Ch. 1 - Terminology, Positioning, and Imaging Principles Flashcards
(173 cards)
1
Q
the science of the structure of the human body
A
anatomy
2
Q
how structures of the human body function
A
physiology
3
Q
the lowest level of organization in the human body
A
chemical level
4
Q
all chemicals necessary for maintaining life are composed of what
A
atoms
5
Q
atoms join together to form these
A
molecules
6
Q
various chemicals in the form of molecules band together to form what
A
cells
7
Q
This is the basic structural and functional unit of the human body
A
cells
8
Q
groups of similar cells that perform a specific function
A
tissue
9
Q
how many bones in the adult skeleton
A
206
10
Q
how many bones in the axial skeleton
A
80
11
Q
how many bones in the appendicular skeleton
A
126
12
Q
lowest level of structural organization in the human body
A
chemical level
13
Q
4 basic types of tissues
A
epithelial, connective, muscular, nervous
14
Q
body system that eliminates solid waste
A
digestive system
15
Q
body system that regulates fluid and electrolyte balance and volume
A
urinary system
16
Q
body system that maintains posture
A
muscular system
17
Q
body system that regulates body activities with electrical impulses
A
nervous system
18
Q
body system that regulates bodily activities through various hormones
A
endocrine system
19
Q
body system that eliminates carbon dioxide from blood
A
respiratory system
20
Q
body system that receives stimuli, such as temperature, pressure, and pain
A
integumentary system
21
Q
body system that reproduces the organism
A
reproductive system
22
Q
body system that regulates body temperature
A
circulatory system
23
Q
body system that supports and protects many soft tissues of the body
A
skeletal system
24
Q
which of the following body systems synthesizes vitamin D and other biochemicals
A
integumentary system
25
what is the largest organ system in the body
integumentary system
26
T/F the scapula is a part of the axial skeleton
false
27
T/F the pelvic girdle is part of the appendicular skeleton
true`
28
4 classifications of bone
long, short, irregular, flat
29
outer covering of a long bone, which is composed of a dense, fibrous membrane, is called what
periosteum
30
which aspect of long bones is responsible for the production of red blood cells
medullary aspect
31
which aspect of the long bone is essential for bone growth, repair, and nutrition
periosteum
32
primary growth center for long bones
diaphysis (body)
33
secondary growth center for long bones
epiphysis
34
T/F epiphyseal fusion of the long bones is complete by the age of 16 years
false - 20-25 years
35
wider portion of a long bone in which bone growth in length occurs
metaphysis
36
3 functional classifications of joints
synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, diarthrosis
37
3 structural classifications of joints
fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial
38
structural classification of first carpoetacarpal
synovial joint
39
structural classification of roots around teeth
fibrous joint
40
structural classification of proximal radioulnar joint
synovial joint
41
structural classification of skull sutures
fibrous joint
42
structural classification of epiphysis
cartilaginous joint
43
structural classification of interphalangeal joints
synovial joint
44
structural classification of distal tibiofibular joint
fibrous joint
45
structural classification of intervertebral disk space
cartilaginous joint
46
structural classification of symphysis pubis
cartilaginous joint
47
structural classification of hip joint
synovial joint
48
7 types of movement for synovial joints
plane (gliding)
ginglymus (hinge)
pivot (trochoid)
ellipsoid (condylar)
saddle (sellar)
ball and socket (spheroidal)
bicondylar
49
what type of synovial joint is first carpometacarpal joint
saddle
50
what type of synovial joint is elbow joint
ginglymus
51
what type of synovial joint is shoulder joint
ball and socket
52
what type of synovial joint is intercarpal joint
plane
53
what type of synovial joint is wrist joint
ellipsoidal
54
what type of synovial joint is temporomandibular joint
bicondylar
55
what type of synovial joint is first and second cervical vertebra joint
pivot
56
what type of synovial joint is second interphalangeal joint
ginglymus
57
what type of synovial joint is distal radioulnar joint
pivot
58
what type of synovial joint is ankle joint
saddle
59
what type of synovial joint is knee joint
bicondylar
60
what type of synovial joint is third metacarpophalangeal joint
ellipsoidal
61
the build, physique, and general shape of the body are defined as
body habitus
62
which of the following body-type classification makes up 50% of the population
sthenic
63
which of the following body-type classifications makes up 35% of the population
