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Flashcards in Board Review II Deck (107):
1

What happens to sidebending and rotation as you move down the C-spine?

Sidebending increases
Rotation decreases

2

What is the "Yes joint"?

OA

3

True or false: there is no disc between C1 and C2

True

4

What is the body of the axis (C2)?

Odontoid process (Dens)

5

What is the uncovertebral joint of Luschka? What is the clinical significance of these?

Lateral portion of vertebral bodies

Place of osteophyte formation

6

What are zygapophyseal joints?

Joint between the pillars

7

True or false: there are no type I SD in the cervical spine

True

8

True or false: since the OA has sidebending and rotational components in opposite directions, it is a type I SD

False

9

Why is the sidebending and rotational components to the same side with the C-spine?

Zygapophyseal joints

10

What is Spurling's test?

Rotate and side bend to assess for nerve root impingement

11

What is the Wallenberg test?

-Test for vertebral artery insufficiency

-Head and neck are held in extension-rotation for 30 seconds

12

Spine of scapula = what T level?

T3

13

Spinous process of T7 is found at what landmark?

Inferior angle of the scapula

14

8th rib is found by what landmark?

Inferior angle of the scapula points to it

15

Jugular notch = which spinal level?

T2

16

Angle of louis = which spinal level? Rib?

T4 (second rib)

17

What is the nipple dermatome?

T4

18

What is the umbilicus dermatome?

T10

19

What is the greatest amount of motion in the thoracic spine? Least?

Greatest = rotation
Least = extension

20

What is the order of motions of the thoracic spine?

Rotation, side bending, flexion, extension

21

What vertebrae should be treated first with scoliosis?

The apex one

22

What is the difference between structural and functional scoliosis?

Structural = fixed

23

What is the Cobb angle?

Measure of the curvature of the spine

24

What is a moderate Cobb angle?

20-45 degrees

25

At what Cobb angle is respiratory function compromised? CV function?

Respiratory = 50

CV = 75

26

What are the true ribs? What makes them "true"?

1-7
Ribs with a direct attachment to the sternum

27

What are the false ribs? What makes them "false"?

8-12
Connect to the sternum through cartilage

28

What are the atypical ribs? What makes them "atypical"?

1, 2, 11-12

29

hat are the atypical ribs? What makes them "typical"?

3-9
Ribs that have 2 facets that articulate with the transverse process and the body of the vertebrae

30

What are the pump handle ribs?

1-5

31

What are the bucket handle ribs?

6-10

32

Bucket handle ribs increase what measurement of the rib cage with inhalation?

Transverse diameter

33

What is the muscle that is used in ME for rib 1?

Anterior/middle scalene

34

What is the muscle that is used in ME for rib 2?

Posterior scalene

35

What is the muscle that is used in ME for ribs 3-5?

Pec minor

36

What is the muscle that is used in ME for ribs 6-9?

Serratus anterior

37

What is the muscle that is used in ME for rib 10-12?

Lat dorsi if locked down

QL if locked up

38

What are the attachments of the diaphragm? (4)

-lower 6 ribs
-L1-3 on the right
-L1-L2 on the left
-XIphoid process

39

Which spinal vertebrae is the most commonly deformed? What deformity is most common?

-L5
-Facet tropism (asymmetry of the facet joints)

40

What is the batwing deformity?

Sacralization of L5

41

What is Ferguson's angle?

The lumbosacral angle

42

A ferguson's angle over what leads to increased pain in the lumbar spine?

30 degrees

43

What is the nerve that is tested with heel walk?

L5

44

What is the nerve root that is tested with the toe walk?

S1

45

What is psoas syndrome?

Tight psoas causes the pelvis to sideshift to opposite side of the contracture

46

Where do SDs manifest with psoas syndrome?

L1 or L2

47

What is the thomas test?

Test for psoas contracture

-Patient supine, flexes hip so knee and anterior thigh touches the abdomen. Contracture will cause contralateral leg to lift off the table

48

What is the hip drop test?

The hip that drops the least is the side to which the lumbar spine is sidebent

49

What is the innervation of the gluteus medius/minimus?

Superior gluteal nerve (L5, L4, S1)

50

A posterior innominate rotation will cause an apparent deep sacral sulcus on the contralateral or ipsilateral side?

Ipsilateral

51

An anterior innominate rotation will cause an apparent deep sacral sulcus on the contralateral or ipsilateral side?

Ipsilateral

52

Where do all the important things happen in the sacrum?

S2

53

What is sacral nutation? Counternutation?

Nutation = flexion
Counter = extension

54

The seated flexion test will be positive on the same or opposite side the that the SI joint is "stuck"?

Same

55

What determines a positive seated flexion, the side that moves first, or the side that moves farthest?

First

56

A positive seated flexion test is alway the same or opposite the sacral axis?

Opposite

(e.g. left on left = left rotation on a left axis)

57

Which part of the sacral diagnosis identifies the axis that the sacrum moves about?

