Lecture Final - Comprehensive Flashcards

1
Q

6 Levels of organization of an organism: [know the order]

  1. Chemical
  2. Tissue
  3. Organ systems
  4. Organism
A
  • Cellular

- Organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

6 Levels of organization of an organism: [know the order]

  1. Chemical
  2. Cellular
  3. Organ
  4. Organ systems
    6.
A
  • Tissue

- Organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

6 Levels of organization of an organism: [know the order]

  1. Cellular
  2. Tissue
  3. Organ
  4. Organism
A
  • Chemical

- Organ systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

__________ – ability of the body to detect and respond to changes in the environment (stimuli; stimulus is singular)

A

Responsiveness (irritability or excitability)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

__________ – sum of all chemical processes in the body

A

Metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

__________ – breaking something down from complex to simple

A

Catabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

__________ – breakdown of proteins into amino acids

A

Catabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

__________ – building up from simple to complex

A

Anabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

__________ – Joining of amino acids to form proteins

A

Anabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

__________ – defined as the existence and maintenance of a stable internal environment in an ever-changing external environment

A

Homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Homeostasis – defined as the existence and maintenance of a stable internal __________ in an ever-changing __________ environment

A
  • environment

- external

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  • 3 basic parts of a cell -

__________ – outside wall of the cell

A

Cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cell membrane 4 basic functions:

a. __________ cell’s internal environment from the __________ environment
b. Regulates flow of materials in and out of the cell
c. Maintains appropriate internal environment
d. Plays important role in communication both with other cells and with the external environment

A
  • Separates

- external

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cell membrane 4 basic functions:

a. Separates cell’s internal environment from the external environment
b. __________ flow of __________ in and out of the cell
c. Maintains appropriate internal environment
d. Plays important role in communication both with other cells and with the external environment

A
  • Regulates

- materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cell membrane 4 basic functions:

a. Separates cell’s internal environment from the external environment
b. Regulates flow of materials in and out of the cell
c. __________ appropriate __________ environment
d. Plays important role in communication both with other cells and with the external environment

A
  • Maintains

- internal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cell membrane 4 basic functions:

a. Separates cell’s internal environment from the external environment
b. Regulates flow of materials in and out of the cell
c. Maintains appropriate internal environment
d. Plays important role in __________ both with other cells and with the __________ environment

A
  • communication

- external

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  • 3 basic parts of a cell -

__________ – Consists of all contents of a cell between the plasma membrane and nucleus

A

Cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  • 3 basic parts of a cell -

Cytoplasm – Consists of all contents of a cell between the __________ membrane and __________

A
  • plasma

- nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  • 3 basic parts of a cell -

3 parts of Cytoplasm:
1.
2. Organelles
3.

A
  1. Cytosol

3. Inclusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  • 3 basic parts of a cell -

__________ – control center for cell functions

A

Nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  • 3 basic parts of a cell -

Nucleus:

  1. Has information to __________ all proteins needed by the cell
  2. Contains the __________ – genetic material
  3. Dictates type and amount of __________ to be made
A
  • manufacture
  • DNA
  • proteins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

__________ – groups of similar cells that have a common function

A

Tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Four basic types of Tissue:

i.
ii. Connective
iii.
iv. Nervous

A
  • Epithelial

- Muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Four basic types of Tissue:

i. Epithelial
ii.
iii. Muscle
iv.

