Test 3 Study Guide Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which muscles are striated?

What does this mean?

A

Cardiac, Skeletal

Means that they have sarcomeres. It also means that smooth muscles do not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are intercalated disks:

A

They are the connexin proteins in gap junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Myocardium:

- Define:

A
  • Define:

A myocardium is a collection of muscle cells which are all interconnected by gap junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the implications of the interconnection of myocardium by gap junctions?

What two myocardiums exist in the heart?

A

They will contract as a single unit with small levels of delay. They will also not very significantly contractile strength, as all muscle cells are contracting at once (unlike the skeletal muscle)

Atria and the ventricles (non conductive tissue separates them)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

While all cells of a myocardium must contract, what factors can effect the strength of their contraction?

A

Epinephrine (fight flight) and stretching of the heart chambers (perhaps a counter mechanism for bursting or damage from hyper tension?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The heart is said to have intrinsic rhythmicity. What causes this?

A

The regular firing of the sinoatrial node (SA node) which then activates the AV node (atrioventricular node)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Ca2+ intake into the heart works how?

A

The heart used DHP (dihydropyridine receptors) to allow Ca2+ to bind to RyR2 and activate it, allowing influx of Ca2+ from the SR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The heart still has t-tubules

A

This is true.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is Ca2+ returned into the SR?

A

By serca pumps (sarcoplasmic/endoplasmic reticulum calcium ATPase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where are only circular smooth muscles found?

Where are circular and longitudinal smooth muscles found?

A

In the branchoiles and blood vessels (where only regulation of diameter is necessary)

The digestive tract, ductus deferens, ureter, and fallopean tubes (necessary to have longitudinal and circular for peristalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Smooth muscles do not have sarcomeres but does have actin an myosin. How is it arranged?

A

A smooth muscle will have dense bodies (large proteins) which act to anchor the actin filaments. The actin filaments will also be longer. The filaments will be laid out and cross over each other without the clear directionality. This means that smooth muscle when contracted will try to shrink.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Myosin cross bridges are more perpendicular to myosin thick filaments in smooth muscle cells

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What structural elements allow smooth muscles to contract when stretched?
How stretched can they be and contract?

A

Their dense body arrangement means they can be stretched any direction. Longer thin and thick filaments also help.
8x in the stomach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Most of your Co2 travels in your plasma:

Implication:

A

This is why blood co2 levels are detected and not O2 levels (which travel in RBCs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Circulatory system differentiation:

A
  • Cardiovascular system (only heart and blood vessels)
  • Lymphatic system (one way)
  • Circulatory system (can be considered to be the lymphatic and cardiovascular but most people consider it only cardiovascular)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The heart pumps how much blood per minute?
How long does it take a RBC to move from the heart, to the most distal portion of the vascular system and back?
Where does the heart maintain pressure?

A

5 liters
1 minute
The arterioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Capacity of the cardiovascular system:

A

about 5 liters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Difference in color between oxygenated and non-oxygenated blood:

A

oxygenated:
- bright red
non-oxygenated blood:
- a maroon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What percent is human blood is plasma?
What percent is WBCs?
What percent is RBCs?

A

55%
much less than 1%
45%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the hematocrit?

A

The level of RBCs. If 40% of your blood is RBCs then your hematocrit is 40% and your plasma levels are 60%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does an enlarged buffy coat mean?

A

It means an infection, or it means cancer.

22
Q

what resides in the buffy coat:

A

platelets and buffy coat

23
Q

Composition of plasma:

A

91% water
7% blood proteins (fibrinogen, albumen, globulin)
2%
- Nutrients (amino acids, sugars, lipids)
- Hormones
- Electrolytes

24
Q

What is the charge of plasma proteins?

A

Generally negative

25
Q

Plasma proteins produced by the liver:

three groups/proteins

A
  • Albumin
  • alpha and beta globulins (includes carrier proteins like thyroxine binding globulin, and
  • Fibrinogens: 4% of blood protein, during cuts they are converted into insoluble fibrin strands
26
Q

Given the plasma proteins what problems can occur due to a damaged liver?

A

Hypoosmotic plasma (causing water to leave the blood, enter the tissue). Resulting in edema.

