Axial Skeleton & Body Cavities Flashcards

(94 cards)

1
Q

the skeleton system consists of ____ and ____, which are two types of ____ tissue

A

bone; cartilage; connective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

the axial skeleton is made up of the:

A

skull, ribs, and vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

the axial skeleton comprises the ____ of the body and ____

A

supporting axis; protection of vital organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

all bones serve as a reservoir for ____ and ____, act as ____ on which muscle act to produce movements, and are containers for _____

A

calcium; phosphorus; levers; blood-producing cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

appendicular skeleton consists of:

A

clavical, scapula, humerus (upper extremity) and lower extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

bones are covered by a fibrous connective tissue called _____ which can form new bone; this membrane is ____ and ______

A

periosteum; vascularized; innervated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

joints that are encapsulated, contain articular cartilage (hyaline), a membrane that surrounds the articular space and produces a fluid to cushion and nourish the joints

A

movable, synovial joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

joints that lack the articular cavity and synovial membranes that we find predominately for example in the skull and vertebral column, or the junction of teeth in the jaw

A

immovable or solid joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

2 types of solid joints

A

fibrous and cartilaginous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

fibrous solid joints

A

sutures, gomphosis, and syndesmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

cartilaginous solid joints

A

synchondrosis and symphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

the skull is comprised of ___ bones, excluding the ossicles of the ear

A

22

there are 6 ossicles in the ears altogether

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

except for the mandible, which forms the lower jaw, all bones of the skull are attached to each other by ____ which are ____ and form the _____

A

sutures; immovable; cranium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

components associated with the face (anterior lower part of the skull)

A

viscerocranium or facial skeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

upper domes portion that covers the cranial cavity containing the brain

A

calvaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

the vertebral column is made up of:

A
7 cervical vertebrae
12 thoracic vertebrae
5 lumbar vertebrae
sacrum (5 fused sacral vertebrae)
coccyx (3-4 fused coccygeal vertebrae)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

2 primary curvatures:

A

thoracic curvature
sacral/coccygeal curvature
primary curvature is concave anteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

2 secondary curvatures:

A

cervical curvature
lumbar curvature
secondary curvature is concave posteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

____ curvature is seen on the back of the early embryo

A

primary curvature concave anteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

in the thoracic and sacral regions, curves are oriented concave anteriorly and each is known as a _____

A

kyphosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

in the lumbar and cervical regions, curves are oriented posteriorly and each is called a _____

