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Flashcards in Pharm Quiz 4 TS Deck (78):
1

Where may a drug distribute to after it has been topically administered to the eye?

iris, lens, ciliary body

2

What are the disadvantages of topical administration for solution eye drugs?

short contact time, dilution effects, expense, increased systemic absorption

3

What are the advantages for topical administrations of ointment on the eye?

longer contact time, not diluted, protects cornea from drying, less expensive

4

What drugs are administered by subconjunctival therapy?

antibiotics and corticosteroids

5

What determines the absorption after topical administration of eye drugs?

time in culdesac and precorneal tear film
nasolacrimal drainage
drug binding to tear proteins
drug metabolism in tear and tissue proteins
diffusion across cornea and conjunctiva

6

What enzymes are used to biotransform drugs in the eye?

esterases

7

What determines systemic distribution of topically administered drugs in the eye?

nasal mucosal absorption
local ocular distribution
transcorneal

8

What can bind certaind drugs in the eye?

melanin

9

What types of drugs cause the eye to dilate?

sympathomimetic
parasympatholytic

10

What types of drugs cause the eye to constrict?

parasympathomimetic ONLY

11

What drugs cause pinpoint pupils?

opiods

12

What should you do before treating the eye with antibiotics?

identify the agent! lots of resistance possibilites

13

What bacterial infections do dogs get in their eye?

staph and strep

14

What bacterial infections do cats get in their eye?

same as dogs plus mycoplasma felis and chlamydophila felis

15

What bacterial infections do horses get in their eye?

staph, strep, pseudomonas

16

What are the 2 first choice antibiotic combos for corneal ulcers and bacterial conjuctivitis?

BNP - neo, bac, poly
NPG - neo, poly, gramicidin

17

What antibiotic combo can cause fatalities in cats?

polymyxin B (BNP)

18

What is the 1st choice in small animals for antimicrobials for eye infection dependent on culture? Why should caution be taken?

Chloramphenicol
beware: doesnt treat pseudomonas

19

What 3 classes of drugs can be used for keratomycosis?

polyene antibiotics, imidazoles, nucleoside analogs

20

What combination of drugs is specific for treating corneal ulcers?

natamycin, tobramycin, cefazolin in serum

21

What 2 things cause collagen and glycosaminoglycans to be broken down during corneal ulceration?

host derived proteinases and exogenous microbial hydrolases

22

What can be used from the serum of the patient to inhibit proteinases in the eye?

plasma alpha2-macroglobulin

23

What chelating agent impairs epitheliazation in the eye to help it heal from the inside out?

EDTA

24

What chelating agent has additional mucolytic action and makes more water tears?

acetylcysteine

25

What antibiotic is a chelating agent and inhibits proteinases in the eye?

tetracyclines (doxy)

26

What proteinase inhibitor has indirect activity and impedes extravasation of leukocytes?

heparin

27

What proteinase inhibitor inhibits endogenous and pseudomonas proteinases?

ilomastat

28

What proteinase inhibitor is used in artifical tears?

polysulphated glycosaminoglycans

29

What signaling molecule can cause neural damage in glaucoma?

glutamate

30

What group of drugs acts on the trabecular outflow of the eye?

muscarinic agonists

31

What group of drugs act on uveoscleral outflow?

prostaglandin agonists

32

What group of drugs act on aqueous humor inflow?

beta blockers
a2 adrenergic agonists
carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

33

What are the 3 topical prostaglandin analogs?

latanoprost, bimatoprost, travoprost (all end in -prost)

34

What is the MOA of prostaglandin analgos?

facilitate outflow thru uveoscleral pathway by IP3 and Ca+2 pathway

35

What are the 3 beta adrenoreceptor antagonists?

timolol, metipranolol, betaxolol

36

What is the MOA of beta antagonists?

cAMP - PKA pathway that regulates aqueous humor production

37

What do alpha 2 agonists act through?

inhibition of adenylate cyclase

38

What are the 2 local CAI drugs?

dorsolamide and brinzolamide

39

What are the 3 oral CAI drugs?

methazolamide, dichlorphenamide, acetazolamide

40

What is the MOA of CAI?

reduce bicarbonate, reduction in fluid transport

41

What is a topical miotic used to treat glaucoma?

pilocarpine

42

What is the MOA of pilocarpine?

increase aqueous outflow via trabecular outflow

43

What calcium channel blocker can be used for neuroprotection during glaucoma?

amlodipine

44

What NMDA channel blocker can be used for neuroprotection during glaucoma?

memantine

45

What type of drugs should never be used on a damaged cornea?

glucocorticoids

46

What anti inflammatory drug is highly lipophilic and used in glaucoma?

cyclosporin A (subconjuctival injection)

47

What is the most widely used autonomic drug group used in the eye?

antimuscarinic

48

What 3 drugs are antimuscarinic and cause dilation?

atropine, tropicamide, scopolamine

49

What 2 sympathomimetic drugs cause dilation?

phenylephrine, epinephrine

50

What 2 anesthetic drugs are used topically on the eye?

proparacaine and tetracaine

51

What 2 anesthetic drugs are used as infiltrative anesthetics?

lidocaine and bupivacaine

52

What disinfectant can be used on the eye?

2% povidone iodine

53

What 3 drugs can be used systemically to treat nasal fungal infections?

ketoconazole, fluconazole, voriconazole (imidazoles)

54

What are the 3 side effects of imidazoles?

inhibition of CY-450, GI disturbances, liver toxicity

55

What drug can treat idiopathic lympho-plasmacytic rhinitis?

immune mediated dz --> glucocorticoids

56

What causes gutteral pouch mycosis?

aspergillus spp

57

What local drugs can treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

thiobendazole, nystatin, enilconazole

58

What anti-tussive has limited SE that include vomiting and CNS depresion?

codeine and hydrocodone

59

What anti-tussive has beneficial effects in horses for a BAL procedure?

butorphanol

60

What anti-tussive has low potency and is used for horses and cattle?

dextromethorphan

61

What drug breaks up mucus by disrupting disulphydryl bonds?

acetylcysteine

62

What drugs increase mucous gland production and mucociliary clearance?

bromhexine, dembrexin

63

Ach M3 antagonists, B2 agonists and PDE inhibitors all do what action?

modify airway resistance

64

Crotethamide, lobeline, doxapram, etamiphylline all do what action?

stimulate respiration

65

What are the 2 stimulating expectorants?

guajacol and guaifenisine

66

What are the 2 reflex expectorants?

ammonium carbonate/chloride, potassium iodide

67

What anticholinergic is used for emergency treatment and is bronchodilatory?

atropine

68

What anticholinergic is used per inhalation and is restricted to respiratory tract?

ipratropium bromide

69

What are the 3 drugs that act through B2 agonists and Gs coupled to modify airway resistance?

clenbuterol, salbutamol, and albuterol

70

What is a side effect of the buterol drugs?

tocolytic - sperm abnormalities

71

What receptor does phenylephrine act through?

alpha 1 adrenergic decongestant, topical vasoconstriction

72

What are the 3 sympathetic amines?

phenylephrine, ephedrine, pseuodephedrine

73

What can be a side effect of the sympathetic amines?

reflex vasodilation

74

What is the MOA of theophylline?

stimulates adenosine receptors to increase cAMP --> increase mucociliary clearance

75

What are the SE of theophylline?

adrenergic overdose

76

What condition are NSAIDs contraindicated?

asthma

77

What drug is a dual inhibitor of prostaglandins?

tepoxalin

78

What type of drugs are sodium cromoglicate and nedocromil sodium?

mast cell stabalizers