hyposthenic
64
the image receptor for a hypersthenic adult chest examination should be placed
landscape
65
T/F approximately 5% of the population is classified as hypersthenic
true
66
T/F the term asthenic is only applied to pediatric patient
false
67
an image of a patient's anatomic part(s) as produced by the actions of x-rays on an image receptor
radiograph
68
aspect of an x-ray beam that has the least divergence (unless there is angulation)
central ray (CR)
69
an upright position with arms abducted, palms forward, and head and feet together and directed straight ahead describes what
anatomic position
70
the vertical plane that divides the body into equal right and left parts
median/midsagittal plane
71
vertical plane that divides the body into equal anterior and posterior parts
midcoronal plane
72
plane taken at right angles along any point of the longitudinal axis of the body
transverse, axial, or horizontal plane
73
T/F the base plane of the skull is a transverse plane located between the infraorbital margin of the orbits and the superior margin of the external auditory meatus (EAM)
true
74
T/F the Frankfort horizontal plane is also referred to as the occlusal plane
false - base plane of skull
75
the direction or path of the central ray (CR) defines the following term
projection
76
positioning term that describes the general and specific body position is
position
77
T/F oblique body and lateral positions are described according to the side of the body closest to the image receptor
true
78
decubitus positions always use a horizontal x-ray beam
true
79
what is the name of the position in which the body is turned 90 degrees from a true AP or PA projection
lateral position
80
a patient is erect with their back to the image receptor. the left side of the body is turned 45 degrees toward the image receptor, what is this positoin
LPO
81
a patient is recumbent facing the image receptor. the right side of the body is turned 15 degrees toward the image receptor, what is this position
RAO
82
the patient is lying on his/her back. the x-ray beam is directed horizontally and enters the right side and exits the left side of the body. an image receptor is placed against the left side of the patient, what specific position has been performed
dorsal decubitus (left lateral position)
83
the patient is erect with the right side of the body against the image receptor. the x-ray beam enters the left side and exits the right side of the body, what position has been performed
right lateral
84
a patient on a cart is lying on the left side. the x-ray beam is directed horizontally and enters the posterior surface and exits the anterior aspect of the body. the image receptor is against the anterior surface, what specific position has been performed
left lateral decubitus
85
term for palm of the hand
palmar
86
term for lying on the back facing upward
supine
87
term for an upright position
erect
88
term for lying in any position
recumbent
89
term for front half of the patient
anterior
90
term for top or anterior surface of the foot
dorsum pedis
91
term for position in which head is higher than the feet
fowler
92
term for posterior aspect of the foot
plantar
93
term for position in which head is lower than the feet
trendelenburg
94
term for back half of the patient
posterior
95
a projection using a CR angle of more than 10 degrees directed parallel along the long axis of the body or body part
axial projection
96
position that demonstrates the apices of the lungs, without superimposition of the clavicles, is termed
lordotic (apical) position
97
T/F radiographic view is not a correct positioning term in the United States
true
98
T/F the term varus describes the bending of a part outward
false - inward
99
opposite of flexion
extension
100
opposite of ulnar deviation
radial deviation
101
opposite of dorsiflexion
plantar flexion
102
opposite of eversion
inversion
103
opposite of lateral (external) rotation
medial (internal) rotation
104
opposite of abduction
adduction
105
opposite of supination
pronation
106
opposite of retraction
protraction
107
opposite of depression
elevation
108
near the source or beginning
proximal
109
on the opposite side
contralateral
110
toward the center
medial
111
toward the head end of the body
cephalad or superior
112
away from the source or beginning
distal
113
outside or outward
exterior
114
on the same side
ipsilateral
115
near the skin surface
superficial
116
away from the head end
caudad or inferior
117
farther from the skin surface
deep
118
moving or thrusting the jaw forward from the normal position in an example of
protraction
119
to turn or bend the wrist toward the thumb side
radial deviation
120
