Pharm Quiz 5 - Werner TS Flashcards Preview

Pharmacology > Pharm Quiz 5 - Werner TS > Flashcards

Flashcards in Pharm Quiz 5 - Werner TS Deck (84):
1

What are three things that cause uncontrolled proliferation in cancer cells?

growth factors
intracellular signaling pathways
telomerase expression

2

What 2 tumors is remission usually achieved?

malignant lymphoma and tvt

3

What type of drug forms covalent bonds with DNA and impedes replication?

alkylating drugs

4

What do protein kinase inhibitors do?

inhibition of tyrosine kinase that transduce growth signals in rapidly dividing cells

5

What are the 4 main problems associated with giving chemotherapy?

1. extravasation of drug
2. anaphylactic rxns
3. toxic side effects
4. acute tumor lysis syndrome

6

What can acute tumor lysis syndrome cause?

high uric acid, high P, high Ca, high K, acidosis --> depression, vomiting, hyperventilation

7

What can BCG (bacille calmetter guerin) be used for?

enhance tumor destruction, SCC

8

What are the SE of BCG?

local and systemic anaphylaxis

9

What is the MOA of cisplatin?

local denaturation of DNA

10

What are the SE of cisplatin?

nephrotoxic, low myelotoxicity, nausea

11

What is the MOA of methotrexate?

antimetabolite, folate antagonist

12

What are the SE of methotrexate?

bone marrow suppression, GIT irritation

13

What is the MOA of 5-flourouracil?

DNA inhibition

14

What is the MOA of alkylating agents?

formation of a carbonium ion --> intereferes with transcription and replication

15

What are the SE of alkylating agents?

BM, GI, sterility, cross resistance

16

What are the SE of cyclophosphamide?

alopecia, hemorrhagic cystitis

17

What alkylating agents are in the nitrogen mustard group?

cyclophosphamide, melphalan, chorambucil, ifosfamide

18

What is the slowest working alkylating agent and therefore lowest chance of toxicity?

chlorambucil

19

What alkylating drug is a oral nitrosurea drug?

lomustine

20

What kind of alkylating drug is dacarbazine?

non classical

21

What can cytotoxic antibiotics not be combined with to avoid toxicity?

radiotherapy

22

What is the MOA of doxorubicin and the anthracyclines?

inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis

23

What is the MOA of dactinomycin?

intercalates in DNA interfering with RNA polymerase and with action of top II

24

What is the MOA of bleomycin?

fragmentation of DNA chains, non dividing cells

25

What is the MOA of L-asparaginase?

depletes intracellular stores of l asparagine --> no protein synthesis

26

What are the SE of L-asparaginase?

hypersensitivity, pacreatitis

27

What is the MOA of the plant derivitave periwinkle chemotherapy drugs? (vincristine, vinblastine, vindesine)

bind to tubulin, inhibit polymerizaton to microtubules - arrest in metaphase

28

What are the SE of plant derivatives vincristine, vinblastine, vindesine?

mild BM, parasthesia, muscle weakness

29

What are the MOA of paclitaxel and docetaxel?

stabilize microtubules in polymerized state

30

How is paclitaxel and docetaxel given?

paclitaxel - IV
docetaxel - PO

31

What are teh SE of paclitaxel and docetaxel?

serious BM, cumulative neurotoxicity, dont use in horses

32

What tyrosine kinase inhibitor is used for mast cell tumors and sarcomas in dogs and cats?

imatinib

33

What tyrosine kinase inhibitor is used for mast cell tumors in dogs only?

mastinib

34

What antibody drug combats ErbB-1 expressing tumors?

cetuximab

35

What antibody drug combats ErbB-2 expressing tumors?

trastuzumab

36

What antibody drug combats VEGFR in mastocytoma cells?

bevacizumab

37

What can cause tumors to develop glucocorticoid resistance?

induction of PgP expression

38

What drugs are helpful in perianal gland tumors?

anti-androgens

39

What drug is a selective inhibitor of estrogen receptors?

tamoxifen

40

What drugs may be useful in some mammary tumors?

anti-prostagens

41

How can a tumor develop resistance against doxorubucin?

altered activity of the target

42

How can a tumor develop resistance against alkylating agents?

rapid repair of drug induced lesions

43

What does FSH stimulate in the female?

follicular growth, LH receptors, estrogen production

44

What does LH stimulate in the female?

estrogen production, rupture of follicle, progesterone by CL

45

What does FSH stimulate in male?

protein and nutrients for sertoli cells --> sperm

46

What does LH stimulate in male?

testosterone synthesis in leydig cells

47

What G protein receptor is GnRH?

