Board Review I Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Board Review I Deck (83):
1

What is the technical definition of a SD?

impaired or altered function of any part of the soma

2

What is the only way to diagnose SDs?

Palpation

3

What are the components of TART? Which are the two most important?

TTP
Asymmetry
*Restricted ROM*
*Tissue texture changes*

4

How many components of TART are needed for a SD diagnosis?

2 or more, but if TTP, then need 3

5

Acute or chronic tissue texture changes:
-Edema
-Erythema
-Cool
-Dry
-boggy
-ropy
-tension

-Edema (acute)
-Erythema (acute)
-Cool (chronic)
-Dry (chronic)
-boggy (acute)
-ropy (chronic)
-tense (chronic)

6

How does asymmetry found in acute SDs compare to those found in chronic?

-Acute = single one present
-Chronic = present with other compensatory changes

7

Which has painful RROM acute or chronic SDs?

Acute--chronic has painless RROM

8

Which has sharp pain, and which has dull/achy pain: acute or chronic SDs?

Sharp = acute
Chronic = dull/achy

9

When naming vertebrals SDs, how are they named: with respect to the segment above or below?

Below

10

What is elastic deformation?

The quality of the tissue to return to its resting state after being deformed

11

What is hysteresis?

The time between elasticity and creep

12

What is creep?

The capacity of fascia to lengthen when subjected to a constant tension load, resulting in less resistance to a second load application

13

What is an elastic barrier?

The difference between anatomic and physiologic

14

What is a restrictive barrier?

the functional limit within the anatomic ROM which abnormally diminishes the normal physiologic ROM

15

What are the muscles that maintain type I SDs? Type II?

Type I = Long restrictors
Type II = Short restrictors

16

How does rotation occur with type I vs type II SD in regard to the rotation into the convexity/concavity

Type I = rotation into the convexity

Type II = rotation into the concavity

17

Which is caused by postural problems, and which traumatic problems: type I vs Type II SDs?

Type I = postural
Type II = traumatic

18

What is the third law of physiologic motion?

Inducing motion in one plane reduces the motion in the other two planes

19

How are the superior facets oriented in the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar spinal vertebrae?

BUM
BUL
BUM

20

What are the four major CNs that are a part of the PNS?

3
7
9
10

21

True or false: manipulation of the organ will cause nerves to travel back up into the brain

True?

22

What are the components of the plumb line?

-Posterior aspect of the coronal suture
-External auditory meatus
-Shoulder joint
-Posterior aspect of the hip
-Anterior axis of knee
-Anterior to lateral malleolus

23

What sacral axis is being utilized with the walking cycle?

Oblique axis on the ipsilateral side of the planted foot

24

What way does the lumbar spine side bend to with a stride?

Ipsilateral to the planted side

25

What is the goal of the biomechanical model of osteopathic care?

Attempt to prevent/relieve pain

26

What is the goal of the neurological model of osteopathic care?

Attempt to normalize the nervous system

27

What is the goal of the behavioral model of osteopathic care?

Attempt to break the pain-anxiety-pain cycle

28

What is the goal of the bioenergetic (metabolic) model of osteopathic care?

Attempt to balance the inherent energies of the body

29

What is the goal of the RC model of osteopathic care?

-Improve thoracic diaphragm and cage motion

30

Review 12 CCP points

Review

31

What are the components of the V-FIRST mnemonic?