A
  • Connective

- Nervous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Examples of Epithelial Tissue: - __________ - Inside of __________
- skin | - kidneys
26
Examples of Connective Tissue: - __________ - blood - __________
- fat | - cartilage
27
- 3 Types of cartilage - __________ - (most common) Found at the junction of the ribs and sternum, trachea, ends of bones that form joints
Hyaline
28
- 3 Types of cartilage - Hyaline - Found at the junction of the __________ and sternum, __________, ends of bones that form joints
- ribs | - trachea
29
- 3 Types of cartilage - __________ – Forms the ear, epiglottis, larynx
Elastic
30
- 3 Types of cartilage - Elastic – (has a lot of elastic fibers) Forms the __________, epiglottis, __________
- ear | - larynx
31
- 3 Types of cartilage - __________ – very little ground substance -Found in the discs between the vertebrae, between pubic bones in the pelvis and in the menisci of the knee (pads of cartilage between femur and tibia)
Fibrocartilage
32
- 3 Types of cartilage - Fibrocartilage – very little ground substance -Found in the discs between the __________, between pubic bones in the __________ and in the menisci of the knee
- vertebrae | - pelvis
33
5 Layers of the Epidermis are: - Stratum __________ - Stratum Spinosum - Stratum Granulosum - Stratum __________ - Stratum Corneum
- Basale | - Lucidum
34
5 Layers of the Epidermis are: - Stratum basale - Stratum __________ - Stratum Granulosum - Stratum Lucidum - Stratum __________
- Spinosum | - Corneum
35
5 Layers of the Epidermis are: - Stratum basale - Stratum Spinosum - Stratum __________ - Stratum Lucidum - Stratum Corneum
Granulosum
36
-5 Layers of the Epidermis- Stratum __________ – deepest layer 1. Main cells are basal cells – single row of stem cells that reproduce to replace keratinocytes that are shed 2. Merkel cells – sensitive to touch 3. Melanocytes – give skin its color
basale
37
-5 Layers of the Epidermis- Stratum basale – deepest layer 1. Main cells are basal cells – single row of __________ cells that reproduce to replace __________ that are shed 2. Merkel cells – sensitive to touch 3. Melanocytes – give skin its color
- stem | - keratinocytes
38
-5 Layers of the Epidermis- Stratum basale – deepest layer 1. Main cells are basal cells – single row of stem cells that reproduce to replace keratinocytes that are shed 2. __________ cells – sensitive to touch 3. Melanocytes – give skin its __________
- Merkel | - color
39
-5 Layers of the Epidermis- Stratum __________ – made up of 8-10 layers of keratinocytes that migrate from the stratum basale 1. Cells have lost some cytoplasm – look “spiky” when under a microscope, but spines are not present in life
Spinosum
40
-5 Layers of the Epidermis- Stratum Spinosum – made up of 8-10 layers of keratinocytes that migrate from the stratum __________ 1. Cells have lost some __________ – look “spiky” when under a microscope, but spines are not present in life
- basale | - cytoplasm
41
-5 Layers of the Epidermis- Stratum __________ – “grainy” layer 1. Contains keratinocytes from the stratum spinosum 2. Cells are undergoing apoptosis – programmed cell death 3. Lamellar granules – found within keratinocytes a. Release lipid-rich secretion b. Fills in spaces between cells and provides waterproofing
Granulosum
42
-5 Layers of the Epidermis- Stratum Granulosum – “grainy” layer 1. Contains keratinocytes from the stratum spinosum 2. Cells are undergoing __________ – programmed cell death 3. __________ granules – found within keratinocytes a. Release lipid-rich secretion b. Fills in spaces between cells and provides waterproofing
- apoptosis | - Lamellar
43
-5 Layers of the Epidermis- Stratum Granulosum – “grainy” layer 1. Contains keratinocytes from the stratum spinosum 2. Cells are undergoing apoptosis – programmed cell death 3. Lamellar granules – found within keratinocytes a. Release __________-rich secretion b. Fills in spaces between cells and provides __________
- lipid | - waterproofing
44
-5 Layers of the Epidermis- Stratum __________ 1. Only present in thick skin 2. Cells are flattened, packed together, and full of keratin
