Pack C 2015 Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Pack C 2015 Deck (130):

Are the following winds reference to true or magnetic?

  • ATIS
  • HSI
  • CDU

  • ATIS = Magnetic
  • HSI = Magnetic
  • METAR = True
  • CDU = True
  • Variation in Japan is 7 degrees west


When are RVR’s reported?

  • Prevailing visibilty is 1500m or less or:
  • RVR value 1800m or less


What do the codes N U & D mean in a METAR?

  • RVR is reported as average value in past 10 minutes
  • If average value in first 5 minutes varies by 100m or more from average in the next 5 minutes then U,D,N are used
  • U = Upward
  • D = Downward
  • N = Change not distinctive


What is the difference between FG & BR?

  • Mist (BR) = Visibility is 5000m - 1000m
  • FG = Lowest visibilty is less than 1000m except for shallow, patches, partial or vicinity


What does the word AUTO mean in a METAR?

  • The weather is automatically observed by the relavant equipment and reported every 10 minutes


What is defined as a strong wind?

  • 40 - 50kts?


Define a typhoon?

  • Powerful tropical storms produced in low pressure areas of southern oceans near the equator
  • Wind velocity near the center greater than 64kts
  • Major Typhoon season Japan = August to October
  • Factors affecting are the Ogasawara high edge location and jetsream locations


At which point do you accept the crosswind for landing?

  • If exceeds the crosswind limit when landing clearance received then you can continue and check it again at 500ft
  • If still exceeds crosswind limit at 500ft you must go-around
  • If exceeds limit after 500ft it is up to PIC to determine whether safe landing can be made of to go-around


If the destination TAF includes a TEMPO that is below minimum, what are your actions?

  • Captain and Flight Dispatcher communicate via flight watch
  • Flight can't continue unless an additional alternate airport is selected

Additional alternate airport is not required if:

  • Holding is possible until weather improves or:
  • Alternate airport weather better than 1500ft and 5000m for ETA at alternate or:
  • Aircraft diverts to original alternate airport


Where are NOTAMS from?

  • The Common Aeronautical Data Interchange Network?


Explain the cost index & the difference between Boeing and ANA minimums & maximums?

  • Speed which minimizes total cost (time+fuel) for the company
  • Reationship between time related inflight costs and fuel costs
  • Boeing range 000-999

  • ANA range 20-200 (20,40,73,110,150,200)

  • 200 = High speeds, best eta, highest fuel burn
  • 73 = Optimizes time cost vs fuel for the airline
  • 20 = Minimises consumption in all flight phases in ECON


When should you change the cost index from 73?

  • Only after takeoff
  • Considerable early arrival due to wind effects
  • Considerably late arrival due long taxi etc
  • Aniticipation of holding by airport curfew and ATC matters
  • Freighter uses cost index 20 normally 


What are the names of the Japanese islands?

From North to South they are:

  • Hokkaido
  • Honshu
  • Shikoku
  • Kyushu
  • Okinawa island chain


Explain the typical four weather seasons in Japan? Winter


  • December to February
  • Dominated by high pressure areas of the Siberian continental air mass
  • High pressure over Siberia (West) and low pressure over northern pacific (East)
  • High west, Low East = Seiko-Toutei


What hazardous weather is typical in Japan?

  • Mountain waves
  • Typhoons and heavy rain
  • Heavy snow
  • Strong cross-winds
  • Wind shear
  • Low level turbulence
  • Sea fog


Review AIM-J 11-20



Define PCF

  • Planned Contingency Fuel is fuel that the company specifies for various routes and airports that cause increased fuel burn, based on statistical results

  • Amount is specified in the route manual

  • For planning it is calculated at estimated landing weight at destination 1500ft ISA holding rate


Define contingency fuel

  • Contingency fuel caters for fuel increase due to variations in wind, temperature, flight level, performance use of anti-ice etc
  • Calculated as 5% of burn-off fuel, or 15 minutes holding at destination 1500ft ISA holding rate, whichever is greater


Can PIC change PCF?

  • Yes if the PIC and dispatcher agree it is unessesary to load


Can PIC change extra fuel?

  • Yes if the PIC and dispatcher agree they can take more or less


If PIC & the dispatcher disagree, what action should you take?

  • The safer option shall be adopted


What is the minimum required fuel?

