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Flashcards in LP2 final Deck (86):
1

Which category of tests do POL perform most frequently??

waived testing

2

Which laboratory department performs the analysis of tumor biopsies?

histology

3

According to CLIA, what level of testing is assigned to the performance of tumor markers?

FIND

4

Which specimen is used during streaking for “colony count”?

Urine

5

What is the name of the organism that causes Strep Throat?

Streptococcus pyogenes

6

Which motile organism causes an STD that is diagnosed by Wet Prep?

Trichomonas vaginalis

7

Which blood cell is responsible for carrying oxygen?

Erythrocyte

8

Which statement describes proper procedure to read the results of HCT?

Line up the bottom of the RBCs with 0%
Line up the top of the plasma with 100%
Read the % at the top of the packed RBCs not including the buffy coat.

9

Which specimen type is most compatible with chemistry tests?

Serum

10

What do the results of electrolytes tests tell a physician?

Water and acid base balance

11

Which organ system do Creatinine and BUN assess?

Renal system

12

What disease condition does the RF test help diagnose?

Rheumatoid arthritis

13

In which common serology test are heterophil antibodies used?

rapid slide tests for infectious mononucleosis

14

Which choice lists the correct information for the NPFA symbol?

red- flammability
blue- health
yellow- reactivity
white-other

15

What do the letters in CLIA stand for?

Clinical laboratory improvement amendment

16

What do the combination of positive results for nitrite and leukocytes on the urine dipstick imply?

UTI

17

For what specific purpose do we “streak a lawn" using a swab?

antibiotic susceptibility testing

18

Which lab test measures the “packed cell volume”?

hematocrit

19

Which cells produce antibodies?

FIND

20

Identify the virus that causes Infectious mononucleosis

HBV

21

Name the disease category when the body produces antibodies against itself.

FIND

22

What is “RAST”?

radioallergosorbent test

23

What does “in vivo” mean?

within a host or living organism

24

Where are the blood grouping antigens located?

FIND

25

In which patient population is it normal to see a “reverse” diff?

pediatric

26

This white blood cell has a light purple, lacey, variable shaped nucleus and gray-blue, ground-glass appearing cytoplasm.

monocyte

27

What is the name of the stain used in hematology for blood smears?

wright's stain

28

What 2 dyes make up the stain used in hematology for blood smears?

methylene blue eosin

29

What is the word used to describe blood that has visible fat present?

lipemia or lipemic

30

What is the name of the graph used to document control runs?

levey jennings graphs

31

What is the name of a set of rules that can be applied to QC?

westgard rules

32

What hormone does the pregnancy test detect the presence or absence of?

HCG

33

What is the name of the blood cell that might be seen on a blood smear from a patient with infectious mononucleosis?

reactive lymphocyte

34

An example of a “qualitative” test is:

pregnancy

35

“Reproducibility” relates to:

precision

36

Which of the following is not important in standardizing urinalysis?

age of the patient

37

Which lab tests help with anemia diagnosis?

RBC and WBC

38

Gram stain results of E. coli is stated as:

FIND

39

Which test is a screen for colon cancer?

occult blood

40

Which formed element in the blood is part of coagulation?

thrombocytes

41

Elevated ESR results means:

inflammation/infection

42

Which test monitors oral anticoagulant therapy?

FIND

43

Instructions for fasting lab tests include:

you can have water, and your medications

44

The blood tube used for coagulation testing is:

light blue

45

what does POL stand for?

physician office laboratory

46

calibrator

has known value and is used to verify calibration of an instrument

47

control

has known value and is used to verify the performance of the procedure

48

ALT

liver

49

AST

heart and liver

50

ALK

liver and bone

51

BUN

kidneys

52

TNT

heart

53

what 2 components make up the study of immunology

antigens and antibodies

54

radiation safety

time
distance
shielding

55

upon which ag ab reaction principle is blood typing based?

hemagglutination

56

agglutination

clumping of blood

57

antibodies

destroy foreign invaders

58

antigens

perceived as foreign to the body

59

cell mediated immunity

t lymphocytic cell response to antigens

60

helper t cells

stimulate other t cells and help b cells produce their antibodies

61

heterophile antibody

appears during mono

62

in vitro

within a lab apparatus

63

killer t tells

attack foreign antigens directly and destroy cells that bear the antigens

64

memory b cells

B remember an identified antigen for future encounters

65

memory t cells

T remember an antigen for future encounters

66

natural killer cells

attacks and destroys infected cells and cancer cells in a nonspecific way

67

normal flora

nonpathogenic

68

suppressor t cells

inhibit t and b cells after a sufficient number of cells have been activated

69

titer

quantitative test that measures the amount of antibody that reacts with a specific antigen

70

what is the most common specimen received in the microbiology and urinalysis departments

midstream clean catch urine

71

what does RhoGam do to protect an Rh positive fetus of an Rh negative mother

prevent the mother from making her own anti D against a rh positive infant

72

a type of blood cell not usually found on a normal blood smear

reactive lymphocyte
blast
myelocyte

73

cell counts included in a CBC

WBC
platelet
RBC

74

what level of testing is assigned to the performance of PSA?

highly complex

75

what is highly complex testing?

high level of risk for the patient if incorrect results or interpretation occurs

76

2 basis parts of each urinalysis

physical and chemical or macroscopic and microscopic

77

most used media plate in microbiology

blood agar plate

78

SXT

throat culture or strep throat

79

tests in a lipid panel

total cholesterol
HDL
triglycerides

80

most common reason to obtain a negative result in the presence of symptoms

performing the test early in the infection

81

erythroblastosis fetalis

hemolytic anemia in new borns resulting from maternal fetal blood group incompatibility

82

histamine

compound released by injured cells that causes the dilation of blood vessels

83

humoral immunity

b lymphocytic cell response to antigens resulting in the production of specific antibodies to destroy a foreign invader

84

IFOB

testing fecal occult blood

85

serology

study of serums and their reactions

86

immunology

study of components of the immune system and their functions