Lucidum
45
-5 Layers of the Epidermis- Stratum Lucidum 1. Only present in __________ skin 2. Cells are __________, packed together, and full of keratin
- thick | - flattened
46
-5 Layers of the Epidermis- Stratum __________ 1. Most superficial layer; 20-30 layers of cells 2. Made up of dead cells filled with keratin that are tightly connected by desmosomes - Provides extra protection
Corneum
47
-5 Layers of the Epidermis- Stratum Corneum 1. Most superficial layer; __________ layers of cells 2. Made up of __________ cells filled with keratin that are tightly connected by __________ - Provides extra protection
- 20-30 - dead - desmosomes
48
__________ : | -Discharge oil into hair follicles
Sebaceous (oil) glands
49
Oil is called sebum- 3 functions: 1. Inhibits __________ of bacteria 2. __________ and protects hair shaft 3. __________ skin
- growth - Lubricates - Conditions
50
__________ sweat glands – found in the armpits, around nipples, and in the pubic region
Apocrine
51
__________ sweat glands – a. Empty into hair follicles b. Secretions contain water and salts as well as fatty acids and proteins c. Controlled by hormones – doesn’t help with body temperature regulation
Apocrine
52
Apocrine sweat glands – a. Empty into __________ follicles b. Secretions contain water and __________ as well as fatty acids and proteins c. Controlled by __________
- hair - salts - hormones
53
Eccrine sweat glands - a. Coiled gland, duct goes up to the surface and opens through a __________ b. __________- than apocrine glands, but more __________ c. Sweat is 99% water – also contains salt, antibodies, proteins, and wastes d. Functions: i. Body temperature regulation ii. Excretion of water and electrolytes iii. Protection from chemicals and microorganisms
- pore - Smaller - numerous
54
Eccrine sweat glands - a. Coiled gland, duct goes up to the surface and opens through a pore b. Smaller than apocrine glands, but more numerous c. Sweat is __% water – also contains salt, antibodies, proteins, and wastes d. Functions: i. Body temperature __________ ii. Excretion of water and electrolytes iii. Protection from __________ and microorganisms
- 99 - regulation - chemicals
55
___ degree burns – redness, swelling, and pain (sunburn) | Damages only the __________
- 1st | - epidermis
56
___ degree burns –redness, swelling, and pain, with blisters | -Damages the epidermis and possibly the __________ part of the dermis
- 2nd | - upper
57
___ degree burns affect the entire thickness of the skin - Appears gray or blackened, but it’s not painful because __________ endings have been destroyed - Skin will __________, but grafts are used because of fluid loss and risk of infections
- 3rd - nerve - regenerate
58
Burns are considered Critical if: - Over 25% of the body has 2nd degree burns - Over 10% has 3rd degree - 3rd degree burns on the __________ , hands, or feet - -Burns on the face can indicate burns affecting the __________ system
- face | - respiratory
59
Burns are considered Critical if: - Over __% of the body has 2nd degree burns - Over 10% has __ degree - 3rd degree burns on the face, hands, or feet - -Burns on the face can indicate burns affecting the respiratory system
- 25 | - 3rd
60
An osteon has (a) a central canal carrying blood vessels, (b) concentric lamellae, (c) osteocytes in lacunae, (d) canaliculi that connect lacunae to the central canal, (e) all of these.
(e) all of these
61
-Cells found in Bone- _________ – stem cells that develop into osteoblasts
Osteogenic cells
62
_________ – functional unit of compact bone; each one looks like a cross section of a tree
Osteon
63
- Osteon - _________ – middle of the osteon - Contain blood vessels, nerve, and a lymphatic vessel - Run parallel to the surface of the bone
Central (or Haversian) canals
64
- Osteon - Central (or Haversian) canals – middle of the osteon - Contain _________, nerve, and a _________ vessel - Run parallel to the surface of the bone
- blood vessels | - lymphatic
65
- Osteon - _________ – travel perpendicular to the central canals
