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Flashcards in 115 Unit 6 Deck (77)
1

____ are safeguards designed to reduce the risk of transmission of infectious agents through the air a person breathes.

Airborne Precautions

2

____ are immunoglobulins, essential to the immune system, that are produced by lymphoid tissue in response to bacteria, viruses, or other antigens.

Antibodies

3

____ is a substance usually a protein, that causes the formation of an antibody and reacts specifically with that antibody.

Antigen

4

____ is the absence of germs or microorganisms.

Asepsis

5

____ is any health care procedure in which added precautions are used to proven contamination of a person, object, or area y microorganisms.

Aseptic Technique

6

____ are persons or animals who harbor and spread an organism that causes disease in others but do not become ill.

Carriers

7

____ is the presence and multiplication of microorganisms without tissue invasion or damage.

Colonization

8

____ is any disease that can be transmitted from one person or animal to another by direct or indirect contact or by vectors.

Communicable disease

9

____ are safeguards designed to reduce risk of transmission of epidemiologically important microorganisms by direct or indirect contact.

Contact Precautions

10

____ is the process of destroying all pathogenic organisms, except spores.

Disinfection

11

____ are safeguards designed to reduce the risk of droplet transmission of infectious agents.

Droplet Precautions

12

____ are infections produced within a cell or organism.

Endogenous Infections

13

____ is an infection originating outside an organ or part.

Exogenous Infection

14

____ are microorganisms that live on or within a body to compete with disease-producing microorganisms and provide a natural immunity against certain infections.

Flora

15

____ is an infection that was not present or incubating at the time of admission to a health care setting.

Health Care Acquired Infection

16

____ is the quality of being insusceptible to or unaffected by a particular disease or condition.

Immunity

17

____ is the invasion of the body by pathogenic microorganisms that reproduce and multiply.

Infection

18

____ is a protective response of body tissues to irritation or injury.

Inflammation

19

____ are procedures used to reduce the number of microorganisms and prevent their spread.

Medical asepsis

20

____ are microscopic entities, such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi, capable of carrying on living processes.

Microorganisms

21

____ is of or pertaining to the death of tissue in response to disease or injury.

Necrotic

22

____ is the ability of a pathogenic agent to produce a disease.

Pathogenicity

23

____ are microorganisms capable of producing disease.

Pathogens

24

____ is a place where microorganisms survive, multiply, and await transfer to a susceptible host.

Reservoir

25

____ are guidelines recommended by the CDC to reduce risk of transmission of blood-borne and other pathogens in hospitals.

Standard Precautions

26

____ is a technique for destroying microorganisms using heat, water, chemicals, or gases.

Sterilization

27

____ is a secondary infection usually caused by an opportunistic pathogen.

Suprainfection

28

____ are procedures used to eliminate any microorganisms from an area. Also called sterile technique.

Surgical asepsis.

29

____ is the ability of an organism to rapidly produce disease.

Virulence

30

____ is the term for an illness that do not have clinical signs and symptoms present.

Asymptomatic

31

____ is a protective reaction that neutralizes pathogens and repairs body cells.

Inflammatory response

32

If pathogens multiply and cause clinical signs and symptoms the infections is termed ____.

Symptomatic

33

____ are precautions used with patient who have communicable diseases and infections that are easily transmissible to others.

Transmission-based precautions

34

____ are activities usually perfumed in the course of a normal day in the patient's life, such as eating, dressing, bathing, brushing teeth, or grooming.

ADLs

35

____ is a kind or amount of exercise or work a person is able to perform

Activity tolerance

36

____ is the body measures of height, weight, and skin folds to evaluate muscle atrophy.

Anthropometric measurements

37

____ is the placement of the patient in bed for therapeutic reasons for a prescribed period.

Bed Rest

38

____ is the destruction of bone cells and release of calcium into the blood.

Bone resorption

39

____ is reductions in skeletal mass routinely accompanying immobility or paralysis.

Disuse Osteoporosis

40

____ is the increased rate of formation and excretion of urine.

Diuresis

41

____ is an abnormal neuromuscular condition of the lower leg and foot, characterized by an inability to dorsiflex, or evert the foot.

