LP2 final Flashcards

(86 cards)

1
Q

Which category of tests do POL perform most frequently??

A

waived testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which laboratory department performs the analysis of tumor biopsies?

A

histology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

According to CLIA, what level of testing is assigned to the performance of tumor markers?

A

FIND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which specimen is used during streaking for “colony count”?

A

Urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the name of the organism that causes Strep Throat?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which motile organism causes an STD that is diagnosed by Wet Prep?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which blood cell is responsible for carrying oxygen?

A

Erythrocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which statement describes proper procedure to read the results of HCT?

A

Line up the bottom of the RBCs with 0%
Line up the top of the plasma with 100%
Read the % at the top of the packed RBCs not including the buffy coat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which specimen type is most compatible with chemistry tests?

A

Serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What do the results of electrolytes tests tell a physician?

A

Water and acid base balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which organ system do Creatinine and BUN assess?

A

Renal system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What disease condition does the RF test help diagnose?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In which common serology test are heterophil antibodies used?

A

rapid slide tests for infectious mononucleosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which choice lists the correct information for the NPFA symbol?

A

red- flammability
blue- health
yellow- reactivity
white-other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What do the letters in CLIA stand for?

A

Clinical laboratory improvement amendment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What do the combination of positive results for nitrite and leukocytes on the urine dipstick imply?

A

UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

For what specific purpose do we “streak a lawn” using a swab?

A

antibiotic susceptibility testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which lab test measures the “packed cell volume”?

A

hematocrit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which cells produce antibodies?

A

FIND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Identify the virus that causes Infectious mononucleosis

A

HBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Name the disease category when the body produces antibodies against itself.

A

FIND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is “RAST”?

A

radioallergosorbent test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does “in vivo” mean?

A

within a host or living organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Where are the blood grouping antigens located?

A

FIND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
In which patient population is it normal to see a “reverse” diff?
pediatric
26
This white blood cell has a light purple, lacey, variable shaped nucleus and gray-blue, ground-glass appearing cytoplasm.
monocyte
27
What is the name of the stain used in hematology for blood smears?
wright's stain
28
What 2 dyes make up the stain used in hematology for blood smears?
methylene blue eosin
29
What is the word used to describe blood that has visible fat present?
lipemia or lipemic
30
What is the name of the graph used to document control runs?
levey jennings graphs
31
What is the name of a set of rules that can be applied to QC?
westgard rules
32
What hormone does the pregnancy test detect the presence or absence of?
HCG
33
What is the name of the blood cell that might be seen on a blood smear from a patient with infectious mononucleosis?
reactive lymphocyte
34
An example of a “qualitative” test is:
pregnancy
35
“Reproducibility” relates to:
precision
36
Which of the following is not important in standardizing urinalysis?
age of the patient
37
Which lab tests help with anemia diagnosis?
RBC and WBC
38
Gram stain results of E. coli is stated as:
FIND
39
Which test is a screen for colon cancer?
occult blood
40
Which formed element in the blood is part of coagulation?
thrombocytes
41
Elevated ESR results means:
inflammation/infection
42
Which test monitors oral anticoagulant therapy?
FIND
43
Instructions for fasting lab tests include:
you can have water, and your medications
44
The blood tube used for coagulation testing is:
light blue
45
what does POL stand for?
physician office laboratory
46
calibrator
has known value and is used to verify calibration of an instrument
47
control
has known value and is used to verify the performance of the procedure
48
ALT
liver
49
AST
heart and liver
50
ALK
liver and bone
51
BUN
kidneys
52
TNT
heart
53
what 2 components make up the study of immunology
antigens and antibodies
54
radiation safety
time distance shielding
55
upon which ag ab reaction principle is blood typing based?
hemagglutination
56
agglutination
clumping of blood
57
antibodies
destroy foreign invaders
58
antigens
perceived as foreign to the body
59
cell mediated immunity
t lymphocytic cell response to antigens
60
helper t cells
stimulate other t cells and help b cells produce their antibodies
61
heterophile antibody
appears during mono
62
in vitro
within a lab apparatus
63
killer t tells
attack foreign antigens directly and destroy cells that bear the antigens
64
memory b cells
B remember an identified antigen for future encounters
65
memory t cells
T remember an antigen for future encounters
66
natural killer cells
attacks and destroys infected cells and cancer cells in a nonspecific way
67
normal flora
nonpathogenic
68
suppressor t cells
inhibit t and b cells after a sufficient number of cells have been activated
69
titer
quantitative test that measures the amount of antibody that reacts with a specific antigen
70
what is the most common specimen received in the microbiology and urinalysis departments
midstream clean catch urine
71
what does RhoGam do to protect an Rh positive fetus of an Rh negative mother
prevent the mother from making her own anti D against a rh positive infant
72
a type of blood cell not usually found on a normal blood smear
reactive lymphocyte blast myelocyte
73
cell counts included in a CBC
WBC platelet RBC
74
what level of testing is assigned to the performance of PSA?
highly complex
75
what is highly complex testing?
high level of risk for the patient if incorrect results or interpretation occurs
76
2 basis parts of each urinalysis
physical and chemical or macroscopic and microscopic
77
most used media plate in microbiology
blood agar plate
78
SXT
throat culture or strep throat
79
tests in a lipid panel
total cholesterol HDL triglycerides
80
most common reason to obtain a negative result in the presence of symptoms
performing the test early in the infection
81
erythroblastosis fetalis
hemolytic anemia in new borns resulting from maternal fetal blood group incompatibility
82
histamine
compound released by injured cells that causes the dilation of blood vessels
83
humoral immunity
b lymphocytic cell response to antigens resulting in the production of specific antibodies to destroy a foreign invader
84
IFOB
testing fecal occult blood
85
serology
study of serums and their reactions
86
immunology
study of components of the immune system and their functions