Perforating (or Volkmann’s) canals
66
- Osteon - Perforating (or Volkmann’s) canals - Provide _________ to the osteons and _________ tissue
- blood | - bone marrow
67
- Osteon - _________ – layers of matrix
Lamellae
68
- Osteon - Lamellae – Contains _________ fibers that run at angles to add _________ and resilience
- collagen | - strength
69
- Osteon - _________ – “little lakes” – spaces in between lamellae that contain osteocytes
Lacunae
70
- Osteon - Lacunae – “little lakes” – spaces in between _________ that contain _________
- lamellae | - osteocytes
71
- Osteon - _________ – “small channels” – canals that connect lacunae with one another and the Haversian canal
Canaliculi
72
- Osteon - Canaliculi – “small channels” – canals that connect _________ with one another and the _________ canal
- lacunae | - Haversian
73
_________ – increase in the diameter of the bone
Appositional growth
74
Appositional growth: - Osteoblasts near the _________ secrete matrix - Osteoblasts are surrounded and become _________ - Osteoclasts destroy bone inside the medullary cavity, increasing the diameter
- periosteum | - osteocytes
75
Appositional growth: - Osteoblasts near the periosteum secrete matrix - Osteoblasts are surrounded and become osteocytes - _________ destroy bone inside the _________ cavity, increasing the diameter
- Osteoclasts | - medullary
76
- Types of Fractures - _________ – bone is broken into 3 or more pieces
Comminuted
77
- Types of Fractures - _________ – bone is crushed; common in vertebrae
Compression
78
- Types of Fractures - _________ – usually occurs with twisting of the bone
Spiral fracture
79
- Types of Fractures - _________ – diaphysis and epiphysis separate
Epiphyseal fracture
80
- Types of Fractures - _________ – part of skull is pushed in
Depression fracture
81
- Types of Fractures - _________ – incomplete fracture; occurs in children
Greenstick fracture
82
- Types of Fractures - _________ – occurs when a tendon pulls part of the bone away
Avulsion fracture
83
-Five regions of the vertebral column - Cervical – _________ ; __ vertebrae
neck | -7
84
-Five regions of the vertebral column - Thoracic – ____-back ; __
- mid | - 12
85
-Five regions of the vertebral column - Lumbar – ____- back; __
- low | - 5
86
-Five regions of the vertebral column - Sacrum – __ fused vertebrae
5
87
-Five regions of the vertebral column - Coccyx – _________ ; _________ fused vertebrae
- tailbone | - 3-5
88
-Five regions of the vertebral column - ``` -Cervical - -Lumbar - -Coccyx ```
- Thoracic | - Sacrum
89
-Five regions of the vertebral column - ``` - -Thoracic - -Sacrum - ```
- Cervical - Lumbar - Coccyx
90
Cervical and lumbar areas are _________
concave
91
Thoracic and sacral areas are _________
convex
92
_________ – lateral curvature
Scoliosis
93
_________ – exaggerated thoracic curve (hunchback)
Kyphosis
94
_________ – exaggerated lumbar curve (swayback) | -Common in pregnant women
Lordosis
95
Surgical neck of the humerus is a:
common fracture site
96
The _________ is the most mobile and most frequently _________ joint in the body.
- shoulder | - dislocated
97
- Shoulder _________ – dislocation of the acromioclavicular joint - -Usually the result of a blow to the superior surface of the shoulder
separation
98
Shoulder _________ – head of the humerus slips out of the glenoid cavity
dislocation
99
_________ – usually results from the wear and tear on the joint surfaces
Osteoarthritis
100
_________ – inflammation of the joints
Rheumatoid Arthritis
101
_________ – crystals of uric acid form within the synovial fluid
Gouty arthritis
102
- four steps in the neuronal stimulation of a muscle - 1. Release of _________ into the _________ cleft (space) 2. ACh binds to the _________ on the muscle 3. Action potential continues on the muscle in the sarcolemma and is carried to all parts of the fiber by the T tubules 4. Return to rest – ACh is broken down by ACHe and action potential is over
- ACh - synaptic - receptors
103