Vascular
Fracture
Infx
Radicular
Spinal
Tumor

32

What are indirect techniques?

barrier is disengaged and moved to a *point of balance*

33

Direct or indirect: HVLA

Direct

34

Direct or indirect: ME

Direct

35

Direct or indirect: S/CS

Indirect

36

Direct or indirect: articulatory

Direct

37

Direct or indirect: LVMA

Direct

38

Direct or indirect: Cranial

Both

39

Direct or indirect: Still

Both

40

Direct or indirect: BLT

Both

41

Direct or indirect: Visceral

Both

42

Direct or indirect: FPR

indirect

43

Direct or indirect: soft tissue

Direct

44

Intrinsic or extrinsic: HV/LA

Extrinsic

45

Intrinsic or extrinsic: ME

Both

46

Intrinsic or extrinsic: Still

Both

47

Intrinsic or extrinsic: S/CS

Both

48

Intrinsic or extrinsic: Cranial

Both

49

Intrinsic or extrinsic: Myofascial

Both

50

Intrinsic or extrinsic: Springing

Extrinsic

51

Intrinsic or extrinsic: articulatory

Both

52

What is the only technique that is has no passive component to it?

ME

53

True or false: there are specific joint corrections with soft tissue techniques

False

54

What is Dalyrmple treatment?

lymphatic pumping

55

What is the technique that uses: stroking movement to move fluids

Effleurage

56

What is the technique that uses: deep kneading or squeezing to express swelling

Petrissage

57

What is the technique that uses: striking of a belly muscle to increase its tone/arterial perfusion

tapotement

58

What is the technique that uses: Striking of the skin with cupped hands to loosen material

Klapping

59

What is the part of the ME technique that actually corrects the SD: the active part of the patient, or the passive part of the osteopath

Passive part of the osteopath

60

What is isometric, isotonic, and isolytic ME?

-Isometric= same length
-Isotonic = same tension
-Isolytic = Broken

61

What is concentric contraction?

Contraction where the O and I of a muscle approximate

62

What is eccentric contraction?

Contraction where the O and I of a muscle separate or lengthen

63

What is the oculocephalogyric reflex?

Functional muscle groups are contracted in response to the voluntary eye motion to reflexively affect the cervical and truncal musculature

64

Why is OMT contraindicated with Down syndrome pts?

Laxity of the transverse alar ligaments of the atlas

65

What area should not have HV/LA performed on in with RA pts?

Cervical

66

Why is it that ribs tender points need to be held for 120 seconds, as opposed to the usual 90 seconds for everyone else?

Ribs are never truly fully relaxed d/t need to breathe

67

What is the general S/CS movement that is done with the cervicals?

Flex, SARA

68

What is the purpose of treating Chapman's points?

Reduce adverse sympathetic influences on particular organs

69

Are the collateral ganglia a part of the SNS or the PNS?

SNS

70

Which abdominal ganglion does the pancreas belong to: celiac, superior, or inferior mesenteric ganglion?

Celiac and the superior

71

What is the definition of a Myofascial trigger points?

Hypersensitive area of focus

72

Flexion of the SBS causes what movement of the sacrum?

Base moves posterior/superior

73

Extension of the SBS causes what movement of the sacrum?

Base moves anterior/inferior

74

Inhalation is paired with flexion or extension of the midline cranial bones? What happens to the paired bones with this?

Flexion

External rotation

75

Does flexion or extension increase the transverse diameter of the skull?

Flexion

76

Does flexion or extension increase the A-P diameter of the skull?

Extension

77

What are the 5 components of the PRI?

1. Inherent motility of the CNS
2. Fluctuation of the CSF
3. Mobility of the reciprocal tension membrane
4. Articular mobility of the cranial bones
5. Mobility of the sacrum between the ilia

78

Where is the 2nd and 5th finger in the vault hold?

2nd = greater wing of the sphenoid

5th = lateral angle of the occiput

79

High pitched and low pitched tinnitus is paired with which type or rotation respectively?

High = internal
Low = external

80

HAs are generally on which side of the head compared to the wing of the sphenoid?

Low wing of the sphenoid

81

What is the Wagon-=tongue vomer used to treat?

Anosmia

82

What is the "core link" of cranial?

Dural connection of occiput and sacrum

83

What is the Galbreath technique?

Lymphatic drainage technique for facial sinus pressure where direct stroking of the frontonasal, maxillary, zygomatic bones and TMJ