The second part (e.g. left on left = left rotation on a left axis)

58

What side is the seated flexion test in a unilateral flexion?

Same

59

What side is the seated flexion test in a L on L FST?

Right

60

What side is the seated flexion test in a L on R FST?

Left

61

If the sphinx test is positive, what does this mean?

The sacral base if posterior

62

If the sphinx test is negative, what does this mean?

Sacral base is anterior

63

If there is a FST, what happens to L5?

Neutral

64

If there is a BST, what happens to L5?

Flex or extends

65

Bother ILA posterior,both sulci deep = ?

Bilateral sacral flexion, or sacral base anterior

66

Bother ILA anterior ,both sulci shallow = ?

Bilateral sacral extension

67

What is the order of the 7 stages of spencer?

-Extension
-Flexion
-Circumduction w/o traction
-Circumduction w/ traction
-Abduction/adduction
-Internal rotation
-Abduction with traction

68

Why are the 7 stages of spencer in the order that they're in?

Goes from easiest to hardest in terms of shoulder movements, to help isolate the problems with the shoulder

69

What does the arm drop test assess for?

Rotator cuff tear

70

What does Yergason's test assess for?

Bicep tendonitis or to check for the stability of the biceps tendon in the groove

71

What is the Speed's test for?

Biceps tendonitis

72

What is the apprehension test?

Chronic shoulder dislocations

73

What does the first motion of the Apley scratch test assess?

Flexion
Adduction
Internal rotation

74

What does the second motion of the Apley scratch test assess?

Flexion
Abduction
External rotation

75

What does the third motion of the Apley scratch test assess?

Extension
Adduction
Internal rotation

76

What is the innervation of the serratus anterior?

Long thoracic nerve

77

What is the scapulo-humeral rhythm?

2:1 movement of the glenohumeral joint:scapular rotation

78

What is the test for anterior/middle scalene syndrome?

Adson's test--The loss of the radial pulse in the arm by rotating head to the ipsilateral side with extended neck following deep inspiration. It is sometimes used as a sign of thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS).

79

What is the test for pectoralis minor outlet syndrome?

Hyperabduction test

80

What is the test for a cervical rib causing thoracic outlet syndrome?

CXR

81

What is the test for a 1st rib and clavicle caused thoracic outlet syndrome?

Military test

82

What is the carrying angles for men and women respectively? What is the significance of this?

Men = 5 degrees
Women = 10-15 degrees

Women more likely to get a posterior radial head

83

Posterior fat pad at the elbow = ?

Intraarticular fracture

84

Hand adduction causes what motion at the ulna?

Ulnar abduction

85

Hand abduction causes what motion at the ulna?

Ulnar adduction

86

What does Finkelstein's test assess for?

Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis inflammation (deQuervain's tenosynovitis)

87

What is the most commonly fractured bone in the hand? What is the test for this?

Scaphoid
Snuffbox TTP

88

What is the most commonly dislocated bone in the wrist?

Lunate

89

The term glide refers to what?

The freedom of motion in a joint

90

What are the three muscles that insert at the pes anserine?

Sartorius
Gracilis
SemiTendinosus
(SGT)

91

Is the knee more stable in extension or flexion?

Extension

92

What are the components of the terrible (O'Donoghue's) triad?

MCL
ACL
Medial meniscus

93

What is the ME treatment for a posterior fibular head? What is the muscle that is utilized to treat this?

-Have patient dorsiflex and evert the foot
-Peroneal

(PED)

94

What is the ME treatment for an anterior fibular head?

-Have pt plantarflex and evert the foot
-Soleus

(APE)

95

What is the Q angle?

Line measured from the ASIS to the patella, and then from the patella through the midline of the tibia

96

What is a normal Q angle?

10-12 degrees

97

What is the bone that is present in both the medial and lateral arches?

Calcaneus

98

What is Morton's syndrome?

Short 1st metatarsal

99

What is Morton's neuroma?

Nerve impingement usually between the 3rd and 4th metatarsals

100

What is the spring ligament in the foot?

Calcaneonavicular ligament

101

What are the s/sx of cuboid SDs?

Decreased motion of the 4th and 5th metatarsal

102

What are the s/sx of navicular SDs?

-Decreased motion of the 1st and 2nd toes
-Dropped medial arch

103

What is/are the ligament(s) that are damaged in a grade 1 ankle sprain?

Anterior talofibular

104

What is/are the ligament(s) that are damaged in a grade 2 ankle sprain?

ATF and calcaneofibular

105

What is/are the ligament(s) that are damaged in a grade 3 ankle sprain?

ATF
CF
Posterior talofibular

106

What is a high ankle sprain?

Involves the syndesmosis between the tibia and the fibula

107

What is the Thompson test?

Absence of the foot-plantar flexion motion with contraction of the soleus--indicates a ruptured achilles tendon