- four steps in the neuronal stimulation of a muscle - 1. Release of ACh into the synaptic cleft (space) 2. ACh binds to the receptors on the muscle 3. _________ potential continues on the muscle in the _________ and is carried to all parts of the fiber by the _________ 4. Return to rest – ACh is broken down by ACHe and action potential is over
- Action - sarcolemma - T tubules
104
- four steps in the neuronal stimulation of a muscle - 1. Release of ACh into the synaptic cleft (space) 2. ACh binds to the receptors on the muscle 3. Action potential continues on the muscle in the sarcolemma and is carried to all parts of the fiber by the T tubules 4. Return to _________ – ACh is broken down by _________ and action potential is over
- rest | - ACHe
105
-Excitation-Contraction Coupling- - Action potential travels along the _________ 1. Causes the release of _________ into the sarcoplasm from the terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic _________ 2. Binds to troponin, which causes tropomyosin to move in between the strands of actin - -This exposes the binding sites on the actin
- sarcolemma - calcium - reticulum
106
-Excitation-Contraction Coupling- - Action potential travels along the sarcolemma 1. Causes the release of calcium into the sarcoplasm from the terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum 2. Binds to _________, which causes _________ to move in between the strands of actin - -This exposes the binding sites on the actin
- troponin | - tropomyosin
107
-Excitation-Contraction Coupling- - Action potential travels along the sarcolemma 1. Causes the release of calcium into the sarcoplasm from the terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum 2. Binds to troponin, which causes tropomyosin to move in between the strands of _________ - -This exposes the _________ sites on the actin
- actin | - binding
108
- Contraction Cycle - 1. ATP splits – into ____ (adenosine diphosphate) and a _________ group 2. Head of the myosin attaches to the binding site (cross bridge) 3. Cross bridge flexes (myosin head bends), moving the thin filament toward the middle of the sarcomere - -Called the “power stroke” 4. ATP binds with the myosin head, which releases the myosin head from the actin
- ADP | - phosphate
109
- Contraction Cycle - 1. ATP splits – into ADP (adenosine diphosphate) and a phosphate group 2. Head of the _________ attaches to the _________ site (cross bridge) 3. Cross bridge flexes (myosin head bends), moving the thin filament toward the middle of the sarcomere - -Called the “power stroke” 4. ATP binds with the myosin head, which releases the myosin head from the actin
- myosin | - binding
110
- Contraction Cycle - 1. ATP splits – into ADP (adenosine diphosphate) and a phosphate group 2. Head of the myosin attaches to the binding site (cross bridge) 3. Cross bridge _________ (myosin head bends), moving the _________ filament toward the middle of the _________ - -Called the “power stroke” 4. ATP binds with the myosin head, which releases the myosin head from the actin
- flexes - thin - sarcomere
111
- Contraction Cycle - 1. ATP splits – into ADP (adenosine diphosphate) and a phosphate group 2. Head of the myosin attaches to the binding site (cross bridge) 3. Cross bridge flexes (myosin head bends), moving the thin filament toward the middle of the sarcomere - -Called the “power stroke” 4. ATP binds with the _________ head, which releases the myosin head from the _________
- myosin | - actin
112
- Relaxation - 1. When _________ impulse stops, release of ____ stops 2. Calcium is returned to the terminal cisternae – requires energy (ATP) 3. When calcium is take back by the SR, troponin changes shape and tropomyosin once again covers the binding sites on the actin - -Muscle relaxes
- nerve | - ACh
113
- Relaxation - 1. When nerve impulse stops, release of ACh stops 2. _________ is returned to the terminal _________ – requires energy (ATP) 3. When calcium is take back by the SR, troponin changes shape and tropomyosin once again covers the binding sites on the actin - -Muscle relaxes
- Calcium | - cisternae
114