Difficulty diffusing non-polar compounds such as steroid hormones, thyroxine, and cholesterol

Difficulty in blood clotting, due to insufficient fibrinogen levels for fibrin formation

27
Q

Gamma globulin is synonymous with:

- What produces them?

A

Immunoglobulin/antibody

Lymphocytes

28
Q

Differences between:

  • Plasma:
  • Serum:
A
- Plasma:
anticoagulant
Three layer formation: plasma, buffy, RBCs
- Serum:
serum liquid: no clotting elements
Cells are caught among clotting elements
29
Q

Electrophoresis of plasma proteins:

A

Separates plasma proteins by mass (at least according to him, it should be mass/charge right?)

30
Q

Which plasma proteins are the heaviest:

Which plasma proteins are the lightest:

A

gamma-globulins (antibodies)

Albumin is the lightest (60 - 80%)

31
Q

What are the formed elements?

A

RBCs, platelets, WBCs

32
Q

What intracellular structures does the RBC lose as it develops?
Where does it lose them?

A

Nucleus and its mitochondria

In the bone marrow

33
Q

How long do RBCs last outside of the bone marrow?

What removes RBCs?

A

120 days is average

They are removed by phagocytes in the bone marrow, spleen, and liver (their components are recycled)

34
Q

How is iron recirculation accomplished?

A

RBCs are broken down in the liver, spleen and bone marrow. Iron is released from hemaglobins.
Iron binds transferins (transferins transport iron) and are brought back to the bone marrow
Cells in the bone marrow bring in transferins by receptor mediated endocytosis)

35
Q

Iron deficiency in the blood results in:

Define anemia:

A

iron-deficiency anemia

Anemia is a shortage of RBCs or hemoglobin in the bloodstream (Causes skin pallor)

36
Q

Leukocytes:

A

A clear white cell, nucleated, which has amoeboid locomotion.

37
Q

What is the process of moving through a capillary pore called (by a leukocyte)?

A

Diapedesis or extravasation

38
Q

Granulated leukocytes:

Nongranular leukocytes:

A
Granulated leukocytes:
Neutrophils
Eosonophils
Basophils
Nongranular leukocytes (use a different mechanism than granules to attack enemy hosts):
Lymphocytes
Macrophages
39
Q

Structure:
Immature Neutrophils:
Mature Neutrophils

A
Immature Neutrophils:
- also known as bar neutrophils
- No segmentation of the nucleus
Mature Neutrophils
- Nucleus is usually in three segments
- Also called polymorphonuclear leukocytes
40
Q

What is the predominant phagocytic cell of the blood and pus?

A

PMN (mature neutrophil)

41
Q

Eosinophils:

A
  • Red granulocytes
  • Seen in allergic reactions
  • Seen in parasite targeting
42
Q

Basophils:

A

Purplish grey granules.

- Allergic reactions

43
Q

Monocytes:

A

have a brain like convolutions to their nucleus

cerebraform nucleus of the monocyte

44
Q

What immune cells are involved in innate immunity:

A

lymphocytes

45
Q

Plasma cells:

A

Are an activated B cell. They actually produce antibodies. They have darker nuclei

46
Q

Platelets are synonymous with…

A

… thrombocytes

47
Q

What are platelets in actuality?

A

They are fragments of megakaryocytes which produce platelets

48
Q

How long do platelets survive for?

Where are they destroyed at?

A

5-9 days

They are destroyed in the spleen and liver

49
Q

What form of movement do platelets exhibit?

Do they have a nucleus?

A

Ameboid movement

No!

50
Q

What causes vasoconstriction of blood vessels in injuries?

A

Platelets when they bind together at the site of an injury produce seratonin which vasoconstricts the vessels.

51
Q

What are the ramifications of thrombocytopenia?

A

Thrombocytopenia is insufficient thrombocytes. Thrombycytes help secrete factors which maintain vessicle health, so insufficient levels of them results in internal bleeding, which is worsened by decreased ability to clot these bleeds. (spleen removal is one treatment)

52
Q

What is the major hematopiotic organ of the fetus?

Of the adult?

A
The liver (can relapse to the liver if damaged)
The bone marrow