Footdrop

42

____ is pneumonia that results fro fluid accumulation as a result of inactivity.

Hypostatic Pneumonia

43

____ is the inability to move about freely, caused by any condition in which movement is immured or therapeutically restricted.

Immobility

44

____ are activities that are necessary to be independent in society beyond eating, grooming, transferring, and toiling and include such skills as shopping, preparing meals, banking, and taking meds.

Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADL's)

45

____ is the decreased blood supply to a body part, such as skin tissue, or to an organ, such as the heart.

Ischemia

46

____ is the abnormality that may result in permanent condition of a joint, is characterized by flexion and fixation, and is caused by disuse, atrophy, and shortening of muscle fibers and surrounding joint tissues.

Joint Contracture

47

____ is a person's ability to move about freely.

Mobility

48

____ is a condition occurring when the body excretes more nitrogen than it takes in.

Negative Nitrogen Balance

49

____ is the abnormally low blood pressure occurring when a person stands up.

Orthostatic Hypotension

50

____ is a disorder characterized by abnormal rarefaction of bone, occurring most frequently in postmenopausal women, in sedentary or immobilized individuals, and in patines on long-term steroid therapy.

Osteoporosis

51

____ are fractures resulting from weekend bone tissue; frequently caused by osteoporosis or neoplasms.

Pathological Fractures

52

____ s the accumulation of platelets, fibrin, clotting factors, and the cellular elements of the blood attached to the interior wall of a vein or artery, sometimes occluding the lumen of the vessel.

Thrombus

53

____ is a term that means the individual's center of gravity is stable.

Body alignment

54

____ is the scraping or rubbing away of the epidermis the may result in localized bleeding and later weeping of serous fluid.

Abrasion

55

____ are bandages made of large pieces of material to fit specific body parts.

Binders

56

____ is the redness of the skin due to dilation of the superficial capillaries. When pressure is applied to the skin, the area blanches, or turns a lighter color.

Blanchable hyperemia

57

____ is a soft pad of gauze or cloth used to apply heat, cold, or medications to the surface fox body part.

Compress

58

____ is the removal of dead tissue from a wound.

Debridement

59

____ is the separation of a wound's edges, revealing underlying tissues.

Dehiscence

60

____ is the discoloration of the skin or bruise caused by leakage of blood into subcutaneous tissues as a result of trauma to underlying tissues.

Ecchymosis

61

____ is a thick layer of dead, dry tissue that covers a pressure ulcer or thermal burn; it may be allowed to be a sloughed off naturally or it may need to be surgically removed.

Eschar

62

____ is the protrusion of visceral organs through a surgical wound.

Evisceration

63

____ is the effect of rubbing or the resistance that a moving body meets from the surface non which it moves; a force that occurs in a direction to oppose movement.

Friction

64

____ is soft pink, fleshy projections of tissue that form during the healing process in a wound no healing by primary intention.

Granulation Tissue

65

____ is a collection of blood trapped in the tissues of the skin or an organ.

Hematoma

66

____ is the termination of bleeding by mechanical or chemical means or by the coagulation process of the body.

Hemostasis

67

____ is the hardening of a tissue, particularly the skin, because of edema or inflammation.

Induration

68

____ is a torn, jagged wound.

Laceration

69

____ is the softening and breaking down of skin from prolonged exposure to moisture.

Maceration

70

____ is the redness of the skin due to dilation of the superficial capillaries. The redness persist when prissier is applied to the area, indicating tissue damage.

Nonblanchable hyperemia

71

____ is the inflammation sore or ulcer in the skin over a bony prominence.

Pressure Ulcer

72

____ is the primary union of the edges of a wound, progression to complete scar formation without granulation

Primary Intention

73

____ is the wound closure in which the edges are separated, granulation tissue develops to fill the gap and finally, epithelium grows in over the granulation, producing a larger scar than results with primary intention.

Secondary Intention

74

____ is the force exerted against the skin while the kin remains stationary and the bony structures move.

Shear

75

____ is a bath in which only the hips or buttocks are immersed in fluid.

Sitz Bath

76

____ is the point at which tissues receive insufficient oxygen and perfusion.

Tissue ischemia

77

____ is a redness of the skin resulting from dilation of the superficial capillaries.

Reactive hyperemia