Gq

48

What are the messengers involved in GnRh receptor signaling?

Gq -->Phospho C -->IP3 + DAG --> Ca + PKC --> MAP kinase --> gene expression

49

What is the synthetic GnRH preperation?

gonadorelin

50

What kind of dosing is need for gonadorelin for infertility therapy?

intermittent dosing (mimicking physio)

51

What does continuous administration of gonadorelin do?

suppression of gonadotropin release - chemical castration/limit estrus

52

What are the 4 gonadotropins?

Lh, FSH, hCG, eCG

53

What do all the gonadotropins have in common with their structure?

glycosylated heterodimers with alpha and beta subunits

54

Which 2 gonadotropins have 82% homology?

LH and hCG

55

Which subunit of the gonadotropins confers specificity?

the beta subunit (where and how strong it will bind)

56

What feedback effect do steroid hormones have on the pituatary and hypothalamus?

negative

57

What kind of receptors are FSH and LH?

g-coupled --> adenylate cyclase -> increase cAMP (different than GnRH which is Gq)

58

What is human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) used for clinically? why?

induce ovulation in mares with appropriate follicle size
similar to equine LH

59

What is the difference between hCG and LH?

hCG lasts alot longer (is a glycoprotein)

60

What produces equine chorionic gonadotropin (eCG)?

endometrial cups to induce secondary corpora lutea

61

What are the 2 effects of eCG?

primarily FSH --> increase follicular growth
LH activity --> ovulation and luteinization

62

What is the clinical use of eCG?

ovarian follicle growth in anestrus sheep or goats, induction of estrus in pigs

63

What are the adverse effects of eCG?

immunological rxns to antibody formation, loss of efficacy

64

What molecule is oxytocin very similar to?

vasopressin

65

What transports oxytocin from the hypothalamus to pituatary?

oxytocin-neurophysin 1 complex

66

What is the natural prostaglandin produced by endometrium of farm animals?

PGF2 alpha

67

What is the MOA of PGF 2 alpha?

Gq coupled - IP3 - Ca - protein kinase C (similar to GnRH

68

What are the 2 effects of PGF 2 alpha?

steroidgenesis and luteolysis

69

What are the adverse effects of prostaglandin analogs?

contracts smooth muscle - GI, etc
retained placenta

70

What are the 3 clinical uses of prostaglandin analogs?

estrus synchronization
abortion and partruition
uterine contractions in mares for mating induced endometritis

71

What protein transports estrogens?

sex hormone binding globulin (SHBG)

72

What estrogen has low oral bioavailability because of the first pass effect?

estradiol

73

What are the effects of estrogens?

modify protein levels, reduce bone resorption, negative feedback on LH and FSH

74

What are the adverse effects of using estrogens?

breast cancer (humans), endometrial hyperplasia, uterine carcinoma

75

Why must synthetic progesterone analogs be used?

rapidly metabolized in liver, short half life of regular progesterone

76

What is the clinical use of progesterone?

induce long lasting ovarian suppression and estrus synchronization (bad behavior in mares)

77

What is the MOA of progesterone analogs?

acts on receptors in hypo and pitua, suppress LH and FSH

78

What receptors do anabolic steroids have an effect?

nuclear receptors - ligand gated transcription factors

79

What is the alkylated anabolic steroid used?

stanzolol

80

What is the non alkylated anabolic steroid?

nandrolone

81

What are the adverse effects of anabolic steroids?

weight gain, hepatotoxic, carcinogenicity

82

What are some drugs that can not be used in food producing animals?

antibiotics, diethylstilbesterol, clenbuterol, dipyrone, antiviral drugs (adamanane, neuraminidase inhibitors)

83

What are approved drugs for extralabel used in food animals?

enrofloxacin, sulfonamides, medicated feeds

84

What drug can only be used extralable in female dairy cattle 20 months of age or older?

phenylbutazone