which two types of information should be imprinted on every radiographic image
patient ID & date and anatomic side markers
121
3 recommendations stated in the ASRT ACE communication campaign
Announce your name
Communicate your credentials
Explain what you'll be doing
122
minimum projections for a foot exam
3
123
minimum projections for a chest exam
2
124
minimum projections for a wrist exam
3
125
minimum projections for a tibia/fibula exam
2
126
minimum projections for a humerus
2
127
minimum projections for a fifth toe
3
128
minimum projections for a postreduction of wrist
2
129
minimum projections for a left hip exam
2
130
minimum projections for a knee exam
3
131
minimum projections for a pelvis exam with no hip injury
1
132
physical localization of topographic landmarks on a patient
palpation
133
which two landmarks may not be palpated because of institutional policy
symphysis pubis, ischial tuberosity
134
T/F the technologist should verify that the correct patient is having the correct procedure by a minimum of two means
true
135
the range of exposure over which a film produces an acceptable image
exposure latitude
136
which exposure factor controls the energy or penetrating power of the x-ray beam
kVp
137
exposure time is usually expressed in what
milliseconds
138
the amount of blackness seen on a processed radiograph
density
139
the primary controlling factor for the overall blackness on a radiograph
mAs
140
if SID is increased from 40 to 80 inches, what specific effect will it have on the radiographic density if other factors are not changed
decrease density to 25%
141
which term is used to describe a radiograph that has too little density
underexposed
142
doubling the mAs will result in what to the density of the image
double the density
143
a minimum change of what in mAs is required to make a visible difference in the radiographic density
25%-30%
144
according to the anode heel effect, the x-ray beam is less intense at what end of the x-ray tube
anode
145
to best use the anode heel effect, the thicker part of the anatomic structure should be placed under what end of the x-ray tube
cathode
146
what device may be used to compensate for the difference in anatomic part thickness and produce an acceptable density on the IR image
compensating filters
147
which compensating filter is used commonly for AP projections of the thoracic spine
wedge filter
148
which type of compensating filter permits soft tissue and bony detail of the shoulder to be equally visualized
boomerang filter
149
the difference in density on adjacent areas of the radiographic image defines
radiographic contrast
150
what is the primary controlling factor for (analog) radiographic contrast
kVp
151
what is the radiographic scale for high contrast
short-scale
152
what is the radiographic scale for low contrast
long-scale
153
what scale of contrast is produced with a 100-kVp technique
long-scale (low contrast)
154
T/F a 50 kVp technique produces a high-contrast image
True
155
the recorded sharpness of structures or objects on the radiograph
spatial resolution
156
the lack of visible sharpness
blur or unsharpness
157
the unsharp edges of the projected image
penumbra
158
the greatest deterrent to image unsharpness as related to positioning is
motion
159
what is the best mechanism to control involuntary motion during exposure
decrease exposure time
160
the misrepresentation of an object size or shape projected onto a radiograph recording medium is called
distortion
161
T/F a decrease in SID reduces distortion
false
162
T/F an increase in OID reduces distortion
false
163
T/F distortion is reduced when the CR is kept perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor
true
164
T/F every radiographic image reflects some degree of unsharpness, even if the smallest focal spot is used
true
165
T/F as the distance between the object and the image receptor is increased, magnification is reduced
false
166
T/F image distortion increases as the angle of divergence increases from the center of the x-ray beam to the outer edges
true
167
T/F the greater the angle of inclination of the object or the IR, the greater the amount of distortion
true
168
T/F digital imaging systems have a narrow dynamic range
false
169
digital processing involves the systemic application of highly complex mathematical formulas called
algorithms
170
the range or level of image contrast in the digital image is primarily controlled by what
digital processing
171
current range of spatial resolution for digital radiographic imaging systems is between
2.5 and 5.0m lp/mm
172
a random disturbance that obscures or reduces clarity is the definition for
noise
173
changing or enhancing the electronic image to improve its diagnostic quality is called
postprocessing
