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Flashcards in Pharm Quiz 2 Deck (133):
1

What drugs are considered NRTIs (nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors)?

(3)

Zidovudine

Stampidine

Lamivudine

2

What viruses are affected by NRTIs?

HIV 

FeLV

FIV

3

Which drugs are viral DNA polymerase inhibitors? (5)

Acyclovir

Idoxuridine

Ribavirin

Trifluridine

Foscarnet

4

What viruses are viral DNA polymerase inhibitors effective against?

Herpes

(foscarnet  can also do FeLV)

5

What drugs are inhibitors of coat disassembly and neuramidase inhibitors? (2)

Amantadine

Rimantadine

6

Which viruses are effected by inhibitors of coat disassembly and neurmidase inhibitors?

influenza A or A/B

7

What drug is in the category of biopharmaceuticals and immunomodulators?

interferon

8

What viruses can interferon treat?

IBR

FeLV/FIV

CPV-2

EHV-1

9

What is the MOA for NRTIs?

analogues of naturally occuring deoxynucleosides

10

What are the veterinary applications for NRTIs?

FeLV

FIV

Bovine Leukemia Virus

11

What are the side effects of zidovudine (NRTIs) in cats?

hemolysis after IV injection

12

What drug is more potent than zidovudine when treating FIV and has better safety profile?

lamivudine

13

What are the veterinary applications of acyclovir?

EHV-1

FHV

CHV

 

14

Which viral DNA polymerase inhibitor is toxic to cats?

valacyclovir

15

Who has better bioavailability of DPIs (DNA polymerase inhibitors), foals or adult horses?

foals

16

Which DPI is for only for topical administration?

penciclovir

17

Which DPI drug is the efficacy questionable?

famciclovir

18

What is the M2-ion channel inhibitors MOA?

acidification of endosome, dissasembles viral structure

19

Which M2-ion channel inhibitor is more safe and useful in equine influenza?

rimantidine

20

What is amantidine useful for besides anti-viral? What receptor does it bind to?

treatment of pain

NMDA receptor antagonist (same as ketamine)

21

What species is amantidine well tolerated in for pain and what other pain meds can it be combined with?

well tolerated in dog

can be combined with NSAIDs

22

What type of drugs were used to treat the mexican swine flu?

Neuramidase/sialidase inhibitors

(zanamivir and oseltamivir)

23

What drug inhibits both DNA and RNA viruses?

ribavirin

24

What are the veterinary applications of ribavarin? 

in vitro:promising

toxic in cats

not used in vivo yet in dogs and cows

25

What is the MOA for interferon omega?

promotes synthesis of enzymes that interfere with viral replication

cell-cell interaction cuts need for more drug

26

What can happen if a recombinant interferon made in one species is used to treat another?

allergies

27

What are used as adjuvants in viral vaccines?

agonists of innate immune receptors

28

What are the 3 groups of naturally occuring antifungals?

griseofulvin

polyenes (amphotericin)

echinocandins

29

What are the 2 groups of synthetic antifungals?

azoles

pyramidines

30

What is the MOA of polyenes?

binds to ergosterol in membrane - cant bind to cholesterol

ability to form pores in fungal membrane - electrolyte imbalance

31

What is the MOA of azoles?

blocks ergosterol synthesis (P450)

32

What is the MOA of flucytosine?

binds to microtubules, disrupts mitotic spindles

33

What is the MOA of echinocandins?

inhibit beta glucan synthesis

34

What is the MOA of allylamines?

inhibits squalene epoxidase to block ergosterol synthesis

35

What 3 drugs are polyene antibiotics?

Amphotericin B

Natamycin

Nystatin

36

What organisms have the least affinity for polyene antibiotics?

bacteria

37

Are polyene antibiotics broad or narrow spectrum?

broad

38

What type of infections are polyene antibiotics used for?

disseminated infections

39

Where is amphotericin B not readily absorbed?