  • Burn off fuel
  • Contingency fuel
  • Aletrnate fuel
  • Reserve fuel


Define taxi fuel

  • The amount of fuel required from engine start to takeoff
  • Normally 10 minutes 47 lbs/m including 4 lbs/m for APU
  • Consult FPDM taxi fuel data for flight planning


What is the Air Japan fuel loading standard?

  • Burn of fuel
  • Contigency fuel
  • Alternate fuel
  • Reserve fuel
  • Taxi fuel
  • Planned contigency fuel
  • Extra fuel


You are planned to cruise today at FL360, is this the optimum altitude?



What is the company standard altitude?

  • Optimum altitude
  • Best fuel mileage altitude for a given cruising airspeed and weight
  • Generally minimises burn off fuel


Define initial cruise altitude

  • The altitude closest to optimum altitude at which a rate of climb of 300ft or more and a buffet margin of 1.3g or more exists


What is the endurance?

  • If the time spent in the air is of interest and not the distance traveled then one is concerned with endurance

  •  The maximum endurance of an aircraft (or the time aloft) refers to a flight condition that requires the minimum fuel power


What are the implications of a higher endurance time?

  • Increased flight time?
  • More exposed to headwinds?


Explain LRC

  • Minimizes block fuel
  • The speed at which 99% of maximum range fuel mileage can be obtained
  • Used as planning cruising speed to alternate airports
  • Select FMC LRC


Explain ECON Cruise

  • The most economical speed
  • Used in normal flight planning
  • Select FMC ECON with cost index 73
  • 250/290/7.8 and .78/290/250


Explain Max Cruise Speed

  • Minimizes block time
  • 250/350/.84 and .84/350/250
  • 250/330/.83 and .83/330/250 with winglets


What is Vmo?

  • 360
  • 340 with winglets


What is Mmo?

  • .86 Mach


What does FLEX-C mean?

  • The Flexible MTOW category relating to the reduced MTOW
  • To reduce airway fees when used for shorter distance flights


What is MTCF

  • Max tank capacity fuel


Regarding weight & balance, how many manifests are there?

  • 5
  • 6 inluding the computerised manifest


Can PIC change taxi fuel?



If payload is greater than ACL, what are your actions?

  • Reduce PCF, EXTRA or TAXI?
  • Revise takeoff/landing performance figures to allow higher takeoff/landing weights?
  • Find a closer alternate requiring less fuel to be carried?


When do you need to meet the minimum fuel quantity? (Company Vs Air Law)

  • The captain shall confirm the FOB approved in the company clearance was loaded when signing the journey/radio log or when fuel loading is finished (Company fuel)
  • The amount of FOB must be at or above the minimum required at block out time (Minimum legal fuel)



By what time can you accept LMC?

  • Prior to door closing?


Is the C of G envelope an operational limit or a working limit?

  • CG operational limit is the aft or forward limit found in AOM chap 1 limitations

  • Working CG is the forward or aft CG limit defined in the Weight and balance manifest

  • Working CG is more strict and it assures that during any movement of fuel, passengers, cargo, landing gear and flaps that the limit CG will never be exceeded


Why are there two lines for the Aft C of G limit?

  • It depends on whether there is more or less than 70,000lbs of fuel on board
  • It's related movement of CG rearward as fuel is burnt when there is more than 70,000 lbs of fuel on board so in the case that there is more than 70,000 lbs on board the aft working imit if brought forward to make sure the aft limit is not eceeded during flight.


Why should we keep the C of G away from the forward/aft limit?

  • If the center of gravity of an airplane is too far aft it will become more unstable, if the CG is too far forward then drag will increase due to increased angle of attack


What is the default value for C of G?

  • 25%??


Explain fuel limit



Explain ASD

  • The distance required to accelerate with all engines operating, have an engine failure or other event at VEVENT at least one second before V1, recognize the event, reconfigure for stopping and bring the airplane to a stop using maximum wheel braking with the speed brakes extended
  • Reverse thrust is not used to determine the accelerate-stop distance


Explain screen height



Which take-off segment has the highest requirement

  • 2nd segment
  • 2.4%
  • Gear retraction complete to acceleration height


What is 2.4% / 1.2% in fpm?

