Flashcards in LP2 final Deck (86):
Which category of tests do POL perform most frequently??
Which laboratory department performs the analysis of tumor biopsies?
According to CLIA, what level of testing is assigned to the performance of tumor markers?
Which specimen is used during streaking for “colony count”?
What is the name of the organism that causes Strep Throat?
Which motile organism causes an STD that is diagnosed by Wet Prep?
Which blood cell is responsible for carrying oxygen?
Which statement describes proper procedure to read the results of HCT?
Line up the bottom of the RBCs with 0%
Line up the top of the plasma with 100%
Read the % at the top of the packed RBCs not including the buffy coat.
Which specimen type is most compatible with chemistry tests?
What do the results of electrolytes tests tell a physician?
Water and acid base balance
Which organ system do Creatinine and BUN assess?
What disease condition does the RF test help diagnose?
In which common serology test are heterophil antibodies used?
rapid slide tests for infectious mononucleosis
Which choice lists the correct information for the NPFA symbol?
What do the letters in CLIA stand for?
Clinical laboratory improvement amendment
What do the combination of positive results for nitrite and leukocytes on the urine dipstick imply?
For what specific purpose do we “streak a lawn" using a swab?
antibiotic susceptibility testing
Which lab test measures the “packed cell volume”?
Which cells produce antibodies?
Identify the virus that causes Infectious mononucleosis
Name the disease category when the body produces antibodies against itself.
What is “RAST”?
What does “in vivo” mean?
within a host or living organism
Where are the blood grouping antigens located?
In which patient population is it normal to see a “reverse” diff?
This white blood cell has a light purple, lacey, variable shaped nucleus and gray-blue, ground-glass appearing cytoplasm.
What is the name of the stain used in hematology for blood smears?
What 2 dyes make up the stain used in hematology for blood smears?
methylene blue eosin
What is the word used to describe blood that has visible fat present?
lipemia or lipemic
What is the name of the graph used to document control runs?
levey jennings graphs
What is the name of a set of rules that can be applied to QC?
What hormone does the pregnancy test detect the presence or absence of?
What is the name of the blood cell that might be seen on a blood smear from a patient with infectious mononucleosis?
An example of a “qualitative” test is:
“Reproducibility” relates to:
Which of the following is not important in standardizing urinalysis?
age of the patient
Which lab tests help with anemia diagnosis?
RBC and WBC
Gram stain results of E. coli is stated as:
Which test is a screen for colon cancer?
Which formed element in the blood is part of coagulation?
Elevated ESR results means:
Which test monitors oral anticoagulant therapy?
Instructions for fasting lab tests include:
you can have water, and your medications
The blood tube used for coagulation testing is:
what does POL stand for?
physician office laboratory
has known value and is used to verify calibration of an instrument
has known value and is used to verify the performance of the procedure
heart and liver
liver and bone
what 2 components make up the study of immunology
antigens and antibodies
upon which ag ab reaction principle is blood typing based?
clumping of blood
destroy foreign invaders
perceived as foreign to the body
cell mediated immunity
t lymphocytic cell response to antigens
helper t cells
stimulate other t cells and help b cells produce their antibodies
appears during mono
within a lab apparatus
killer t tells
attack foreign antigens directly and destroy cells that bear the antigens
memory b cells
B remember an identified antigen for future encounters
memory t cells
T remember an antigen for future encounters
natural killer cells
attacks and destroys infected cells and cancer cells in a nonspecific way
suppressor t cells
inhibit t and b cells after a sufficient number of cells have been activated
quantitative test that measures the amount of antibody that reacts with a specific antigen
what is the most common specimen received in the microbiology and urinalysis departments
midstream clean catch urine
what does RhoGam do to protect an Rh positive fetus of an Rh negative mother
prevent the mother from making her own anti D against a rh positive infant
a type of blood cell not usually found on a normal blood smear
cell counts included in a CBC
what level of testing is assigned to the performance of PSA?
what is highly complex testing?
high level of risk for the patient if incorrect results or interpretation occurs
2 basis parts of each urinalysis
physical and chemical or macroscopic and microscopic
most used media plate in microbiology
blood agar plate
throat culture or strep throat
tests in a lipid panel
most common reason to obtain a negative result in the presence of symptoms
performing the test early in the infection
hemolytic anemia in new borns resulting from maternal fetal blood group incompatibility
compound released by injured cells that causes the dilation of blood vessels
b lymphocytic cell response to antigens resulting in the production of specific antibodies to destroy a foreign invader
testing fecal occult blood
study of serums and their reactions