- Relaxation - 1. When nerve impulse stops, release of ACh stops 2. Calcium is returned to the terminal cisternae – requires energy (ATP) 3. When calcium is take back by the ___, troponin changes shape and _________ once again covers the binding sites on the actin - -Muscle relaxes
- SR | - tropomyosin
115
-4 basic fascicle arrangements- _________ – fascicles run parallel to the long axis; two types
Parallel muscles
116
-4 basic fascicle arrangements- Parallel muscles: - _________ – thin and flat like a belt - _________ – prominent belly when flexed
- Strap muscles | - Fusiform
117
-4 basic fascicle arrangements- _________ – look like a feather; fascicles attach at an angle to a tendon; three types
Pennate muscles
118
-4 basic fascicle arrangements- Pennate muscles: - _________ – fascicles attach on one side of the tendon - _________ – fascicles fan out from the center - _________ – fascicles fan out from more than 2 places
- Unipennate - Bipennate - Multipennate
119
-4 basic fascicle arrangements- _________ – large origin converges to a much smaller tendon of insertion
Convergent (triangular)
120
-4 basic fascicle arrangements- _________ – fascicles go around an opening
Circular
121
- Divisions of the PNS - _________ : (means toward)
Afferent
122
- Divisions of the PNS - _________ : carries sensory information from the receptors of the body to the CNS
Afferent division
123
- Divisions of the PNS - Afferent division: _________ detect changes in the environment – eyes, ears, touch, pain, heat, cold, etc.
Receptors
124
- Divisions of the PNS - _________ = (“away from”)
Efferent
125
- Divisions of the PNS - _________ : carries motor information from the CNS to the body
Efferent
126
- Divisions of the PNS - [Two parts of the efferent division] _________ – controls skeletal muscles -Voluntary and involuntary (reflexes)
Somatic
127
- Divisions of the PNS - [Two parts of the efferent division] _________ – visceral motor system -Controls cardiac and smooth muscle, organs, and glands
Autonomic
128
- Divisions of the PNS - [Two parts of the efferent division] _________ : -Controls cardiac and smooth muscle, organs, and glands
Autonomic
129
- Divisions of the PNS - _________ : (resting & Digesting) – generally slows things down (heart rate)
Parasympathetic
130
- Divisions of the PNS - Parasympathetic : (resting & Digesting) – generally _________ things down (heart rate)
slows
131
- Divisions of the PNS - _________ : (fight or flight) – generally speeds things up
Sympathetic
132
- Divisions of the PNS - Sympathetic (fight or flight) – generally _________ things up
speeds
133
- Divisions of the PNS - _________ – controls activity within the digestive system
Enteric
134
- Resting Membrane Potential - Potassium has a higher concentration _________ the cell
inside
135
- Resting Membrane Potential - Sodium has a higher concentration _________ the cell
outside
136
- Resting Membrane Potential - _________ wants to get out, _________ wants to get in
- Potassium | - Sodium
137
The _________ gyrus lies anterior to the central sulcus and the _________ gyrus lies posterior to the central sulcus
- precentral | - postcentral
138
The precentral gyrus lies anterior to the _________ sulcus and the postcentral gyrus lies _________ to the central sulcus
- central | - posterior
139
Four steps of Action Potentials : i. Resting ii. iii. Repolarization iv.
- Depolarization | - Hyperpolarization
140
Four steps of Action Potentials : i. ii. Depolarization iii. iv. Hyperpolarization
- Resting | - Repolarization
141
Four steps of Action Potentials : _________ – both the Na and K gates are closed
Resting
142
Four steps of Action Potentials : _________ – Na gates open and Na gushes into the cell
Depolarization
143
Four steps of Action Potentials : _________ – cell returns to its resting membrane potential
Repolarization
144
Four steps of Action Potentials : Repolarization – 1. When the inside of the cell becomes positive, the ___ channels close so no more can get in 2. At the same time, the K gates _________ and it gushes out of the cell 3. As K+ goes out and Na+ can’t get in, the _________ is restored
- Na - open - RMP