  • Gradient x Groundspeed
  • @ 148 kts (V2 143+5 no wind)
  • 2.4% = 355 ft/m
  • 1.2% = 178 ft/m


Explain a balanced V1

  • Where the ASD is equal to the TOD and results in a Balanced V1
  • ANA will generally always use a Balanced V1 however in the case that V1 is limited by Vmcg on a slippery runway this will result in an unbalanced V1


Does is always need to be a balanced V1?

  • ANA will generally always use a Balanced V1 however in the case that V1 is limited by Vmcg on a slippery runway this will result in an unbalanced V1


Which is bigger, Vmca or Vmcg? Please explain

  • Vmcg
  • Vmcg is a higher speed than Vmca as when on the ground the aircraft rotates around its main undercarriage which is aft of the cg. This gives a shorter rudder arm (flight mechanics), it is therefore required that Vmcg is higher to allow directional control to be maintained??? check this!


How does take-off thrust affect Vmca or Vmcg

  • A specific derate level corresponds to the basic maximum thrust that is reduced by a corresponding percentage value
  • New minimum control speeds (VMCG, VMCA) can then be established


How would an obstacle on departure affect performance?

  • Aircraft neeeds to be able to acheive specified performance of SID eevn with engine failure
  • If unable then payload may have to be restricted or a higher thrust rating used
  • Unless there is a special departure procedure that the aircraft can fly in the event of an engine failure


What documents are required in the cockpit? (By law & by company)



What documents are in the cockpit pouch?

  • Airworthiness Certificate
  • Registration Certificate
  • Designation for Operating Limitations
  • Radio Station License + Aircraft Earth station license
  • Emergency documents
  • Air Operator Certificate Original Transcript


If the seal is broken, what are your actions?

  • If the seal is borken the Captain shall check each document and report it to ANA maintenance
  • The aircraft may still depart if all documents are present


If one document is missing, what are your actions?

  • The captain shall report it to ground personnel and flight operations support
  • Flight cannot depart


Explain RVSM equipment

  • 2 independent altitude measuring systems
  • 1 automatic altitude control system
  • 1 altitude alert system
  • 1 SSR altitude reporting transponder


What is the RVSM tolerance on the ground? And airborne?

On ground:

  • Primary altimeter / field elevation diff: 75’
  • 2 primary altimeters difference: 40’

In flight:

  • 2 primary altimeters difference: 200' (check every hour)
  • Overshoot / undershoot reported if deviation >150’
  • Deviation by 300' reported once established


What altitudes are RVSM airspace?

  • 290 - 410


With the message ALT DISAGREE, what are your actions?

  • Do the ALT DISAGREE checklist
  • Advise ATC "unable RVSM due equipment.”
  • Negotiate an RVSM altitude, if possible
  • If lower altitude is expected, contact ANA for updated fuel figures


With an altitude deviation of 150 feet, what are your actions?

  • If during level off an overshoot of up to 150ft is allowed
  • If during cruise an altitude deviation of up to 300ft is allowed
  • If deviation of more than 150ft during level or or more than 300ft during cruise then report to ATC and submit an altitude deviation report


What is the minimum oxygen pressure?

  • 850 non-etops
  • 1550 etops
  • 1250 to Urmqi


What are your actions if oxygen pressure is at or just above minimum?

  • During flight above 25,000ft if one pilot leaves the cockpit the other has to use oxgen until they return
  • Therefore it would be adisable not to depart with minumum oxygen as when arriving at destination the oxygen level will be insufficient
  • Oxygen refilling may not be available or may be time consuming at the next port eg: Honolulu


How long will 850 psi last?

  • 76cf or optional 114cf bottle
  • Minimum of 120 minutes
  • 10 minutes for emergency descent then 110 mins at 10,000ft
  • This is why urmqi has higher psi requirement as LSALT is higher than 10,000ft so longer at higher altitude


Do the cabin chemical oxygen generators create smoke?

  • No but they do generate a lot of heat


Explain RNAV 10



Explain RNAV 5



Explain RNAV 2 & RNAV 1



Who is responsible for monitoring RNP?



What is the required on board equipment for a PAPAS 3 departure?



