difference between sharp and soft end of a q-tip

114

What are the usual five steps to test CN VII motor function?

(a). Wrinkle forehead by raising eyebrows.
(b). Squeeze eyes shut.
(c). Puff cheeks.
(d). Smile and show teeth.
(e). Purse lips and blow out

115

What are the three tests that can be used to assess CN VIII?

Rinne
Weber
Whisper

116

Which two nerves are needed for swallowing to be intact?

CN IX, X

117

Which taste is utilized for testing CN IX?

Bitter

118

Weakness of the SCM and trapezius on opposite sides may indicate an upper motor neuron lesion on which side?

The side of the SCM weakness

119

How do you test CN XII strength?

Have pt push tongue against cheek. You resist

120

What are the two tests for rapid alternating movements?

Finger to thumb
Palm up/down

121

What are the three tests of LE (point to point) movements?

Finger to nose
FNF
Heel to shin

122

What are the three tests of balance?

Romberg
Balance
Hop test

123

What are the four tests of gait and stance?

a. Walking without shoes
b. Tandem walk
c. Walking on heels and toes
d. Pronator drift

124

Ability to perform rapid alternating movements evaluates what?

cerebellar function of
ipsilateral side

125

Ability to perform the finger-thumb test evaluates what?

cerebellar function of the
ipsilateral side

126

Normal rapid alternating movements is called what?

diadochokinesia.

127

Ability to perform the palm up/palm down test evaluates what?

Cerebellar function of the ipsilateral side

128

True or false: it is okay to test the palm up/down test together

False, according to the manual

129

What is the term that this class wants you to use for FNF?

Finger-to-nose test

130

What does dysmetria (found through the FNF) suggest?

Cerebellar disease

131

What is the FNF test according to this manual?

The field sobriety test one

132

Ability to perform the heel-to-shin test evaluates what?

Cerebellar function of the ipsilateral side

133

Patients with vestibular dysfunction are likely to fall
toward or away the side of the lesion with a Romberg test

Toward (remember, cerebellar tracts are ipsilateral)

134

What does pronator drift test for (which tract, which side)?

Tests for contralateral lesions of the corticospinal tract and position sense.

135

What does graphesthesia,
Stereognosis, and two-point discrimination test?

Dorsal columns / medial lemniscus pathways

136

How do you assess the spinothalamic (and DCs) pathways?

Sharp end of a Q-tip alternating with soft end

137

Where should a tuning fork be placed when assessing for vibration?

Over bony prominences

138

How do you test proprioception?

Have them close their eyes, and move a joint (starting from fingers/toes, going upward)

139

Graphesthesia is carried by which spinal pathway?

Dorsal columns

140

What is the grading for DTRs? What is normal?

0-4, with 2 being normal

141

What is are the spinal levels that innervate the biceps reflex?

C5-C6

142

What is are the spinal levels that innervate the brachioradialis reflex?

C5-C6

143

What is are the spinal levels that innervate the triceps reflex?

C6-C7

144

Where should the arm be placed with the brachioradialis reflex?

resting on pts leg

145

Where should the arm be placed with the biceps reflex?

Palm down, on your forearm

146

What are the spinal levels that are tested for the calcaneal tendon reflex?

S1 S2

147

When should you check for clonus?

When DTRs are hyperactive

148

What is the test for clonus?

Briskly dorsiflex the foot with your hand while maintaining foot in flexion.

149

What is the scale used for superficial reflexes?

positive or negative

150

Spinal levels for the babinski sign?

L5 and S1

151

What is the correct stroke for the Babinski test?

Heel, move laterally, then medially to the ball of the foot (like an "S")

152

Spinal levels for the cremasteric reflex?

L1 and L2

153

How do you test for the abdominal reflexes?

Lightly stroke the abdomen from the top of each quadrant diagonally toward the
umbilicus.

154

What is Brudzinski's sign?

Flexion of the neck elicits flexion of the hips

155

What is Kernig's sign?

While the patient is supine, passively flex the hip to 90 degrees while the knee is flexed to 90 degrees.
b. Gently extend the knee past 90 degrees while keeping the hip flexed.

156

Bilateral leg pain with Kernig's sign suggests what? Unilateral?

Bilateral = meningeal irritation
Unilateral = nerve compression

157

What are the 10 sites tested in the Monofilament test?

Great toe
Third toe
Fifth toe
Just below each of the above
Heel
Dorsum of the foot

158

For Mcmurrays testing, how do you test the medial meniscus?

External rotation
Valgus stress

159

For Mcmurrays testing, how do you test the lateral meniscus?

Internal rotation
Varus stress