GIT

poor tissue penetration in inflammation

40

What are the side effects of amphotericin B?

renal toxicity

hypokalemia

irritant to endothelium

liposome complex preps show less side effects

41

What are nystatin and natamycin used to treat?

localized superficial infections

42

What are the side effects of nystatin and natamycin?

vomiting and diarrhea

43

Are azole drugs fungistatic or fungicidal?

fungistatic

44

When enzyme do azole drugs inhibit and what effect does it produce?

fungal cytochrome p450 --> inhibits conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol

45

Which imidazole drug has the first pass effect?

clotrimazole

46

What are the side effects of imidazoles?

GIT upset

decrease appetite

hepatotoxicity

inhibit CYP450

inhibit PgP

47

Which imidazole drug is highly lipophilic and highly protein bound?

ketoconazole

48

What are the 4 imidazole drugs?

ketoconazole

clotrimazole

miconazole

enilconazole

49

What imidazole drugs have low topical absorption?

miconazole and enilconazole

50

Which imidazole drug reaches minimal CNS concentrations?

ketoconazole

51

How are most imidazoles administered?

topical

52

What are the 4 triazole drugs?

fluconazole

itraconazole

voriconazole

posaconazole

53

What ways are triazoles administered?

topical and systemic use

54

Which triazole is highly lipophilic?

itraconazole

55

Which triazole has a large Vd and is water soluble?

fluconazole

56

Which triazoles are poorly water soluble?

voriconazole

posaconazole

57

What are the side effects of triazole drugs?

teratogenic

 

58

What are the side effects of itraconazole alone?

hepatotoxic - inhibits CYP 3A

59

What is the MOA of flucytosine?

converted by fungal cytosine deaminase to

antimetabolite selective to fungi

interferes with DNA synthesis

(mammals lack cytosine deaminase)

60

Is flucytosine broad or narrow spectrum?

narrow

61

Why should you not use flucytosine alone?

rapid emergence of resistance

62

What are the pharmacokinetics of flucytosine?

large Vd, water soluble, kidney excretion

63

What are the two groups of intracellular antifungals?

pyrimidine analogues

mitotic inhibitors

64

What are the two groups of ergosterol inhibitors?

azoles

allylamines

65

What drug is a pyrimidine analogue?

flucytosine

66

What drug is a mitotic inhibitor?

griseofulvin

67

What is the MOA of echinocandins?

inhibit fungal beta glucan synthesis

68

What is the MOA of allylamines?

inhibits squalene epoxidase to block ergosterol synthesis

69

What fungi is griseofulvin effective against?

Trychophyton, Epidermophyton and Microsporum

70

What are the clinical indications for griseofulvin?

dermatophytosis (trichophyton and microsporum)

71

What are the side effects of griseofulvin?

induces CYP450

embryotoxic

teratogenic

72

What is the MOA for echinocandins?

inhibition of Beta glucan synthesis, disruption of cell wall --> exposes antigen

73

What fungus do echinocandins come from?

Aspergillus nidulans

74

What fungal infections are echinocandins good against?

apergillosis

candidiasis

no use in vet (not effective against yeast form)

75

What are the pharmacokinetics of allylamine?

lipophilic, absorbed from GIT, rapid diffusion to dermis

76

What are the side effects of allylamine?

very limited

77

What are the mechanisms for resistance to azole drugs?

decreased uptake

alteredd 14-demethylase

decreased affinity for CYP450

changesin other enzymes

78

What are considered disseminated fungal infections?

aspergillosis

canidiasis

79

What do nitromidazoles treat?

trichomoniasis, amebiasis, balantidium, and giardiasis

80

Can nitromidazoles be used in food producing animals?

NO

81

What can paromomycin (an aminoglycoside) treat protozoan wise?

crypto in cats

leishmaniasis in dogs

off label use in ruminants

82

What is the drug of choice to treat coccidiosis in cattle, horses, dogs and cats?

sulfonamides

 

83

What is the drug of choice to treat coccidiosis in chickens?

polyether ionophores

84

What is the MOA of polyether ionophores?

changes in membrane integrity and internal osmolality

85

What are the 5 different polyether ionophore classes?

monovalent

monovalent glycoside

divalent

divalent glycoside

divalent pyrole esters

86

What are the side effects of polyether ionophores? What are the susceptible species?