Explain critical DME…

  • A DME facility that, when unavailable, results in a navigation service which is insufficient for an operation based on DME/DME or DME/DME/IRU along a specific route or procedure
  • Such DME and segment which is affected by its outage is published on AIP
  • Aircraft shall notify ATC when it cannot meet RNAV requirements to continue RNAV operation due to unserviceablily of the DME



If a critical DME becomes U/S, what are your actions?



Explain CMV…

  • CMV is used when RVR is unavailable. It uses the reported visibilty and factors it according to day or night to give a CMV
  • Only used for straight in non-precision approaches and cat 1 ILS
  • Can't be used for takeoff, alternate, circling, cat 2 or 3


Can you use CMV in all phases of flight?



What is the required on board equipment for a CAT I approach?



Explain why we use a 200 foot DA…



78. What is the crosswind limit for a CAT I approach? (Dry/Wet/RVR <1200m)

  • 10kts


What ground equipment is required for a CAT I ILS?



With a cloud CIG of 100 feet, how does this affect your landing minima?



If a crosswind is 25kts G 35kts, can you land?



Explain A1, B1, C1, D1 codes



What equipment is required for RNAV 1?



In pre-flight how should you check an RNAV flight route?

  • M, Y and Z designators


Explain DME GAP

  • Segment on the Route where Combination of DME signal which meets designated navigation accuracy requirement can NOT be received

  • Such GAP is published on AIP

  • It is not allowed for aircraft which can meet RNAV navigation requirements only by DME/DME to fly on the route including DME Gap

  • Upon filing flight plan, pilot must determine if he/she can overfly the DME Gap


With RNAV 5, how can you check the DME GAP?



On an RNAV approach, when should you set 0.3?



Does X-TRK ERROR show on an RNAV approach?



What are the take-off segments?

  • 1st segment: Positive
  • 2nd segment: 2.4%
  • 3rd segment: 1.2%
  • 4th segment: 1.2% 


If an obstacle is present, what aspects should you consider?



What take-off flap setting should be used for a domestic flight?

  • As specified in the AOM 8-2-10 for a domestic flight on a Dry/Wet runway greater than 2000m, the recommended takeoff power and flap setting is F5 TO2


Explain hold over time… (HOT)

  • The estimated time for which an anti-icing fluid will prevent the formation of frost or ice and the accumulation of snow on the protected surfaces of an aeroplane, under specified weather conditions
  • Holdover Time begins at the start of the anti-icing application. If a two-step operation is used, then it begins at the start of the final (anti-icing) step
  • By definition therefore, holdover time will have effectively run out when frozen deposits start to form or accumulate on treated aircraft surfaces


How can you confirm the snow intensity?

  • From the ATIS or METAR report or:
    Using the snowfall intensity visibility table in the AOM bulletin


Explain snow & fog conditions…



When is PCF different? (Is PCF the same RJAA-ROAH as ROAH-RJAA?)

  • Planned continecy fuel is route and airport dependant
  • Yes it would be different because it is based on taxi, holding, ATC etc and this is different each way


Does taxi fuel apply to Taxi Out, Taxi In, or both?

  • Taxi out only


Explain todays take-off weight & landing weight…



Explain conditions A or B (from NAVPOBS)…



What is the buffet margin at optimum altitude & maximum altitude?



What is CWS?



How do you report unable RVSM to ATC? (turb/equip)



Without GPS, how is the aircrafts position updated?



Explain RAIM…



How do you know RAIM prediction?



What is the required on-board equipment for RNAV 4?



Is the field length limit affected by the runway condition?



What is the screen height for Snow/Wet/Dry runway?



Explain critical operation…



109. What flap or thrust setting should you use on a slippery r/w?



What is the default C of G in the cruise?

  • 25%?


Explain fuel saving with an AFT or forward C of G

  • A more forward center of gravity requires a nose up pitching moment obtained through reduced tail plane lift, which is compensated for by more wing lift
  • This creates more induced drag and leads to an increase in fuel consumption
  • It is better to have the center of gravity as far aft as possible
  • As a rearward shift in CG position deteriorates the dynamic stability of the aircraft, the CG envelope defines an aft limit.