A

lordosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

curvatures are important for ____ and ____

A

balance; weight distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

primary curvature is concave _____

A

anteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

secondary curvature is concave _____

A

posteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
secondary curvatures help to bring the center of gravity into a _____ allowing better balance of body weight on the vertebral column (expending the least amount of ____ in our normal upright bipedal stance)
vertical line; muscular energy
26
spinous and transverse processes function
muscle attachment and movement
27
articular processes function
restricts movements
28
vertebral arch function
protection of the spinal cord
29
vertebral body function
support of body weight (the more inferior, the larger, the more weight)
30
foramen created by two bones coming together
intervertebral foramen
31
the intervertebral foramen are where the ____ are exiting and entering the vertebral canal
spinal nerves
32
hole in transverse process of cervical vertebrae
foramen transversarium
33
what passes through the foramen transversarium of the cervical vertebrae
vertebral artery, vein, and sympathetic nerves
34
____ are the posterior blood supply to the brain
paired vertebral arteries
35
a rib will articulate with the ____ and _____ of a vertebra
body; transverse process
36
the head of a rib articulates with ____ and _____
2 vertebral bodies; 1 intervertebral disc
37
the tubercle of the rib articulates with _____
1 transverse process
38
region of the greatest curve of the rib
angle of the rib
39
the costal groove of the rib is formed by ___
intercostal vein, artery, and nerve
40
the head of rib 5 articulates with _____
bodies of T4 and T5 vertebrae
41
the tubercle of rib 5 articulates with ____
transverse process of T5
42
in the costal groove, the ____ is the most superior and the ____ is the most inferior, and they all lie between the muscle layers
vein; nerve (VAN)
43
atypical ribs
1st, 2nd, 10th-12th
44
broadest, shortest, and most sharply curved of the 7 true ribs
1st rib
45
the 1st rib has 2 grooves on the superior surface for the _____
subclavian vessels
46
the 1st rib has 2 grooves separated by the _____ and ridge for the ____ attachment
scalene tubercle; scalene muscle
47
thinner, less curved, and longer rib; has two facets on head for articulation with _____ vertebrae
2nd rib; T1 and T2
48
____ ribs have only one facet on their heads
10th - 12th
49
____ ribs are short with no necks or tubercles
11th- 12th
50
the intervertebral discs have a central nuclear area called the _____
nucleus pulposus
51
the ____ in the central/anterior area gives rise to the nucleus pulposus
notochord
52
the ____ which starts as a somite, gives rise to the _____
sclerotome; vertebrae and ribs
53
bones separated by a cavity = synovial cavity = articular cavity (moveable); assoc. with most of appendicular skeleton; contain articular cartilage (hyaline)
synovial joint
54
bones held together by connective tissue (less moveable); assoc. more with axial skeleton
solid joints
55
synovial joints are described based on their ____ and _____
shape (shape of the articular cavity); movement
56
synovial joints can be ____ or _____
uniaxial (hinge joints); multiaxial (ball and socket joints)
57
allow sliding or gliding of one bone surface over another
plane joints (acromioclavicular joint)
58
allow movement around one axis transversely through a joint; flexion-extension
hinge joints (elbow or humero-ulnar joint)
59
all movement around a longitudinal axis; rotation
pivot joints (atlanto-axial joint of C1 and C2)
60
allow movement in one axis with limited rotation around a second axis: formed by 2 convex condyles articulating with concave of flat surfaces
bicondylar joints (knee)
61
allow movement around two axes that are at right angles to each other; flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and limited circumduction
condylar/ellipsoid joint; wrist
62
allow movement around two axes that are at right angles with the articular surfaces saddle shaped; {flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, circumduction}
saddle joints; carpometacarpal joint of thumb
63
allow movement around multiple axes; {flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, circumduction and rotation}
ball and socket joint (hip or shoulder joint)
64
____ joint is at the dens of C2 against the anterior arch of C1; allows you to rotate your head; "no" joint
synovial joint; atlanto-axial joint
65
____ joint is the "yes" joint
atlanto-occipital
66
joints that lack the articular cavity and synovial membranes for example those that we fine predominantly in the skull and the vertebral column, or the junction of teeth in the jaw
solid joints
67
2 types of solid joints
- fibrous | - cartilaginous
68
3 types of fibrous solid joints
sutures, gomphoses, & syndesmoses
69
2 types of cartilaginous solid joints
synchondroses and symphyses
70
only in the skull where adjacent bones are linked by a thin layer of fibrous connective tissue = sutural ligament
sutures
71
only between teeth and adjacent bone. Short collagen fibers of the periodontal ligament run between the root of the tooth and the bony socket
gomphoses
72
joints in which adjacent bones are linked by a ligament (ligamentum flavum which connects admacent vertebral laminae) OR (interosseous membrane which links the radius and ulna in the forearm)
syndesmoses
73
where two ossification centers in a developing bone remain separated by a layer of cartilage, for example, the growth plate that occurs between the head and shaft of the developing long bones. These joints allow bone growth but eventually completely ossify
synchondroses
74
where two separate bones are interconnected by cartilage (axial skeleton). (intervertebral discs and the pubic symphysis)
symphyses
75
connective tissue connections between muscle and bone.
tendon
76
connective tissue connections between bones
ligaments
77
the spine of C7 is the largest of the cervical spines and is referred to as the _____
vertebra prominens
78
during inspiration, the diaphragm _____ and _____ and there is ____ of the abdominal muscles
contracts; descends; relaxation
79
during expiration, the diaphragm ____ and ____ and there is ____ of the abdominal muscles
relaxes; ascends; contraction
80
the ribs posterior attachment is ____ to its anterior attachment
superior
81
Increased intra-abdominal pressure is important in voiding the contents of the bladder and rectum and in childbirth. . Increasing intra-abdominal pressure is often referred to as the ______. The ______ is accomplished by attempting to forcibly exhale against a closed airway.
valsava maneauver
82
the abdominal cavity is lined by a _____, which consists of an epithelial-like single layer of cells (_____) together with a supportive layer of _____
peritoneum; mesothelium; connective tissue
83
The peritoneum reflects off the abdominal wall to become a component of the ______ that suspend the viscera (organs).
mesenteries
84
_____ lines the abdominal wall
parietal peritoneum
85
_____ covers the suspended organs (viscera)
visceral peritoneum
86
intraperitoneal structures are _____
suspended in mesenteries
87
retroperitoneal structures are lie between the ____and _____
parietal peritoneum; abdominal wall
88
the ____ and the ____ are retroperitoneal
vertebrae; kidneys
89
The thoracic cavity is lined by a _____, which consists of an epithethial-like single layer of cells (the ______) together with a supportive layer of connective tissue.
pleura; mesothelium
90
_____ lines the pleural cavities (2), each separately
parietal pleura
91
_____ reflects from the ____ wall and onto the surface of the organs (viscera) = lungs; is adherent to the lung
visceral pleura; medial
92
space between the parietal pleura and visceral pleura is the _____ which is filled with ____ to reduce friction
pleural cavity; serous fluid
93
the cranial cavity is lined with ____
meninges (dura, arachnoid, and pia)
94
the bifurcation of common caroid is at about what cervical vertebrae level
C3/C4