00 Epilepsy Study Questions Flashcards

(77 cards)

1
Q

Generic name of: Luminal

A

Phenobarbital

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2
Q

Generic name of: Dilantin

A

Phenytoin

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3
Q

Generic name of: Valium

A

Diazepam

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4
Q

Generic name of: Diastat

A

Diazepam (Rectal Gel)

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5
Q

Generic name of: Klonopin

A

Clonazepam

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6
Q

Generic name of: Tegretol

A

Carbamazepine

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7
Q

Generic name of: Epitol

A

Carbamazepine

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8
Q

Generic name of: Carbatrol

A

Carbamazepine

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9
Q

Generic name of: Depakene

A

Valproic Acid

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10
Q

Generic name of: Depakote

A

Divalproex Sodium

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11
Q

Generic name of: Depacon

A

Valproate Sodium

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12
Q

Generic name of: Neurontin

A

Gabapentin

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13
Q

Generic name of: Lamictal

A

Lamotrigine

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14
Q

Generic name of: Topamax

A

Topiramate

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15
Q

Generic name of: Trileptal

A

Oxcarbazepine

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16
Q

Generic name of: Oxtellar XR

A

Oxcarbazepine ER

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17
Q

Generic name of: Keppra

A

Levetiracetam

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18
Q

Generic name of: Lyrica

A

Pregabalin

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19
Q

What happens when Lamictal (Lamotrigine) is added to an AED regimen containing Valproate?

A

Dosing changes whether you are using an inducer or inhibitor

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20
Q

Petit Mal is known as what kind of seizure?

A

Absence

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21
Q

Grand Mal is known as what kind of seizure?

A

Tonic-Clonic

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22
Q

What is the DOC for absence seizure?

A

Ethosuximide (Zarontin) or Depakote is a good choice if that can’t be used

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23
Q

What is the therapeutic range for Carbamazepine?

A

4-12

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24
Q

What is the therapeutic range for Ethosuximide

A

40-100

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25
What is the therapeutic range for Phenobarbital?
15-40
26
What is the therapeutic range for Primidone?
5-12
27
What is the therapeutic range for Phenytoin?
10-20
28
What is the therapeutic range for Valproic Acid?
50-150
29
What test is used to measure seizure activity?
EEG
30
After initial dosing has been initiated, which anticonvulsant requires higher doses to achieve the same effects after several days?
Carbamazepine d/t auto-induction
31
Which anticonvulsant should you avoid in sulfa allergy?
Zonisamide
32
Which anticonvulsant should you avoid in patients with a previous hypersensitivity reaction to carbamazepine?
Felbatol
33
Which voltage-dependent channels are inhibited by some AEDs?
Na+ and Ca2+
34
What does GABA stand for?
Gamma Amino Butyric Acid
35
What are some common drugs that decrease seizure threshold?
Caffeine, Anti-depressants (e.g., Bupropion), Tramadol (>400mg), Meperidine (use morphine instead), Anti-psychotics (Clozapine, Chorpromazine), Theophylline
36
What is the broad spectrum AED that can be used in almost all patients?
Valproate
37
What is Status Epilepticus?
Continuous grand mal seizures lasting at least 5 (up to 30) minutes, or two or more sequential seizures without full recovery of consciousness between seizure attacks. Medical emergency. CAN'T USE ORAL MEDICATIONS
38
What are the DOC's for Status Epilepticus?
Diazepam (Valium, Diastat rectal gel) OR Lorazepam. Valproate sodium (Depacon) can always be used an an alternate
39
What are the DOC's for Partial Seizures?
Carbamazepine. Valproate as an alternative
40
What are the DOC's for Tonic-Clonic Seizures?
Valproate OR Carbamazepine
41
Which AEDs can cause Hyponatremia?
Oxcarbazepine, Carbamazepine
42
Which AEDs can cause Hyperammonemia?
Valproic Acid
43
Which AEDs can cause Pancreatitis?
Valproic Acid
44
Which AEDs can cause Polycystic Ovaries?
Valproic Acid, Carbamazepine
45
Which AEDs can cause Fatal Aplastic Anemia?
Felbamate
46
Which AEDs can cause Kidney Stones?
Zonisamide, Topiramate
47
Which AEDs can cause Gingival Hyperplasia?
Phenytoin
48
Which AEDs can cause SJS?
Lamotrigine
49
Which AEDs can cause Hiccups?
Ethosuximide
50
Which AEDs can cause Purple Glove Syndrome?
Phenytoin
51
Which AEDs can cause QTc Prolongation?
Ezogabine
52
Which AEDs can cause Urinary Retention?
Ezogabine
53
What are the C-IV AEDs?
All benzos, Phenobarbital, Mephobarbital
54
What are the C-V AEDs?
Pregabalin, Lacosamide, Ezogabine
55
What are the AEDs that can have loading doses?
Fosphenytoin, Phenobarbital, Valproate Sodium
56
What are the AEDs that are big enzyme inducers?
Carbamazepine, Oxcarbazepine, Phenytoin, Fosphenytoin, Phenobarbital, Primidone, Topiramate (> 200mg)
57
When would be a time when Valproic acid would not be an appropriate choice?
Hepatic impairment
58
How does Oxcarbazepine compare to Carbamazepine?
Oxcarbazepine is advantages over CBZ in every way except that it causes hyponatremia
59
Why does Carbamazepine have so many SEs?
Because it is metabolized into 10,11-epoxide
60
How does Phenytoin compare to Fosphenytoin?
Phenytoin: infuse at 50mg/min in saline only. Fosphenytoin: infuse at 150mg/min in saline or dextrose
61
What pregnancy category do most AEDs fall into?
Category D
62
What are the Pregnancy Category D AEDs?
BZDs, Phenobarbital/primidone, VPA, Carbamazepine, Phenytoin/Fosphenytoin, Topiramate
63
What patients need to be screened before CBZ?
Asian descent for the HLA-B*1502 gene
64
When should you dose adjust Phenobarbital?
Decrease dose in renal or hepatic dysfunction
65
What seizure type must Phenytoin be avoided in?
Absence seizures
66
When is Phenytoin contraindicated?
Heart issues (2nd or 3rd degree AV block, sinus bradycardia, sino-atrial block)
67
What is the generic of Onfi?
Clobazam (Benzo)
68
What genetic polymorphism should be identified for Clobazam users?
CYP 2C19, polymorphism causes higher levels of drug, need to lower dose
69
What is the BBW for Valproate?
Hepatotoxicity, Teratogenicity, Pancreatitis
70
What is Stavzor?
Delayed-release capsules of Valproate
71
What is the BBW for Lamotrigine?
Life-threatening rashes. Slow gradual titration of dose may reduce the incidence
72
What do you need to advise patients who are going to start Topiramate?
Increase fluid intake to decrease risk of kidney stones
73
What is the generic for Oxtellar XR?
Oxcarbazepine extended release tabs
74
What are the drug interactions like with Keppra?
None clinically important, not metabolized by CYP450
75
What is the generic of Sabril?
Vigabatrin
76
What is Vigabatrin indicated for?
Refractory Epilepsy Infantile Spasms (IS)
77
What is the BBW for Vigabatrin?
Causes progressive and permanent bilateral concentric visual field constriction in a high percentage of patients (REMS program)