Explain the typical four weather seasons in Japan? Spring

  • March to May
  • Yosuko and oceanic high pressure dominate Japan
  • Nihonkai low creates Haru-Ichiban (first storm of spring) and marks the end of winter
  • Strong cross-winds, wind shear and turbulence at Narita


Explain the typical four weather seasons in Japan? Summer

  • June to August
  • Rainy season May to July
  • Hot and humid with prevailing seasonal winds from the Ogasawara High
  • Thunderstorms
  • Sea fog in Northern Japan


How is it possible to determine the snowfall intensity? 

  • From the ATIS or METAR report or:
  • Using the snowfall intensity visibility table in the AOM bulletin


What is the minimum RVR for takeoff?

  • 200m Providing all three transmissometers serviceable and low visibility procedures in use 


Is it permitted to depart from an Intersection during LVP’s?

  • Final decision for takeoff from an intersection should be cancelled when PIC judges that it is unreasonable to do it under current weather conditions, traffic or cabin preparation


What is a balanced field?

  • Where the ASD is equal to the TOD and results in a Balanced V1
  • ANA will generally always use a Balanced V1 however in the case that V1 is limited by Vmcg on a slippery runway this will result in an unbalanced V1


How is the takeoff climb limit calculated? 

  • The ability of the aircraft to climb from liftoff to 1500ft above the airfield elevation and meet the required climb gradients based on Weight, Altitude & Temperature
  • Corrections can also be made for Anti-icing or Packs off


How is the takeoff field limit calculated? 

  • The field limit weight is calculated using the runway length available to calculate the ASD, TOD & Factored all engine TOD based on Weight, Altitude, Temperature, Wind, Runway slope & Runway condition
  • Corrections can also be made for Antiicing or Packs off


What are the crosswind limits for the B767?

  • Dry: 33kts
  • Wet (grooved) 25kts
  • Wet (ungrooved) 20kts
  • BA Good: 20 kts
  • BA Medium-Good: 20 kts (15kts less than 2500m)
  • BA Medium: 20 kts (15kts less than 2500m)
  • BA Medium-Poor: 15kts (10kts less than 2500m)
  • BA Poor: 10kts
  • Slush (2mm or less): 15kts
  • Slush (3mm-12mm): 10kts

Takeoff & Landing not permitted when:

  • Water/Slush of 13mm or more
  • Wet snow of 51mm or more
  • Dry snow of 71mm or more - Takeoff
  • Dry snow of 153mm or more –Landing


Why is there a lower crosswind limit for contaminated runways?

  • Slippery runways reduce the handling capability in crosswind as a result ANA have defined slippery crosswind limitations based on their experience


Why are you landing with flap 30 for this flight? 

  • The AOM 8-2-11 recommends F25 for a landing on a runway greater than 2000m however for training we have been using F30


Why have you chosen to use Flap 5 and TO2 for this flight? 

  • As specified in the AOM 8-2-10, for a domestic flight on a Dry/Wet runway greater than 2000m, the recommended takeoff power and flap setting is F5 TO2


What does the term AUTO mean on the Kadena METAR and can the data be used to set QNH? 

  • METAR AUTO is generally not reported to the ATC Unit therefore: Do not use QNH reported by METAR AUTO for altimeter setting
  • Use visibility, weather, ceiling & cloud cover reported by METAR AUTO as material for synthetic analysis (Not for judgment of the company minima)
  • As RVR’s are observed the same way they are deemed reliable
  • The above information does not apply to KADENA or YOKOTA as their reports are based on both automatic and visual observations which are corrected if incorrect


What does the term TEMPO mean in a forecast?

  • That the forecast condition will remain for less than 1 hour and for less than half of the forecast period


What information is distributed by NOTAM? 

  • Information that is of temporary nature and short in duration regarding any aeronautical facility service, procedure or hazard


What is RAIM?

  • Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring

  • GNSS receiver processor determines the integrity of the GNSS navigation signals using only GPS signals or GPS signals augmented with altitude (baro aiding)

  • At least one additional satellite needs to be available with the correct geometry over and above that needed for the position estimation for the receiver to perform the RAIM function.


What are the 7 modes of GPWS?

  • Mode 1 – Excessive Descent Rate
  • Mode 2 – Excessive Closure to Terrain
  • Mode 3 – Altitude Loss After Takeoff
  • Mode 4 – Unsafe Terrain Clearance
  • Mode 5 – Excessive Deviation Below Glideslope
  • Mode 6 – Advisory Callouts
  • Mode 7 – Windshear Alerting