CV effects - calcium problems

equines and guinea fowl

87

What drugs are effective against sarcocystis neurona?

triazine derivatives

nitrothiazole derivatives

88

What are the three triazine derivatives?

diclazuril

toltrazuril

ponazuril

89

What part of the sarcocystis does triazine derivatives act on?

apicoplast - plays a role in aminoacids, fatty acids, starch storage, nitrate and sulphate

90

What increases the bioavailability of triazine?

sodium salt

91

What is the active metabolite of toltrazuril?

ponazuril

92

What protozoa cause piroplasmosis?

babesiosis

theileriosis

93

What drug is approved for canine babesiosis?

imidocarb dipropionate

94

What treats theileriosis in cattle?

naphtoquinones: parvaquone and buparvaquone

95

What are the 7 groups of drugs effective against protozoa?

nitromidazoles

nitrofurans

arsenicals

aminoglycosides

benzimidazoles

tetracyclines

lincosamides

 

96

What is the MOA of nitromidazoles?

production of free radicals that cause damage to protozoa DNA

97

What can dogs infected with Hepatazoon americanum infections be treated with?

combo of sulfonamides, clindamycin and pyrimethamine

98

Clindamycin can treat what protozoal infection?

Toxoplasma infection

99

What drug prevents coccidiosis in broilers?

maduramicin

100

What term is used when an ectoparasiticidal goes into the sweat gland?

transappendageal

101

Why are highly lipophilic and large molecule ectoparasiticides desirable?

lateral diffusion across skin

large molecules dont enter skin

102

What is the MOA of organophosphates?

irreversible inhibition of acetylcholine esterase -- more Ach

103

What are the most sensitive animals to organophosphate neural toxicity?

brahman cattle

greyhounds

cats

104

What are the toxic effects of organophosphates related to?

muscarinic and nicotinic effects

105

What organophosphate treats mites in horses?

diazinon

106

What drug group produces reversible inhibition of AChE?

carbamates

107

What is the clinical use of carbamates?

fleas, ticks and lice

108

What carbamate is used as a spray on dogs and cats?

carbaryl

109

What carbamate is used as a flea and tick collar for dogs and cats?

propoxur

110

Does pyrethrin or pyrethroid have greater residual activity?

pyrethroid

111

What is the MOA of pyrethrins and pyrethroids?

binding to Na+ channels

membrane depolarization

112

Are pyrethrins and pyrethroids able to use on cats?

no, toxic

113

What are the permethrin toxicities?

type 1 compound - rapid onset of hyperactivity

114

What are the fenvalerate (type 2 compound) side effects?

serious at low doses

115

What are the 2 types of macrocyclic lactones?

avermectines and milbemycins

116

What group of drugs can be administered to swine SQ for mites and lice?

macrocyclic lactones

117

What drug is a topical that causes rapid killing of fleas?

imidacloprid

118

What drug is similar to imidacloprid but can be given orally?

nitenpyram

119

What flea adulticide is not effective to prevent fleas from biting?

fipronil

120

What are the 2 larvicidal flea drugs?

methoprene - remains larvae

lufenuron - inhibits chitin synthesis

121

What drugs inhibit MAO in the insect?

formamidine, amitraz

122

What drug inhibits the MFO in the insect?

piperonyl butoxide

is a synergist - reduced breakdown of other drugs

123

What are the 5 flea adulticide drugs?

fipronil

imidacloprid

nitenpyram

spinosad b

metaflumizone

124

What is the drug of choice for giardia infections in cattle/dogs/cats?

fenbendazole

125

What is the drug of choice for treating coccidia infections in small animals?

sulfamethoxine (sulfonamide)

126

What drug is used to prevent relapses of Hepatazoon americanum in dogs?

decoquinate

127

Long acting oxytetracycline can treat what protozoal infection?

Babesia divergens

128

What drugs can potentiate the toxic effects of polyether ionophores?

tiamulin

chloramphenicol

macrolides

sulfonamides

cardiac glycosides

129

What is the MOA of amprolium?

competitive inhibition of thiamine transport

130

Which stage of coccidia are sulfonamides good against?

asexual stages

131

What is the drug of choice for EPM? (Equine protozoal meningiocephalitis)

ponazuril

132

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